NR293 Exam 2 Practice Questions Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer last month, and has complained of a dull ache in the abdomen... for the past 4 months. This pain has been gradually increasing, and the pain relievers taken at home are no longer effective. What type of pain is the patient experiencing? a. Acute pain b. Chronic pain c. Somatic pain d. Neuropathic pain Chronic pain is associated with cancer and is characterized by slow onset, long duration, and dull, persistent aching. The patient’s symptoms are not characteristics of acute pain, somatic pain, or neuropathic pain. 2. An 18-year-old basketball player fell and twisted his ankle during a game. The nurse will expect to administer which type of analgesic? a. Synthetic opioid, such as meperidine (Demerol) b. Opium alkaloid, such as morphine sulfate c. Opioid antagonist, such as naloxone HCL (Narcan) d. Nonopioid analgesic, such as indomethacin (Indocin) Somatic pain, which originates from skeletal muscles, ligaments, and joints, usually responds to nonopioid analgesics such as nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). The other options are not the best choices for somatic pain. 3. A patient is recovering from abdominal surgery, which he had this morning. He is groggy but complaining of severe pain around his incision. What is the most important assessment data to consider before the nurse administers a dose of morphine sulfate to the patient? a. His pulse rate b. His respiratory rate c. The appearance of the incision d. The date of his last bowel movement One of the most serious adverse effects of opioids is respiratory depression. The nurse must assess the patient’s respiratory rate before administering an opioid. The other options are incorrect. 4. A 78-year-old patient is in the recovery room after having a lengthy surgery on his hip. As he is gradually awakening, he requests pain medication. Within 10 minutes after receiving a dose of morphine sulfate, he is very lethargic and his respirations are shallow, with a rate of 7 per minute. The nurse prepares for which priority action at this time? a. Assessment of the patient’s pain level b. Immediate intubation and artificial ventilation c. Administration of naloxone (Narcan) d. Close observation of signs of opioid tolerance Naloxone, an opioid-reversal agent, is used to reverse the effects of acute opioid overdose and is the drug of choice for reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression. This situation is describing an opioid overdose, not opioid tolerance. Intubation and artificial ventilation are not appropriate because the patient is still breathing at 7 breaths per minute. It would be inappropriate to assess the patient’s level of pain. 5. A patient will be discharged with a 1-week supply of an opioid analgesic for pain management after abdominal surgery. The nurse will include which information in the teaching plan? a. How to prevent dehydration due to diarrhea b. Importance of taking the drug only when the pain becomes severe c. How to prevent constipation d. Importance of taking the drug on an empty stomach Gastrointestinal adverse effects, such as nausea, vomiting, and constipation, are the most common adverse effects associated with opioid analgesics. Physical dependence usually occurs in patients undergoing long-term treatment. Diarrhea is not an effect of opioid analgesics. Taking the dose with food may help minimize GI upset. 6. A patient has been treated for lung cancer for 3 years. Over the past few months, the patient has noticed that the opioid analgesic is not helping as much as it had previously and more medication is needed for the same pain relief. The nurse is aware that this patient is experiencing opioid a. addiction. b. tolerance. c. toxicity. d. abstinence syndrome. Opioid tolerance is a common physiologic result of long-term opioid use. Patients with opioid tolerance require larger doses of the opioid agent to maintain the same level of analgesia. This situation does not describe toxicity (overdose), addiction, or abstinence syndrome (withdrawal). 7. A 38-year-old man has come into the urgent care center with severe hip pain after falling from a ladder at work. He says he has taken several pain pills over the past few hours but cannot remember how many he has taken. He hands the nurse an empty bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The nurse is aware that the most serious toxic effect of acute acetaminophen overdose is which condition? a. Tachycardia b. Central nervous system depression c. Hepatic necrosis d. Nephropathy Hepatic necrosis is the most serious acute toxic effect of an acute overdose of acetaminophen. The other options are incorrect. 8. A 57-year-old woman being treated for end-stage breast cancer has been using a transdermal opioid analgesic as part of the management of pain. Lately, she has been experiencing breakthrough pain. The nurse expects this type of pain to be managed by a. administering NSAIDs. b. administering an immediate-release opioid. c. changing the opioid route to the rectal route. d. not changing the current therapy. If a patient is taking long-acting opioid analgesics, breakthrough pain must be treated with an immediate-release dosage form that is given between scheduled doses of the long-acting opioid. The other options are not appropriate actions. 9. The nurse is reviewing herbal therapies. Which is a common use of the herb feverfew? a. Muscle aches b. Migraine headaches c. Leg cramps d. Incision pain after surgery Feverfew is commonly used for migraine headaches, menstrual problems, arthritis, and fever. Possible adverse effects include muscle stiffness and muscle and joint pain. 10. A patient is to receive acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) as part of the treatment for an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Which action by the nurse is appropriate when giving this medication? a. Giving the medication undiluted for full effect b. Avoiding the use of a straw when giving this medication c. Disguising the flavor with soda or flavored water d. Preparing to give this medication via a nebulizer Acetylcysteine has the flavor of rotten eggs and so is better tolerated if it is diluted and disguised by mixing with a drink such as cola or flavored water to help increase its palatability. The use of a straw helps to minimize contact with the mucous membranes of the mouth and is recommended. The nebulizer form of this medication is used for certain types of pneumonia, not for acetaminophen overdose. 11. A patient is receiving gabapentin (Neurontin), an anticonvulsant, but has no history of seizures. The nurse expects that the patient is receiving this drug for which condition? a. Inflammation pain b. Pain associated with peripheral neuropathy c. Depression associated with chronic pain d. Prevention of seizures Anticonvulsants are often used as adjuvants for treatment of neuropathic pain to enhance analgesic efficacy. The other indications listed are not correct. 12. The nurse is assessing a patient who has been admitted to the emergency department for a possible opioid overdose. Which assessment finding is characteristic of an opioid drug overdose? a. Dilated pupils b. Restlessness c. Respiration rate of 6 breaths/minute d. Heart rate of 55 beats/minute The most serious adverse effect of opioid use is CNS depression, which may lead to respiratory depression. Pinpoint pupils, not dilated pupils, are seen. Restlessness and a heart rate of 55 beats per minute are not indications of an opioid overdose. 13. The drug nalbuphine (Nubain) is an agonist-antagonist (partial agonist). The nurse understands that which is a characteristic of partial agonists? a. They have antiinflammatory effects. b. They are given to reverse the effects of opiates. c. They have a higher potency than agonists. d. They have a lower dependency potential than agonists. Partial agonists such as nalbuphine are similar to the opioid agonists in terms of their therapeutic indications; however, they have a lower risk of misuse and addiction. They do not have antiinflammatory effects, nor are they given to reverse the effects of opiates. They do not have a higher potency than agonists. 14. The nurse is assessing a patient for contraindications to drug therapy with acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which patient should not receive acetaminophen? a. A patient with a fever of 101 F (38.3 C) b. A patient who is complaining of a mild headache c. A patient with a history of liver disease d. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease Liver disease is a contraindication to the use of acetaminophen. Fever and mild headache are both possible indications for the medication. Having a history of peptic ulcer disease is not a contraindication. 15. A patient arrives at the urgent care center complaining of leg pain after a fall when rock climbing. The x-rays show no broken bones, but he has a large bruise on his thigh. The patient says he drives a truck and does not want to take anything strong because he needs to stay awake. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate? a. “It would be best for you not to take anything if you are planning to drive your truck.” b. “We will discuss with your doctor about taking an opioid because that would work best for your pain.” c. “You can take acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, for pain, but no more than 1000 mg per day.” d. “You can take acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, for pain, but no more than 3000 mg per day.” Acetaminophen is indicated for mild to moderate pain and does not cause drowsiness, as an opioid would. Currently, the maximum daily amount of acetaminophen is 3000 mg per day. The 1000-mg amount per day is too low. Telling the patient not to take any pain medications is incorrect. 16. A patient is suffering from tendonitis of the knee. The nurse is reviewing the patient’s medication administration record and recognizes that which adjuvant medication is most appropriate for this type of pain? a. Antidepressant b. Anticonvulsant c. Corticosteroid d. Local anesthesia Corticosteroids have an antiinflammatory effect, which may help to reduce pain. The other medications do not have antiinflammatory properties. Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. During a fishing trip, a patient pierced his finger with a large fishhook. He is now in the emergency department to have it removed. The nurse anticipates that which type of anesthesia will be used for this procedure? a. No anesthesia b. Topical benzocaine spray on the area c. Topical prilocaine (EMLA) cream around the site d. Infiltration of the puncture wound with lidocaine Infiltration anesthesia is commonly used for minor surgical procedures. It involves injecting the local anesthetic solution intradermally, subcutaneously, or submucosally across the path of nerves supplying the area to be anesthetized. The local anesthetic may be administered in a circular pattern around the operative field. The other types are not appropriate for this injury. This is a painful procedure; therefore, the option of “no anesthesia” is incorrect. 2. A patient is to receive local anesthesia for removal of a lymph node from his armpit. The physician asks for a solution of premixed lidocaine and epinephrine. The nurse knows that the epinephrine is used for which reason? a. It prevents an anaphylactic reaction from occurring. b. The anesthetic enhances the effect of the epinephrine. c. Epinephrine contributes to a balanced anesthetic state. d. It keeps the anesthetic at its local site of action and decreases incisional bleeding. Vasoconstrictors such as epinephrine are coadministered with local anesthetics to keep the anesthetic at its local site of action and to prevent systemic absorption. The other options are not correct rationales for using this medication. 3. During the immediate postoperative recovery period, what is the nurse’s priority assessment? a. Pupil responses b. Return to sensation c. Level of consciousness d. Airway, breathing, and circulation After surgery and the termination of general anesthesia, the priority assessment is the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation status. The other assessments are important but are not the immediate concern. 