MSK Practice Questions - Full Questions, Answers with Complete Solutions

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1. A 20 year old college basketball player reports of pain, stiffness and feeling of weakness in his left knee which aggravates after playing. On examination, there is no crepitus, no popping or locki... ng of the joint movement. Palpating the lower pole of patella and quadriceps tendon reproduces pain. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Jumpers knee B. Meniscal tear C. Osteochondritis dissecans D. Osgood Schlatter syndrome: The correct answer is A: Jumpers knee. Rationale- Patellar tendonitis or Jumpers knee is an overuse injury of the quadriceps tendon. Pain at the lower pole of patella and stiffness after activity are main presentations. Meniscal tear (Option B) presents with popping and locking on movement. Osteochondritis dissecans (Option C) may have pain at base of patella due to traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle but it is seen in a younger age group who are not skeletal mature. Similarly, Osgood Schlatter (Option D) is seen in younger children aged 12-14. Reference: David J Magee; Orthopedic physical examination edition 6. Page: 770 2. A PT is evaluating a 24-year-old female basketball player with a vague diagnosis of right knee pain. The patient is performing a jump landing as shown in the picture below. The PT treatment should MOST likely focus on: A. Strengthening of the right gluteus medius B. Strengthening of the right adductor magnus C. Strengthening of the right vastus medialis D. Strengthening of the right tibialis anterior: The correct answer is A: Strengthening of the right gluteus medius. [Show More]

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