Education > EXAM > NURS6630 Final Exam (latest version) 100% correct answer /NURS6630 Final Exam (latest version) 100% (All)
QUESTION 1 What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity? A... . Stimulants B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. SSRIs QUESTION 2 The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism? A. First-generation, conventional antipsychotics B. First-generation, atypical antipsychotics C. Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics QUESTION 3 The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics? [Show More]
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NURS6630 Final exam and NUR6531 midterm exam NURS6630 Final exam and NUR6531 midterm exam
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