4. While monitoring a patient who had surgery under general anesthesia 2 hours ago, the nurse notes a sudden elevation in body temperature. This finding may be an indication of which problem? a. Tachyphylaxis b. Postoperative infection c. Malignant hypertension d. Malignant hyperthermia A sudden elevation in body temperature during the postoperative period may indicate the occurrence of malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening emergency. The elevated temperature does not reflect the other problems listed. 5. When assessing patients in the preoperative area, the nurse knows that which patient is at a higher risk for an altered response to anesthesia? a. The 30-year-old patient who has never had surgery before b. The 45-year-old patient who stopped smoking 10 years ago c. The 21-year-old patient who is to have a kidney stone removed d. The 78-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal The elderly patient is more affected by anesthesia than the young or middle-aged adult patient because of the effects of aging on the hepatic, cardiac, respiratory, and renal systems. 6. A patient is undergoing abdominal surgery and has been anesthetized for 3 hours. Which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for this patient? a. Anxiety related to the use of an anesthetic b. Risk for injury related to increased sensorium from general anesthesia c. Decreased cardiac output related to systemic effects of local anesthesia d. Impaired gas exchange related to central nervous system depression produced by general anesthesia The nursing diagnosis of impaired gas exchange is appropriately worded for this patient. Anxiety would not be appropriate while the patient is in surgery. Sensorium would be decreased during surgery, not increased. Cardiac output is affected by general anesthesia, not local anesthesia. 7. When administering a neuromuscular blocking drug such as pancuronium (Pavulon), the nurse needs to remember which principle? a. It is used instead of general anesthesia during surgery. b. Only skeletal muscles are paralyzed; respiratory muscles remain functional. c. It causes sedation and pain relief while allowing for lower doses of anesthetics. d. Artificial mechanical ventilation is required because of paralyzed respiratory muscles. Patients receiving neuromuscular blocking drugs require artificial mechanical ventilation because of the resultant paralysis of the respiratory muscles. In addition, they do not cause sedation or pain relief. They are used along with, not instead of, general anesthesia during surgery. 8. A patient has been given succinylcholine (Anectine) after a severe injury that necessitated controlled ventilation. The physician now wants to reverse the paralysis. The nurse would expect to use which drug to reverse the succinylcholine? a. valium (Diazepam) b. caffeine c. neostigmine (Prostigmin) d. vecuronium (Norcuron) The antidote for neuromuscular blocking drugs is an anticholinesterase drug, such as neostigmine. Neostigmine reverses the effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs. The other drugs listed are not antidotes for neuromuscular blocking drugs. 9. A patient is being prepared for an oral endoscopy, and the nurse anesthetist reminds him that he will be awake during the procedure but probably will not remember it. What type of anesthetic technique is used in this situation? a. Local anesthesia b. Moderate sedation c. Topical anesthesia d. Spinal anesthesia Moderate sedation effectively reduces patient anxiety, sensitivity to pain, and recall of the medical procedure, yet it preserves a patient’s ability to maintain his or her own airway and respond to verbal commands. The other options are incorrect. 10. During the immediate postoperative period, the Post Anesthesia Care Unit nurse is assessing a patient who had hip surgery. The patient is experiencing tachycardia, tachypnea, and muscle rigidity, and his temperature is 103 F (39.4 C). The nurse will prepare for what immediate treatment? a. naltrexone hydrochloride (Narcan) injection, an opioid reversal drug b. dantrolene (Dantrium) injection, a skeletal muscle relaxant c. An anticholinesterase drug, such as neostigmine d. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and intubation Tachycardia, tachypnea, muscle rigidity, and raised temperature are symptoms of malignant hyperthermia, which is treated with cardiorespiratory supportive care as needed to stabilize heart and lung function as well as with immediate treatment with the skeletal muscle relaxant dantrolene. CPR is not immediately needed because the patient still has a pulse and respirations. Naltrexone and anticholinesterase drugs are not appropriate in this situation. Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient who has received some traumatic news is panicking and asks for some medication to help settle down. The nurse anticipates giving which drug that is most appropriate for this situation? a. diazepam (Valium) b. zolpidem (Ambien) c. phenobarbital d. cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) Benzodiazepines such as diazepam are used as anxiolytics, or sedatives. Zolpidem is used as a hypnotic for sleep. Phenobarbital is not used as an anxiolytic but is used for seizure control. Cyclobenzaprine is a muscle relaxant and is not used to reduce anxiety. 2. A patient has been taking phenobarbital for 2 weeks as part of his therapy for epilepsy. He tells the nurse that he feels tense and that “the least little thing” bothers him now. Which is the correct explanation for this problem? a. These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks. b. The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects. c. This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness. d. This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress. Barbiturates such as phenobarbital deprive people of REM sleep, which can result in agitation and the inability to deal with normal stress. A rebound phenomenon occurs when the drug is stopped (not during therapy), and the proportion of REM sleep increases, sometimes resulting in nightmares. The other options are incorrect. 3. A 50-year-old man who has been taking phenobarbital for 1 week is found very lethargic and unable to walk after eating out for dinner. His wife states that he has no other prescriptions and that he did not take an overdose—the correct number of pills is in the bottle. The nurse suspects that which of the following may have happened? a. He took a multivitamin. b. He drank a glass of wine. c. He took a dose of aspirin. d. He developed an allergy to the drug. Alcohol has an additive effect when combined with barbiturates and causes central nervous system depression. Multivitamins and aspirin do not interact with barbiturates, and this situation does not illustrate an allergic reaction. 4. A patient has been taking temazepam (Restoril) for intermittent insomnia. She calls the nurse to say that when she takes it, she sleeps well, but the next day she feels “so tired.” Which explanation by the nurse is correct? a. “Long-term use of this drug results in a sedative effect.” b. “If you take the drug every night, this hangover effect will be reduced.” c. “These drugs affect the sleep cycle, resulting in daytime sleepiness.” d. “These drugs increase the activity of the central nervous system (CNS), making you tired the next day.” Benzodiazepines suppress REM sleep to a degree (although not as much as barbiturates) and, thus, result in daytime sleepiness (a hangover effect). The other statements are incorrect. 5. A patient is recovering from a minor automobile accident that occurred 1 week ago. He is taking cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) for muscular pain and goes to physical therapy three times a week. Which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for him? a. Risk for falls related to decreased sensorium b. Risk for addiction related to psychological dependency c. Decreased fluid volume related to potential adverse effects d. Disturbed sleep pattern related to the drug’s interference with REM sleep Musculoskeletal relaxants have a depressant effect on the CNS; thus, the patient needs to be taught the importance of taking measures to minimize self-injury and falls related to decreased sensorium. “Risk for addiction” is not a NANDA nursing diagnosis. The other nursing diagnoses are not appropriate for this situation. 6. A patient is taking flurazepam (Dalmane) 3 to 4 nights a week for sleeplessness. She is concerned that she cannot get to sleep without taking the medication. What nonpharmacologic measures should the nurse suggest to promote sleep for this patient? a. Providing a quiet environment b. Exercising before bedtime to become tired c. Consuming heavy meals in the evening to promote sleepiness d. Drinking hot tea or coffee just before bedtime Nonpharmacologic approaches to induce sleep include providing a quiet environment, avoiding heavy exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late in the evening, and drinking warm decaffeinated drinks, such as warm milk, before bedtime. 7. A patient is brought to the emergency department for treatment of a suspected overdose. The patient was found with an empty prescription bottle of a barbiturate by his bedside. He is lethargic and barely breathing. The nurse would expect which immediate intervention? a. Starting an intravenous infusion of diluted bicarbonate solution b. Administering medications to increase blood pressure c. Implementing measures to maintain the airway and support respirations d. Administrating naloxone (Narcan) as an antagonist There are no antagonists/antidotes for barbiturates. Treatment supports respirations and maintains the airway. The other interventions are not appropriate. 8. Ramelteon (Rozerem) is prescribed for a patient with insomnia. The nurse checks the patient’s medical history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated in which disorder? a. Coronary artery disease b. Renal insufficiency c. Liver disease d. Anemia Ramelteon is contraindicated in cases of severe liver dysfunction. The other conditions are not contraindications. 9. The nurse notes in the patient’s medication history that the patient is taking cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder? a. A musculoskeletal injury b. Insomnia c. Epilepsy d. Agitation Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) is the muscle relaxant most commonly used to reduce spasms following musculoskeletal injuries. It is not appropriate for insomnia, epilepsy, or agitation. 10. A patient has experienced insomnia for months, and the physician has prescribed a medication to help with this problem. The nurse expects which drug to be used for long-term treatment of insomnia? a. secobarbital (Seconal), a barbiturate b. diazepam (Valium), a benzodiazepine c. midazolam (Versed), a benzodiazepine d. eszopiclone (Lunesta), a nonbenzodiazepine sleep aid Eszopiclone (Lunesta) is one of the newest prescription hypnotics to be approved for long-term use in treatment of insomnia. Barbiturates and benzodiazepines are not appropriate for long-term treatment of insomnia; midazolam is used for procedural (moderate) sedation. 11. A patient tells the nurse that he likes to drink kava herbal tea to help him relax. Which statement by the patient indicates that additional teaching about this herbal product is needed? a. “I will not drink wine with the kava tea.” b. “If I notice my skin turning yellow, I will stop taking the tea.” c. “I will not take sleeping pills if I have this tea in the evening.” d. “I will be able to drive my car after drinking this tea.” Patients should not drive after drinking this tea because it may cause sedation. Kava tea may cause skin discoloration (with long-term use). In addition, it must not be taken with alcohol, barbiturates, and psychoactive drugs. 12. A patient has been admitted to the emergency department for an overdose of oral benzodiazepines. He is very drowsy but still responsive, with a respiration rate of 12 breaths per minute. The nurse will prepare for which immediate intervention? a. Hemodialysis to remove the medication b. Administration of flumazenil (Romazicon) c. Administration of naloxone (Narcan) d. Intubation and mechanical ventilation Flumazenil (Romazicon), a benzodiazepine antidote, can be used to acutely reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Hemodialysis is not useful for benzodiazepine overdose, and naloxone is used for opioid overdose, not benzodiazepine overdose. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are not appropriate because the patient is still responsive and breathing on his own. Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient is receiving instructions regarding the use of caffeine. The nurse shares that caffeine should be used with caution if which of these conditions is present? a. A history of peptic ulcers b. Migraine headaches c. Asthma d. A history of kidney stones Caffeine should be used with caution by patients who have histories of peptic ulcers or cardiac dysrhythmias or who have recently had myocardial infarctions. The other conditions are not contraindications to the use of caffeine. 2. A patient who started taking orlistat (Xenical) 1 month ago calls the clinic to report some “embarrassing” adverse effects. She tells the nurse that she has had episodes of “not being able to control my bowel movements.” Which statement is true about this situation? a. These are expected adverse effects that will eventually diminish. b. The patient will need to stop this drug immediately if these adverse effects are occurring. c. The patient will need to increase her fat intake to prevent these adverse effects. d. The patient will need to restrict fat intake to less than 30% to help reduce these adverse effects. Restricting dietary intake of fat to less than 30% of total calories can help reduce some of the GI adverse effects, which include oily spotting, flatulence, and fecal incontinence. The other options are incorrect. 3. A 6-year-old boy has been started on an extended-release form of methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). During a follow-up visit, his mother tells the nurse that she has been giving the medication at bedtime so that it will be “in his system” when he goes to school the next morning. What is the nurse’s appropriate evaluation of the mother’s actions? a. She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately. b. The medication should not be taken until he is at school. c. The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption. d. The medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia. Central nervous system stimulants should be taken 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to decrease insomnia. Generally speaking, once-a-day dosing is used with extended-release or long-acting preparations. These formulations eliminate the need to take this medication at school. 4. A 22-year-old nursing student has been taking NoDoz (caffeine) tablets for the past few weeks to “make it through” the end of the semester and exam week. She is in the university clinic today because she is “exhausted.” What nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for her? a. Noncompliance b. Impaired physical mobility c. Sleep deprivation d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements The main ingredient in NoDoz, caffeine, is a central nervous system stimulant that can be used to increase mental alertness. Restlessness, anxiety, and insomnia are common adverse effects. Thus, sleep deprivation is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis of those listed. 5. An ergot alkaloid is prescribed for a patient who is having frequent migraine headaches. The nurse provides information to the patient about the medication and tells the patient to contact the prescriber if which problem occurs? a. Nervousness b. Dizziness c. Chest pain d. Nausea and vomiting Nervousness, dizziness, and nausea and vomiting are expected adverse effects of ergot alkaloids. However, if chest pain occurs, the prescriber should be contacted immediately, or the patient should seek emergency care. 6. A 10-year-old patient will be started on methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) therapy. The nurse will perform which essential baseline assessment before this drug is started? a. Eye examination b. Height and weight c. Liver studies d. Hearing test Assessment of baseline height and weight is important before beginning Ritalin therapy because it may cause a temporary slowing of growth in prepubertal children. The other studies are not as essential at this time. 7. Before a patient receives triptans for the treatment of migraines, the nurse will assess for the presence of which condition, which is a contraindication if present? a. Hypotension b. Renal disease c. Liver damage d. Cardiovascular disease Triptans are contraindicated in patients with serious cardiovascular disease because of the vasoconstrictive potential of these medications. The other options are incorrect. 8. When evaluating a patient who is taking orlistat (Xenical), which is an intended therapeutic effect? a. Increased wakefulness b. Increased appetite c. Decreased weight d. Decreased hyperactivity Orlistat (Xenical) is a nonstimulant drug that is used as part of a weight loss program. The other options are incorrect. 9. The nurse is teaching a patient how to self-administer triptan injections for migraine headaches. Which statement by the patient indicates that he needs further teaching? a. “I will take this medication regularly to prevent a migraine headache from occurring.” b. “I will take this medication when I feel a migraine headache starting.” c. “This medication does not reduce the number of migraines I will have.” d. “I will keep a journal to record the headaches I have and how the injections are working.” Although they may be taken during aura symptoms by patients who have auras with their headaches, these drugs are not indicated for preventive migraine therapy. The medication is intended to relieve the migraine and not to prevent it or to reduce the number of attacks. The triptans do not reduce the number of migraines a person will have. Journal recordings of headaches and the patient’s responses to the medication are helpful. MISSING CHAPTER 14 (ANTIEPLIEPTIC) Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient has been taking selegiline (Eldepryl), 20 mg per day for 1 month. Today, during his office visit, he tells the nurse that he forgot and had a beer with dinner last evening, and “felt awful.” What did the patient most likely experience? a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Urinary discomfort d. Gastrointestinal upset At doses that exceed 10 mg per day, selegiline becomes a nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), contributing to the development of the cheese effect, so-called because it interacts with tyramine-containing foods (cheese, red wine, beer, and yogurt) and can cause severe hypertension. 2. A patient has been given a prescription for levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for her newly diagnosed Parkinson’s disease. She asks the nurse, “Why are there two drugs in this pill?” The nurse’s best response reflects which fact? a. Carbidopa allows for larger doses of levodopa to be given. b. Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery. c. There are concerns about drug-food interactions with levodopa therapy that do not exist with the combination therapy. d. Carbidopa is the biologic precursor of dopamine and can penetrate into the CNS. When given in combination with levodopa, carbidopa inhibits the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery and thus allows smaller doses of levodopa to be used. Lesser amounts of levodopa result in fewer unwanted adverse effects. Levodopa, not carbidopa, is the biologic precursor of dopamine and can penetrate into the CNS. 3. When a patient is taking an anticholinergic such as benztropine (Cogentin) as part of the treatment for Parkinson’s disease, the nurse should include which information in the teaching plan? a. Minimize the amount of fluid taken while on this drug. b. Discontinue the medication if adverse effects occur. c. Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. d. Use artificial saliva, sugarless gum, or hard candy to counteract dry mouth. Dry mouth can be managed with artificial saliva through drops or gum, frequent mouth care, forced fluids, and sucking on sugar-free hard candy. Anticholinergics should be taken with or after meals to minimize gastrointestinal upset and must not be discontinued suddenly. The patient must drink at least 3000 mL per day unless contraindicated. Drinking water is important, even if the patient is not thirsty or in need of hydration, to prevent and manage the adverse effect of constipation. 4. A patient has been treated with antiparkinson medications for 3 months. What therapeutic responses should the nurse look for when assessing this patient? a. Decreased appetite b. Gradual development of cogwheel rigidity c. Newly developed dyskinesias d. Improved ability to perform activities of daily living Therapeutic responses to antiparkinson agents include an improved sense of well-being, improved mental status, increased appetite, increased ability to perform activities of daily living and to concentrate and think clearly, and less intense parkinsonian manifestations. 5. Amantadine (Symmetrel) is prescribed for a patient with Parkinson’s disease. The nurse informs the patient that which common adverse effects can occur with this medication? a. Dyskinesias, drowsiness b. Dizziness, insomnia, nausea c. Peripheral edema, fatigue, syncope d. Heart palpitations, hypotension, urinary retention Common adverse reactions associated with amantadine include dizziness, insomnia, and nausea. The other effects may occur with other antiparkinson drugs. 6. The nurse is assessing the medication history of a patient with a new diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease. Which condition is a contraindication for the patient, who will be taking tolcapone (Tasmar)? a. Glaucoma b. Seizure disorder c. Liver failure d. Benign prostatic hyperplasia Tolcapone is contraindicated in patients who have shown a hypersensitivity reaction to it, and it should be used with caution in patients with preexisting liver disease. The other conditions listed are not contraindications. 7. The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who is taking an anticholinergic drug. Which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for this patient? a. Diarrhea b. Urinary retention c. Risk for infection d. Sleep deprivation Patients receiving anticholinergic drugs are at risk for urinary retention and constipation, not diarrhea. The other nursing diagnoses are not applicable to anticholinergic drugs. 8. A patient has a new order for a catechol ortho-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor as part of treatment for Parkinson’s disease. The nurse recognizes that an advantage of this drug class is that it a. has a shorter duration of action. b. causes less gastrointestinal distress. c. has a slower onset than traditional Parkinson’s disease drugs. d. is associated with fewer wearing-off effects. COMT inhibitors are associated with fewer wearing-off effects and have prolonged therapeutic benefits. They have a quicker onset, and they prolong the duration of action of levodopa. 9. A patient taking entacapone (Comtan) for the first time calls the clinic to report a dark discoloration of his urine. After listening to the patient, the nurse realizes that what is happening in this situation? a. This is a harmless effect of the drug. b. The patient has taken this drug along with red wine or cheese. c. The patient is having an allergic reaction to the drug. d. The ordered dose is too high for this patient. COMT inhibitors, including entacapone, may darken a patient’s urine and sweat. 10. While a patient is receiving drug therapy for Parkinson’s disease, the nurse monitors for dyskinesia, which is manifested by which finding? a. Rigid, tense muscles b. Difficulty in performing voluntary movements c. Limp extremities with weak muscle tone d. Confusion and altered mental status Dyskinesia is the difficulty in performing voluntary movements that is experienced by some patients with Parkinson’s disease. The other options are incorrect. 11. When treating patients with medications for Parkinson’s disease, the nurse knows that the wearing-off phenomenon occurs for which reason? a. There are rapid swings in the patient’s response to levodopa. b. The patient cannot tolerate the medications at times. c. The medications begin to lose effectiveness against Parkinson’s disease. d. The patient’s liver is no longer able to metabolize the drug. The wearing-off phenomenon occurs when antiparkinson medications begin to lose their effectiveness, despite maximal dosing, as the disease progresses. The other options are incorrect. Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse reads in the patient’s medication history that the patient is taking buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse interprets that the patient may have which disorder? a. Anxiety disorder b. Depression c. Schizophrenia d. Bipolar disorder Buspirone is indicated for the treatment of anxiety disorders, not depression, schizophrenia, or bipolar disorder. 2. Before beginning a patient’s therapy with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants, the nurse will assess for concurrent use of which medications or medication class? a. Aspirin b. Anticoagulants c. Diuretics d. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs Use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants with warfarin results in an increased anticoagulant effect. SSRI antidepressants do not interact with the other drugs or drug classes listed. See Table 16-6 for important drug interactions with SSRIs. 3. When a patient is receiving a second-generation antipsychotic drug, such as risperidone (Risperdal), the nurse will monitor for which therapeutic effect? a. Fewer panic attacks b. Decreased paranoia and delusions c. Decreased feeling of hopelessness d. Improved tardive dyskinesia The therapeutic effects of the antipsychotic drugs include improvement in mood and affect, and alleviation or decrease in psychotic symptoms (decrease in hallucinations, paranoia, delusions, garbled speech). Tardive dyskinesia is a potential adverse effect of these drugs. The other options are incorrect. 4. A patient has been taking haloperidol (Haldol) for 3 months for a psychotic disorder, and the nurse is concerned about the development of extrapyramidal symptoms. The nurse will monitor the patient closely for which effects? a. Increased paranoia b. Drowsiness and dizziness c. Tremors and muscle twitching d. Dry mouth and constipation Extrapyramidal symptoms are manifested by tremors and muscle twitching, and the incidence of such symptoms is high during haloperidol therapy. The other options are incorrect. 5. A patient has been taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) phenelzine (Nardil) for 6 months. The patient wants to go to a party and asks the nurse, “Will just one beer be a problem?” Which advice from the nurse is correct? a. “You can drink beer as long as you have a designated driver.” b. “Now that you’ve had the last dose of that medication, there will be no further dietary restrictions.” c. “If you begin to experience a throbbing headache, rapid pulse, or nausea, you’ll need to stop drinking.” d. “You need to avoid all foods that contain tyramine, including beer, while taking this medication.” Foods containing tyramine, such as beer and aged cheeses, should be avoided while a patient is taking an MAOI. Drinking beer while taking an MAOI may precipitate a dangerous hypertensive crisis. The other options are incorrect. 6. A 22-year-old patient has been taking lithium for 1 year, and the most recent lithium level is 0.9 mEq/L. Which statement about the laboratory result is correct? a. The lithium level is therapeutic. b. The lithium level is too low. c. This lithium level is too high. d. Lithium is not usually monitored with blood levels. Desirable long-term maintenance lithium levels range between 0.6 and 1.2 mEq/L. The other responses are incorrect. 7. A patient with the diagnosis of schizophrenia is hospitalized and is taking a phenothiazine drug. Which statement by this patient indicates that he is experiencing a common adverse effect of phenothiazines? a. “I can’t sleep at night.” b. “I feel hungry all the time.” c. “Look at how red my hands are.” d. “My mouth has been so dry lately.” Phenothiazines produce anticholinergic-like adverse effects of dry mouth, urinary hesitancy, and constipation. 8. A patient has been taking the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) sertraline (Zoloft) for about 6 months. At a recent visit, she tells the nurse that she has been interested in herbal therapies and wants to start taking St. John’s wort. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. “That should be no problem.” b. “Good idea! Hopefully you’ll be able to stop taking the Zoloft.” c. “Be sure to stop taking the herb if you notice a change in side effects.” d. “Taking St. John’s wort with Zoloft may cause severe interactions and is not recommended.” The herbal product St. John’s wort must not be used with SSRIs. Potential interactions include confusion, agitation, muscle spasms, twitching, and tremors. The other responses by the nurse are inappropriate. 9. While monitoring a depressed patient who has just started SSRI antidepressant therapy, the nurse will observe for which problem during the early time frame of this therapy? a. Hypertensive crisis b. Self-injury or suicidal tendencies c. Extrapyramidal symptoms d. Loss of appetite In 2005, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) issued special black-box warnings regarding the use of all classes of antidepressants in both adult and pediatric patient populations. Data from the FDA indicated a higher risk for suicide in patients receiving these medications. As a result, current recommendations for all patients receiving antidepressants include regular monitoring for signs of worsening depressive symptoms, especially when the medication is started or the dosage is changed. The other options are incorrect. 10. A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected overdose of a tricyclic antidepressant. The nurse will prepare for what immediate concern? a. Hypertension b. Renal failure c. Cardiac dysrhythmias d. Gastrointestinal bleeding Tricyclic antidepressant overdoses are notoriously lethal. The primary organ systems affected are the central nervous system and the cardiovascular system, and death usually results from either seizures or dysrhythmias. 11. The wife of a patient who has been diagnosed with depression calls the office and says, “It’s been an entire week since he started that new medicine for his depression, and there’s no change! What’s wrong with him?” What is the nurse’s best response? a. “The medication may not be effective for him. He may need to try another type.” b. “It may take up to 4 weeks to notice any therapeutic effects. Let’s wait a little longer to see how he does.” c. “It sounds like the dose is not high enough. I’ll check about increasing the dosage.” d. “Some patients never recover from depression. He may not respond to this therapy.” Patients and family members need to be told that antidepressant drugs commonly require several weeks before full therapeutic effects are noted. The other answers are incorrect. 12. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. The nurse includes which information? a. The patient needs to avoid caffeine while on this drug. b. The patient needs to wear sunscreen while outside because of photosensitivity. c. Long-term therapy may result in nervousness and excitability. d. The medication may be taken with an antacid to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Sun exposure and tanning booths need to be avoided with conventional antipsychotics because of the adverse effect of photosensitivity. Instruct the patient to apply sunscreen liberally and to wear sun-protective clothing and hats. 13. The nurse is reviewing the food choices of a patient who is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which food choice would indicate the need for additional teaching? a. Orange juice b. Fried eggs over-easy c. Salami and Swiss cheese sandwich d. Biscuits and honey Aged cheeses, such a Swiss or cheddar cheese, and salami contain tyramine. Patients who are taking MAOIs need to avoid tyramine-containing foods because of a severe hypertensive reaction that may occur. Orange juice, eggs, biscuits, and honey do not contain tyramine. 14. A patient wants to take a ginseng dietary supplement. The nurse instructs the patient to look for which potential adverse effect? a. Drowsiness b. Palpitations and anxiety c. Dry mouth d. Constipation Elevated blood pressure, chest pain or palpitations, anxiety, insomnia, headache, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are potential adverse effects of ginseng. Drowsiness, difficulty with urination, and constipation are not potential adverse effects of ginseng. 15. The nurse is reviewing medications used for depression. Which of these statements is a reason that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are more widely prescribed today than tricyclic antidepressants? a. SSRIs have fewer sexual side effects. b. Unlike tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs do not have drug-food interactions. c. Tricyclic antidepressants cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias if an overdose occurs. d. SSRIs cause a therapeutic response faster than tricyclic antidepressants. Death from overdose of tricyclic antidepressants usually results from either seizures or dysrhythmias. SSRIs are associated with significantly fewer and less severe systemic adverse effects, especially anticholinergic and cardiovascular adverse effects. The other options are incorrect. Chapter 17: Substance Abuse Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A 38-year-old male patient stopped smoking 6 months ago. He tells the nurse that he still feels strong cigarette cravings and wonders if he is ever going to feel “normal” again. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. “It’s possible that these cravings will never stop.” b. “These cravings may persist for several months.” c. “The cravings tell us that you are still using nicotine.” d. “The cravings show that you are about to experience nicotine withdrawal.” Cigarette cravings may persist for months after nicotine withdrawal. The other statements are false. 2. A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms. The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment? a. diazepam (Valium) b. methadone c. disulfiram (Antabuse) d. bupropion (Zyban) Opioid withdrawal can be managed with either methadone or clonidine (Catapres). Diazepam and disulfiram are used for treatment of alcoholism, and bupropion is used to assist with smoking cessation. 3. A patient has been taking naltrexone (ReVia) as part of the treatment for addiction to heroin. The nurse expects that the naltrexone will have which therapeutic effect for this patient? a. Naltrexone prevents the cravings for opioid drugs. b. Naltrexone works as a safer substitute for the heroin until the patient completes withdrawal. c. The patient will experience flushing, sweating, and severe nausea if he takes heroin while on naltrexone. d. If opioid drugs are used while taking naltrexone, euphoria is not produced; thus, the opioid’s desired effects are lost. Naltrexone works to eliminate the euphoria that occurs with opioid drug use; therefore, the reinforcing effect of the drug is lost. 4. The nurse is presenting a substance-abuse lecture for teenage girls and is asked about “roofies.” The nurse recognizes that this is the slang term for which substance? a. cocaine b. flunitrazepam c. secobarbital d. methamphetamine Flunitrazepam is a benzodiazepine that has recently gained popularity as a recreational drug and is commonly called roofies (the “date-rape” drug). The other drugs are not known as roofies. 5. A 29-year-old male patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with the following symptoms: restlessness, hyperactive reflexes, talkativeness, confusion and periods of panic and euphoria, tachycardia, and fever. The nurse suspects that he may be experiencing the effects of taking which substance? a. Opioids b. Alcohol c. Stimulants d. Depressants The adverse effects listed may occur with use of stimulants and are commonly an extension of their therapeutic effects. Opioids, alcohol, and depressants do not have these effects. 6. When admitting a patient with a suspected diagnosis of chronic alcohol use, the nurse will keep in mind that chronic use of alcohol might result in which condition? a. Renal failure b. Cerebrovascular accident c. Korsakoff’s psychosis d. Alzheimer’s disease A variety of serious neurologic and mental disorders, such as Korsakoff’s psychosis and Wernicke’s encephalopathy, as well as cirrhosis of the liver, may occur with chronic use of alcohol. Renal failure, cerebrovascular accident, and Alzheimer’s disease are not associated directly with chronic use of alcohol. 7. A patient is being treated for ethanol alcohol abuse in a rehabilitation center. The nurse will include which information when teaching him about disulfiram (Antabuse) therapy? a. He should not smoke cigarettes while on this drug. b. He needs to know about the common over-the-counter substances that contain alcohol. c. This drug will cause the same effects as the alcohol did, without the euphoric effects. d. Mouthwashes and cough medicines that contain alcohol are safe because they are used in small amounts. The use of disulfiram (Antabuse) with alcohol-containing over-the-counter products will elicit severe adverse reactions. As little as 7 mL of alcohol may cause symptoms in a sensitive person. Cigarette smoking does not cause problems when taking disulfiram. Disulfiram does not have the same effects as alcohol. 8. The nurse is conducting a smoking-cessation program. Which statement regarding drugs used in cigarette-smoking–cessation programs is true? a. Rapid chewing of the nicotine gum releases an immediate dose of nicotine. b. Quick relief from withdrawal symptoms is most easily achieved by using a transdermal patch. c. Compliance with treatment is higher with use of the gum rather than the transdermal patch. d. The nicotine gum can be used only up to six times per day. Quick or acute relief from withdrawal symptoms is most easily achieved with the use of the gum, because rapid chewing of the gum produces an immediate dose of nicotine. However, treatment compliance is higher with the use of the transdermal patch system. Nicotine gum can be used whenever the patient has a strong urge to smoke. Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient has a new order for the adrenergic drug doxazosin (Cardura). When providing education about this drug, the nurse will include which instructions? a. “Weigh yourself daily, and report any weight loss to your prescriber.” b. “Increase your potassium intake by eating more bananas and apricots.” c. “The impaired taste associated with this medication usually goes away in 2 to 3 weeks.” d. “Be sure to lie down after taking the first dose, because first-dose hypotension may make you dizzy.” A patient who is starting doxazosin should take the first dose while lying down because there is a first-dose hypotensive effect with this medication. The other options are incorrect. 2. A patient with severe liver disease is receiving the angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, captopril (Capoten). The nurse is aware that the advantage of this drug for this patient is which characteristic? a. Captopril rarely causes first-dose hypotensive effects. b. Captopril has little effect on electrolyte levels. c. Captopril is a prodrug and is metabolized by the liver before becoming active. d. Captopril is not a prodrug and does not need to be metabolized by the liver before becoming active. A prodrug relies on a functioning liver to be converted to its active form. Captopril is not a prodrug, and therefore it would be safer for the patient with liver dysfunction. 3. During a follow-up visit, the health care provider examines the fundus of the patient’s eye. Afterward, the patient asks the nurse, “Why is he looking at my eyes when I have high blood pressure? It does not make sense to me!” What is the best response by the nurse? a. “We need to monitor for drug toxicity.” b. “We must watch for increased intraocular pressure.” c. “The provider is assessing for visual changes that may occur with drug therapy.” d. “The provider is making sure the treatment is effective over the long-term.” The physician would examine the fundus of a patient’s eyes during antihypertensive therapy because it is a more reliable indicator than blood pressure readings of the long-term effectiveness of treatment. 4. The nurse is preparing for a community education program on hypertension. Which of these parameters determine the regulation of arterial blood pressure? a. Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance b. Heart rate and peripheral resistance c. Blood volume and renal blood flow d. Myocardial contractility and arteriolar constriction Blood pressure is determined by the product of cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. The other options are incorrect. 5. When counseling a male patient about the possible adverse effects of antihypertensive drugs, the nurse will discuss which potential problem? a. Impotence b. Bradycardia c. Increased libido d. Weight gain Sexual dysfunction is a common complication of antihypertensive medications and may be manifested in men as decreased libido or impotence. The other options are incorrect. 6. The nurse is reviewing drug therapy for hypertension. According to the JNC 7 guidelines, antihypertensive drug therapy for a newly diagnosed stage 1 hypertensive African-American patient would most likely include which drug or drug classes? a. Vasodilators alone b. ACE inhibitors alone c. Calcium channel blockers with thiazide diuretics d. Beta blockers with thiazide diuretics According to the JNC 7 guidelines, calcium channel blockers and diuretics have been shown to be more effective in African Americans than in white patients. Thiazide diuretics are also recommended for newly diagnosed stage 1 hypertension. 7. The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which is a potential nursing diagnosis for the patient taking antihypertensive medications? a. Diarrhea b. Sexual dysfunction c. Urge urinary incontinence d. Impaired memory Sexual dysfunction is a potential nursing diagnosis related to possible adverse effects of antihypertensive drug therapy. The other nursing diagnoses are not appropriate. 8. A patient’s blood pressure elevates to 270/150 mm Hg, and a hypertensive emergency is obvious. He is transferred to the intensive care unit and started on a sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) drip to be titrated per his response. With this medication, the nurse knows that the maximum dose of this drug should be infused for how long? a. 10 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 1 hour d. 24 hours Sodium nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator and may lead to extreme decreases in the patient’s blood pressure. For this reason, it is never infused at the maximum dose for more than 10 minutes. If this drug does not control a patient’s blood pressure after 10 minutes, it will most likely be ordered to be discontinued. The other times listed are incorrect. 9. A patient with primary hypertension is prescribed drug therapy for the first time. The patient asks how long drug therapy will be needed. Which answer by the nurse is the correct response? a. “This therapy will take about 3 months.” b. “This therapy will take about a year.” c. “This therapy will go on until your symptoms disappear.” d. “Therapy for high blood pressure is usually lifelong.” There is no cure for the disease, and treatment will be lifelong. The other answers are not appropriate. 10. A patient who has been taking antihypertensive drugs for a few months complains of having a persistent dry cough. The nurse knows that this cough is an adverse effect of which class of antihypertensive drugs? a. Beta blockers b. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors c. Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) d. Calcium channel blockers ACE inhibitors cause a characteristic dry, nonproductive cough that reverses when therapy is stopped. The other drug classes do not cause this cough. 11. A pregnant woman is experiencing hypertension. The nurse knows that which drug is commonly used for a pregnant patient who is experiencing hypertension? a. mannitol (Osmitrol) b. enalapril (Vasotec) c. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) d. methyldopa (Aldomet) Methyldopa is used in the treatment of hypertension during pregnancy. The other options are incorrect. 12. The nurse is reviewing the JNC 7 guidelines for treatment of hypertension. Which blood pressure would be classified as “prehypertension” according to the JNC 7 guidelines? a. 118/76 mm Hg b. 130/88 mm Hg c. 150/90 mm Hg d. 160/104 mm Hg Prehypertension is defined as having a systolic blood pressure between 120 and 139 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure between 80 and 89 mm Hg. The other parameters listed are incorrect. 13. A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been found to have trace proteinuria. The prescriber writes an order for an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. What is the main reason for prescribing this class of drug for this patient? a. Cardioprotective effects b. Renal protective effects c. Reduces blood pressure d. Promotes fluid output ACE inhibitors have been shown to have a protective effect on the kidneys because they reduce glomerular filtration pressure. This is one reason that they are among the cardiovascular drugs of choice for diabetic patients. The other drugs do not have this effect. 14. The nurse is reviewing the orders for a patient and notes a new order for an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse checks the current medication orders, knowing that this drug class may have a serious interaction with what other drug class? a. Calcium channel blockers b. Diuretics c. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs d. Nitrates Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen can reduce the antihypertensive effect of ACE inhibitors. In addition, the use of NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors may also predispose patients to the development of acute renal failure. 15. An elderly patient will be taking a vasodilator for hypertension. Which adverse effect is of most concern for the older adult patient taking this class of drug? a. Dry mouth b. Restlessness c. Constipation d. Hypotension The elderly are more sensitive to the blood pressure–lowering effects of vasodilators, and consequently experience more problems with hypotension, dizziness, and syncope. The other options are incorrect. Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When the nurse is administering topical nitroglycerin ointment, which technique is correct? a. Apply the ointment on the skin on the forearm. b. Apply the ointment only in the case of a mild angina episode. c. Remove the old ointment before new ointment is applied. d. Massage the ointment gently into the skin, and then cover the area with plastic wrap. The old ointment should be removed before a new dose is applied. The ointment should be applied to clean, dry, hairless skin of the upper arms or body, not below the elbows or below the knees. The ointment is not massaged or spread on the skin, and it is not indicated for the treatment of acute angina. 2. The nurse is giving intravenous nitroglycerin to a patient who has just been admitted because of an acute myocardial infarction. Which statement is true regarding the administration of the intravenous form of this medication? a. The solution will be slightly colored green or blue. b. The intravenous form is given by bolus injection. c. It can be given in infusions with other medications. d. Non-polyvinylchloride (non-PVC) plastic intravenous bags and tubing must be used. The non-PVC infusion kits are used to avoid absorption and/or uptake of the nitrate by the intravenous tubing and bag and/or decomposition of the nitrate. The medication is given by infusion via an infusion pump and not with other medications. It is not given by bolus injection. If the parenteral solution is discolored blue or green, it should be discarded. 3. A patient has been diagnosed with angina and will be given a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. When teaching the patient how to use sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse will include which instruction? a. Take up to five doses at 15-minute intervals for an angina attack. b. If the tablet does not dissolve quickly, chew the tablet for maximal effect. c. If the chest pain is not relieved after one tablet, call 911 immediately. d. Wait 1 minute between doses of sublingual tablets, up to three doses. According to current guidelines, if the chest pain or discomfort is not relieved in 5 minutes, after one dose, the patient (or family member) must call 911 immediately. The patient may take one more tablet while awaiting emergency care and may take a third tablet 5 minutes later, but no more than a total of three tablets. The sublingual dose is placed under the tongue, and the patient needs to avoid swallowing until the tablet has dissolved. 4. A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golfing games. He says the pain usually goes away after 1 or 2 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest. What type of angina is he experiencing? a. Classic b. Variant c. Unstable d. Prinzmetal’s Classic, or chronic stable, angina is triggered by either exertion or stress and usually subsides within 15 minutes with either rest or drug therapy. 5. A patient arrives in the emergency department with severe chest pain. The patient reports that the pain has been occurring off and on for a week now. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for cautious use of nitrates and nitrites? a. Blood pressure of 88/62 mm Hg b. Apical pulse rate of 110 beats/min c. History of renal disease d. History of a myocardial infarction 2 years ago Hypotension is a possible contraindication to the use of nitrates because the medications may cause the blood pressure to decrease. The other options are incorrect. 6. A calcium channel blocker (CCB) is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. Which instruction is correct? a. Chew the tablet for faster release of the medication. b. To increase the effect of the drug, take it with grapefruit juice. c. If the adverse effects of chest pain, fainting, or dyspnea occur, discontinue the medication immediately. d. A high-fiber diet with plenty of fluids will help prevent the constipation that may occur. Constipation is a common effect of CCBs, and a high-fiber diet and plenty of fluids will help to prevent it. Grapefruit juice decreases the metabolism of CCBs. Extended-release tablets must never be chewed or crushed. These medications should never be discontinued abruptly because of the risk for rebound hypertension. 7. When applying transdermal nitroglycerin patches, which instruction by the nurse is correct? a. “Rotate application sites with each dose.” b. “Use only the chest area for application sites.” c. “Temporarily remove the patch if you go swimming.” d. “Apply the patch to the same site each time.” Application sites for transdermal nitroglycerin patches need to be rotated. Apply the transdermal patch to any nonhairy area of the body; the old patch should first be removed. The patch may be worn while swimming, but if it does come off, it should be replaced after the old site is cleansed. 8. A patient has been taking a beta blocker for 4 weeks as part of his antianginal therapy. He also has type II diabetes and hyperthyroidism. When discussing possible adverse effects, the nurse will include which information? a. “Watch for unusual weight loss.” b. “Monitor your pulse for increased heart rate.” c. “Use the hot tub and sauna at the gym as long as time is limited to 15 minutes.” d. “Monitor your blood glucose levels for possible hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia.” Beta blockers can cause both hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. They may also cause weight gain if heart failure is developing, and decreased pulse rate. The use of hot tubs and saunas is not recommended because of the possibility of hypotensive episodes. 9. What action is often recommended to help reduce tolerance to transdermal nitroglycerin therapy? a. Omit a dose once a week. b. Leave the patch on for 2 days at a time. c. Cut the patch in half for 1 week until the tolerance subsides. d. Remove the patch at bedtime, and then apply a new one in the morning. To prevent tolerance, remove the transdermal patch at night for 8 hours, and apply a new patch in the morning. Transdermal patches must never be cut or left on for 2 days, and doses must not be omitted. 10. While assessing a patient who is taking a beta blocker for angina, the nurse knows to monitor for which adverse effect? a. Nervousness b. Hypertension c. Bradycardia d. Dry cough Adverse effects of beta blockers include bradycardia, hypotension, dizziness, drowsiness, impotence, and several other effects, but not dry cough. 11. When teaching a patient who has a new prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin patches, the nurse tells the patient that these patches are most appropriately used for which situation? a. To prevent palpitations b. To relieve shortness of breath c. To prevent the occurrence of angina d. To keep the heart rate from rising too high during exercise Transdermal dosage formulations of nitroglycerin are used for the long-term prophylactic management (prevention) of angina pectoris. Transdermal nitroglycerin patches are not appropriate for the relief of shortness of breath, to prevent palpitations, or to control the heart rate during exercise. Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient about to receive a morning dose of digoxin has an apical pulse of 53 beats/minute. What will the nurse do next? a. Administer the dose. b. Administer the dose, and notify the prescriber. c. Check the radial pulse for 1 full minute. d. Withhold the dose, and notify the prescriber. Digoxin doses are held and the prescriber notified if the apical pulse is 60 beats/minute or lower or is higher than 100 beats/minute. The other options are incorrect. 2. A patient is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) and a loop diuretic daily. When the nurse enters the room with the morning medications, the patient states, “I am seeing a funny yellow color around the lights.” What is the nurse’s next action? a. Assess the patient for symptoms of digoxin toxicity. b. Withhold the next dose of the diuretic. c. Administer the digoxin and diuretic together as ordered. d. Document this finding, and reassess in 1 hour. Seeing colors around lights is one potential indication of developing digoxin toxicity. If a patient complains of this, the nurse needs to assess for other signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity including bradycardia, headache, dizziness, confusion, nausea, and blurred vision, and then notify the prescriber. Administering the drug or withholding the diuretic are incorrect options. 3. While assessing a patient who is receiving intravenous digitalis, the nurse recognizes that the drug has a negative chronotropic effect. How would this drug effect be evident in the patient? a. Decreased blood pressure b. Decreased heart rate c. Decreased conduction d. Decreased ectopic beats A negative chronotropic effect results in a reduced heart rate; this is one effect of cardiac glycosides. The other options are incorrect. 4. A patient has been taking digoxin at home but took an accidental overdose and has developed toxicity. The patient has been admitted to the telemetry unit, where the physician has ordered digoxin immune Fab (Digifab). The patient asks the nurse why the medication is ordered. What is the nurse’s best response? a. “It will increase your heart rate.” b. “This drug helps to lower your potassium levels.” c. “It helps to convert the irregular heart rhythm to a more normal rhythm.” d. “This drug is an antidote to digoxin and will help to lower the blood levels.” Digoxin immune Fab (Digifab) is the antidote for a severe digoxin overdose. It is given intravenously. The other options are incorrect. 5. A patient has been placed on a milrinone (Primacor) infusion as part of the therapy for end-stage heart failure. What adverse effect of this drug will the nurse watch for when assessing this patient during the infusion? a. Hypertension b. Hyperkalemia c. Nausea and vomiting d. Cardiac dysrhythmias The primary adverse effects seen with milrinone are cardiac dysrhythmias, mainly ventricular. It may also cause hypotension, hypokalemia, and other effects, but not nausea and vomiting. 6. A patient has a digoxin level of 1.4 ng/mL. The nurse interprets that this level is a. below the therapeutic level. b. within the therapeutic range. c. above the therapeutic level. d. at a toxic level. The normal therapeutic drug level of digoxin is between 0.5 and 2 ng/mL. The other options are incorrect. 7. The nurse is reviewing discharge teaching for a patient who will be taking digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy. The nurse will teach the patient to avoid which foods when taking the digoxin? a. Leafy green vegetables b. Dairy products c. Grapefruit juice d. Bran muffins Bran, in large amounts, may decrease the absorption of oral digitalis drugs. The other foods do not affect digoxin levels. 8. In assessing a patient before administration of a cardiac glycoside, the nurse knows that which lab result can increase the toxicity of the drug? a. Potassium level 2.8 mEq/L b. Potassium level 4.9 mEq/L c. Sodium level 140 mEq/L d. Calcium level 10 mg/dL Hypokalemia increases the chance of digitalis toxicity. The other levels listed are incorrect. 9. The nurse administering the phosphodiesterase inhibitor milrinone (Primacor) recognizes that this drug will have a positive inotropic effect. Which result reflects this effect? a. Increased heart rate b. Increased blood vessel dilation c. Increased force of cardiac contractions d. Increased conduction of electrical impulses across the heart Positive inotropic drugs increase myocardial contractility, thus increasing the force of cardiac conduction. Positive chronotropic drugs increase the heart rate. Positive dromotropic drugs increase the conduction of electrical impulses across the heart. Blood vessel dilation is not affected. 10. The nurse notes in a patient’s medical record that nesiritide (Natrecor) has been ordered. Based on this order, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder? a. Atrial fibrillation b. Acutely decompensated heart failure with dyspnea at rest c. Systolic heart failure d. Long-term treatment of heart failure Nesiritide is indicated for the treatment of acutely decompensated heart failure with dyspnea at rest. Digoxin is used for the treatment of atrial fibrillation and systolic heart failure. Long-term treatment of heart failure is not an indication for nesiritide. 11. When administering digoxin immune Fab (Digibind) to a patient with severe digoxin toxicity, the nurse knows that each vial can bind with how much digoxin? a. 0.5 mg b. 5 mg c. 5.5 mg d. 15 mg One vial of digoxin immune Fab binds 0.5 mg of digoxin. The other options are incorrect. 12. A patient is in the intensive care unit and receiving an infusion of milrinone (Primacor) for severe heart failure. The prescriber has written an order for an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix). How will the nurse give this drug? a. Infuse the drug into the same intravenous line as the milrinone. b. Stop the milrinone, flush the line, and then administer the furosemide. c. Administer the furosemide in a separate intravenous line. d. Notify the prescriber that the furosemide cannot be given at this time. Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse is reviewing the classes of antidysrhythmic drugs. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is classified on the Vaughan Williams classification as a class III drug, which means it works by which mechanism of action? a. Blocking slow calcium channels b. Prolonging action potential duration c. Blocking sodium channels and affecting phase 0 d. Decreasing spontaneous depolarization and affecting phase 4 2. A patient is taking procainamide (Pronestyl) for a cardiac dysrhythmia. The nurse will monitor the patient for which possible adverse effect? a. Bradycardia b. Shortened QT interval c. Dyspnea d. Diarrhea 3. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient receiving antidysrhythmics? a. Risk for infection b. Deficient knowledge c. Deficient fluid volume d. Urinary retention 4. A patient will be discharged on quinidine sulfate (Quinidex) extended-release tablets for the treatment of ventricular ectopy. The nurse will include which information in the teaching plan? a. The medication should be stopped once the cardiac symptoms subside. b. Signs of cinchonism, such as tinnitus, loss of hearing, or slight blurring of vision, may occur. c. It is important to use sunscreen products when outside because of increased photosensitivity. d. If any tablet or capsule is visible in the stool, contact the prescriber immediately. 5. A patient is in the intensive care unit because of an acute myocardial infarction. He is experiencing severe ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse will prepare to give which drug of choice for this dysrhythmia? a. diltiazem (Cardizem) b. verapamil (Calan) c. amiodarone (Cordarone) d. adenosine (Adenocard) 6. The nurse is preparing to administer adenosine (Adenocard) to a patient who is experiencing an acute episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. When giving this medication, which is important to remember? a. The onset of action occurs in 5 minutes. b. The medication must be given as a slow intravenous (IV) push. c. Asystole may occur for a few seconds after administration. d. The medication has a long half-life, and therefore duration of action is very long. 7. A 62-year-old man is to receive lidocaine as treatment for a symptomatic dysrhythmia. Upon assessment, the nurse notes that he has a history of alcoholism and has late-stage liver failure. The nurse will expect which adjustments to his drug therapy? a. The dosage will be reduced by 50%. b. A diuretic will be added to the lidocaine. c. The lidocaine will be changed to an oral dosage form. d. An increased dosage of lidocaine will be prescribed so as to obtain adequate blood levels. 8. A patient has been started on therapy of a continuous infusion of lidocaine after receiving a loading dose of the drug. The nurse will monitor the patient for which adverse effect? a. Drowsiness b. Nystagmus c. Dry mouth d. Convulsions 9. When starting a patient on antidysrhythmic therapy, the nurse will remember that which problem is a potential adverse effect of any antidysrhythmic drug? a. Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins b. Hyperkalemia c. Heart failure d. Dysrhythmias 10. A patient is in the emergency department with a new onset of rapid-rate atrial fibrillation, and the nurse is preparing a continuous infusion. Which drug is most appropriate for this dysrhythmia? a. diltiazem (Cardizem) b. atenolol (Tenormin) c. lidocaine d. adenosine (Adenocard) 11. The nurse notes in the patient’s medication orders that the patient will be taking ibutilide (Corvert). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder? a. Ventricular ectopy b. Atrial fibrillation c. Supraventricular tachycardia d. Bradycardia Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) in addition to a heparin infusion. The patient asks the nurse why he has to be on two medications. The nurse’s response is based on which rationale? a. The oral and injection forms work synergistically. b. The combination of heparin and an oral anticoagulant results in fewer adverse effects than heparin used alone. c. Oral anticoagulants are used to reach an adequate level of anticoagulation when heparin alone is unable to do so. d. Heparin is used to start anticoagulation so as to allow time for the blood levels of warfarin to reach adequate levels. 2. The nurse is preparing to administer dipyridamole (Persantine). Which statement about this drug is true? a. It has antiinflammatory and antipyretic properties. b. It has analgesic properties as well as antithrombotic effects. c. It is useful in reducing the risk for fatal and nonfatal thrombotic stroke. d. It is used with warfarin to prevent postoperative thromboembolic complications. 3. A patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy, and the nurse monitors the patient for adverse effects. What is the most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy? a. Dysrhythmias b. Nausea and vomiting c. Anaphylactic reactions d. Internal and superficial bleeding 4. A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which antidote? a. vitamin E b. vitamin K c. protamine sulfate d. potassium chloride 5. When administering heparin subcutaneously, the nurse will follow which procedure? a. Aspirating the syringe before injecting the medication b. Massaging the site after injection c. Applying heat to the injection site d. Using a – to -inch 25- to 28-gauge needle 6. A patient has been instructed to take one enteric-coated low-dose aspirin a day as part of therapy to prevent strokes. The nurse will provide which instruction when providing patient teaching about this medication? a. Aspirin needs to be taken on an empty stomach to ensure maximal absorption. b. Low-dose aspirin therapy rarely causes problems with bleeding. c. Take the medication with 6 to 8 ounces of water and food. d. Coated tablets may be crushed if necessary for easier swallowing. 7. A patient will be receiving a thrombolytic drug as part of the treatment for acute myocardial infarction. The nurse explains to the patient that this drug is used for which purpose? a. To relieve chest pain b. To prevent further clot formation c. To dissolve the clot in the coronary artery d. To control bleeding in the coronary vessels 8. A patient is receiving heparin therapy as part of the treatment for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse monitors the results of which laboratory test to check the drug’s effectiveness? a. Bleeding times b. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) c. Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR) d. Vitamin K levels 9. The nurse notes in the patient’s medication orders that the patient will be starting anticoagulant therapy. What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy? a. Stabilizing an existing thrombus b. Dissolving an existing thrombus c. Preventing thrombus formation d. Dilating the vessel around a clot 10. A patient is being discharged on anticoagulant therapy. The nurse will include in the patient-education conversation that it is important to avoid herbal products that contain which substance? a. Valerian b. Ginkgo c. Soy d. Saw palmetto 11. A patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) therapy has a headache and calls the prescriber’s office to ask about taking a pain reliever. The nurse expects to receive instructions for which type of medication? a. aspirin tablets b. ibuprofen (Advil) c. acetaminophen (Tylenol) d. An opioid 12. A patient has had recent prosthetic heart valve surgery and is receiving anticoagulant therapy. While monitoring the patient’s laboratory work, the nurse interprets that the patient’s international normalized ratio (INR) level of 2.5 indicates that a. the patient is not receiving enough warfarin to have a therapeutic effect. b. the patient’s warfarin dose is at therapeutic levels. c. the patient’s intravenous heparin dose is dangerously high. d. the patient’s intravenous heparin dose is at therapeutic levels. 13. A patient has received an overdose of intravenous heparin, and is showing signs of excessive bleeding. Which substance is the antidote for heparin overdose? a. vitamin E b. vitamin K c. protamine sulfate d. potassium chloride 14. The nurse is reviewing new medication orders for a patient who has an epidural catheter for pain relief. One of the orders is for enoxaparin (Lovenox), a low–molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). What is the nurse’s priority action? a. Give the LMWH as ordered. b. Double-check the LMWH order with another nurse, and then administer as ordered. c. Stop the epidural pain medication, and then administer the LMWH. d. Contact the prescriber because the LMWH cannot be given if the patient has an epidural catheter. LMWHs are contraindicated in patients with an indwelling epidural catheter; they can be given 2 hours after the epidural is removed. This is very important to remember, because giving an LMWH with an epidural has been associated with epidural hematoma. Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient with elevated lipid levels has a new prescription for nicotinic acid (niacin). The nurse informs the patient that which adverse effects may occur with this medication? a. Pruritus, cutaneous flushing b. Tinnitus, urine with a burnt odor c. Myalgia, fatigue d. Blurred vision, headaches 2. A patient reports having adverse effects with nicotinic acid (niacin). The nurse can suggest performing which action to minimize these undesirable effects? a. Take the drug on an empty stomach. b. Take the medication every other day until the effects subside. c. Take an aspirin tablet 30 minutes before taking the drug. d. Take the drug with large amounts of fiber. 3. A patient calls the clinic office saying that the cholestyramine (Questran) powder he started yesterday clumps and sticks to the glass when he tries to mix it. The nurse will suggest what method for mixing this medication for administration? a. Mix the powder in a carbonated soda drink to dissolve it faster. b. Add the powder to any liquid, and stir vigorously to dissolve it quickly. c. Mix the powder with food or fruit, or at least 4 to 6 ounces of fluid. d. Sprinkle the powder into a spoon and take it dry, followed by a glass of water. 4. A patient is concerned about the adverse effects of the fibric acid derivative she is taking to lower her cholesterol level. Which is an adverse effect of this class of medication? a. Constipation b. Diarrhea c. Joint pain d. Dry mouth 5. While a patient is receiving antilipemic therapy, the nurse knows to monitor the patient closely for the development of which problem? a. Neutropenia b. Pulmonary problems c. Vitamin C deficiency d. Liver dysfunction 6. When reviewing patients’ histories, the nurse recognizes that which patient would be a likely candidate for drug therapy for cholesterol reduction? a. A patient who has coronary heart disease and an LDL level of 100 mg/dL b. A patient who has one risk factor, an LDL level of 170 mg/dL, and no history of coronary heart disease c. A patient who has coronary heart disease and an LDL level of 165 mg/dL d. A patient who has two risk factors and a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 100 mg/dL, without coronary heart disease 7. A patient tells the nurse that he likes to eat large amounts of garlic “to help lower his cholesterol levels naturally.” The nurse reviews his medication history and notes that which drug has a potential interaction with the garlic? a. acetaminophen (Tylenol) b. warfarin (Coumadin) c. digoxin (Lanoxin) d. phenytoin (Dilantin) 8. A patient with risk factors for coronary artery disease asks the nurse about the “good cholesterol” laboratory values. The nurse knows that “good cholesterol” refers to which lipids? a. Triglycerides b. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) c. Very–low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) d. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) . 9. A patient who has recently started therapy on a statin drug asks the nurse how long it will take until he sees an effect on his serum cholesterol. Which statement would be the nurse’s best response? a. “Blood levels return to normal within a week of beginning therapy.” b. “It takes 6 to 8 weeks to see a change in cholesterol levels.” c. “It takes at least 6 months to see a change in cholesterol levels.” d. “You will need to take this medication for almost a year to see significant results.” 10. The nurse will monitor for myopathy (muscle pain) when a patient is taking which class of antilipemic drugs? a. Niacin b. HMG–CoA reductase inhibitors c. Fibric acid derivatives d. Bile acid sequestrants 11. When teaching a patient who is beginning antilipemic therapy about possible drug-food interactions, the nurse will discuss which food? a. Oatmeal b. Grapefruit juice c. Licorice d. Dairy products 12. The nurse is conducting a class about antilipemic drugs. The antilipemic drug ezetimibe (Zetia) works by which mechanism? a. Inhibiting HMG–CoA reductase b. Preventing resorption of bile acids from the small intestines c. Activating lipase, which breaks down cholesterol d. Inhibiting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine Ezetimibe selectively inhibits absorption in the small intestine of cholesterol and related sterols. The other options are incorrect. Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When monitoring a patient who has diabetes and is receiving a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor for edema, the nurse will monitor for which possible adverse effect? a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Elevated blood glucose c. Hyperkalemia d. Mental alertness 2. The nurse will monitor a patient for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia if the patient is taking which of these diuretics? a. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) b. furosemide (Lasix) c. acetazolamide (Diamox) d. spironolactone (Aldactone) 3. Mannitol (Osmitrol) has been ordered for a patient with acute renal failure. The nurse will administer this drug using which procedure? a. Intravenously, through a filter b. By rapid intravenous bolus c. By mouth in a single morning dose d. Through a gravity intravenous drip with standard tubing 4. Furosemide (Lasix) is prescribed for a patient who is about to be discharged, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. “Take this medication in the evening.” b. “Avoid foods high in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, fresh vegetables, and dates.” c. “If you experience weight gain, such as 5 pounds or more per week, be sure to tell your physician during your next routine visit.” d. “Be sure to change positions slowly and rise slowly after sitting or lying so as to prevent dizziness and possible fainting because of blood pressure changes.” 5. When reviewing the mechanisms of action of diuretics, the nurse knows that which statement is true about loop diuretics? a. They work by inhibiting aldosterone. b. They are very potent, having a diuretic effect that lasts at least 6 hours. c. They have a rapid onset of action and cause rapid diuresis. d. They are not effective when the creatinine clearance decreases below 25 mL/min. 6. When monitoring a patient who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), the nurse notes that which drug is most likely to cause a severe interaction with the diuretic? a. Digitalis b. Penicillin c. Potassium supplements d. Aspirin 7. When a patient is receiving diuretic therapy, which of these assessment measures would best reflect the patient’s fluid volume status? a. Blood pressure and pulse b. Serum potassium and sodium levels c. Intake, output, and daily weight d. Measurements of abdominal girth and calf circumference 8. A patient is being discharged to home on a single daily dose of a diuretic. The nurse instructs the patient to take the dose at which time so it will be least disruptive to the patient’s daily routine? a. In the morning b. At noon c. With supper d. At bedtime 9. A patient is started on a diuretic for antihypertensive therapy. The nurse expects that a drug in which class is likely to be used initially? a. Loop diuretics b. Osmotic diuretics c. Thiazide diuretics d. Potassium-sparing diuretics 10. A patient in the neurologic intensive care unit is being treated for cerebral edema. Which class of diuretic is used to reduce intracranial pressure? a. Loop diuretics b. Osmotic diuretics c. Thiazide diuretics d. Vasodilators 11. A 79-year-old patient is taking a diuretic for treatment of hypertension. This patient is very independent and wants to continue to live at home. The nurse will know that which teaching point is important for this patient? a. He should take the diuretic with his evening meal. b. He should skip the diuretic dose if he plans to leave the house. c. If he feels dizzy while on this medication, he needs to stop taking it and take potassium supplements instead. d. He needs to take extra precautions when standing up because of possible orthostatic hypotension and resulting injury from falls. . 12. A patient on diuretic therapy calls the clinic because he’s had the flu, with “terrible vomiting and diarrhea,” and he has not kept anything down for 2 days. He feels weak and extremely tired. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. “It’s important to try to stay on your prescribed medication. Try to take it with sips of water.” b. “Stop taking the diuretic for a few days, and then restart it when you feel better.” c. “You will need an increased dosage of the diuretic because of your illness. Let me speak to the physician.” d. “Please come into the clinic for an evaluation to make sure there are no complications.” Chapter 36: Antihistamines, Decongestants, Antitussives, and Expectorants Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When giving dextromethorphan, the nurse understands that this drug suppresses the cough reflex by which mechanism of action? a. Causing depression of the central nervous system b. Anesthetizing the stretch receptors c. Having direct action on the cough center d. Decreasing the viscosity of the bronchial secretions 2. During a routine checkup, a patient states that she is unable to take the prescribed antihistamine because of one of its most common adverse effects. The nurse suspects that which adverse effect has been bothering this patient? a. Constipation b. Abdominal cramps c. Drowsiness d. Decreased libido 3. A gardener needs a decongestant because of seasonal allergy problems and asks the nurse whether he should take an oral form or a nasal spray. The nurse’s answer considers that one benefit of orally administered decongestants is a. immediate onset. b. a more potent effect. c. lack of rebound congestion. d. shorter duration. 4. A patient is taking guaifenesin (Humibid) as part of treatment for a sinus infection. Which instruction will the nurse include during patient teaching? a. Force fluids to help loosen and liquefy secretions. b. Report clear-colored sputum to the prescriber. c. Avoid driving a car or operating heavy machinery because of the sedating effects. d. Report symptoms that last longer than 2 days. 5. The nurse will instruct patients about a possible systemic effect that may occur if excessive amounts of topically applied adrenergic nasal decongestants are used. Which systemic effect may occur? a. Heartburn b. Bradycardia c. Drowsiness d. Palpitations 6. A patient with a tracheostomy has difficulty removing excessive, thick mucus from the respiratory tract. The nurse expects that which drug will be ordered to aid in the removal of mucus? a. guaifenesin (Humibid) b. benzonatate (Tessalon Perles) c. diphenhydramine (Benadryl) d. dextromethorphan (Robitussin DM) Expectorants such as guaifenesin work to loosen and thin sputum and the bronchial secretions, thereby indirectly diminishing the tendency to cough. The other drugs listed do not have this effect. 7. The nurse is reviewing the use of antitussive drugs. Antitussive drugs would be most appropriate for which patient? a. A patient who has pneumonia with a productive cough b. A patient who has a tracheostomy and thick mucus secretions c. A patient who has had a productive cough for 2 weeks d. A patient who has developed bronchitis 2 days after abdominal surgery 8. A patient has been advised to add a nasal spray (an adrenergic decongestant) to treat a cold. The nurse will include which instruction? a. “You won’t see effects for at least 1 week.” b. “Limit use of this spray to 3 to 5 days.” c. “Continue the spray until nasal stuffiness has resolved.” d. “Avoid use of this spray if a fever develops.” 9. A patient asks the nurse about the uses of echinacea. Which use will the nurse include in the response? a. Memory enhancement b. Boosting the immune system c. Improving mood d. Promoting relaxation Common uses of echinacea include stimulation of the immune system, antisepsis, treatment of viral infections and influenza-like respiratory tract infections, and promotion of the healing of wounds and chronic ulcerations. The other options are incorrect. Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient is taking intravenous aminophylline for a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse will assess for which therapeutic response? a. Increased sputum production b. Increased heart rate c. Increased respiratory rate d. Increased ease of breathing 2. A patient is taking a xanthine derivative as part of treatment for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse will monitor for adverse effects associated with the use of xanthine derivatives, such as a. diarrhea. b. palpitations. c. bradycardia. d. drowsiness. 3. A patient is in an urgent-care center with an acute asthma attack. The nurse expects that which medication will be used for initial treatment? a. An anticholinergic such as ipratropium (Atrovent) b. A short-acting beta2 agonist such as albuterol (Proventil) c. A long-acting beta2 agonist such as salmeterol (Serevent) d. A corticosteroid such as fluticasone (Flovent) 4. The prescriber has changed the patient’s medication regimen to include the leukotriene receptor antagonist montelukast (Singulair) to treat asthma. The nurse will emphasize which point about this medication? a. The proper technique for inhalation must be followed. b. The patient needs to keep it close by at all times to treat acute asthma attacks. c. It needs to be taken every day on a continuous schedule, even if symptoms improve. d. When the asthma symptoms improve, the dosage schedule can be tapered and eventually discontinued. 5. After receiving a nebulizer treatment with a beta agonist, the patient complains of feeling slightly nervous and wonders if her asthma is getting worse. What is the nurse’s best response? a. “This is an expected adverse effect. Let me take your pulse.” b. “The next scheduled nebulizer treatment will be skipped.” c. “I will notify the physician about this adverse effect.” d. “We will hold the treatment for 24 hours.” 6. A patient has prescriptions for two inhalers. One inhaler is a bronchodilator, and the other is a corticosteroid. Which instruction regarding these inhalers will the nurse give to the patient? a. “Take the corticosteroid inhaler first.” b. “Take the bronchodilator inhaler first.” c. “Take these two drugs at least 2 hours apart.” d. “It does not matter which inhaler you use first.” 7. When educating a patient recently placed on inhaled corticosteroids, the nurse will discuss which potential adverse effects? a. Fatigue and depression b. Anxiety and palpitations c. Headache and rapid heart rate d. Oral candidiasis and dry mouth 8. The nurse is monitoring drug levels for a patient who is receiving theophylline. The most recent theophylline level was 13 mcg/mL, and the nurse evaluates this level to be a. below the therapeutic level. b. at a therapeutic level. c. above the therapeutic level. d. at a toxic level. 9. A patient has a new order for an ipratropium (Atrovent) inhaler, an anticholinergic drug. The nurse knows to assess for an allergy to which food before giving this drug? a. Shellfish b. Soy products c. Peanuts d. Eggs 10. When evaluating a patient’s use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse notes that the patient is unable to coordinate the activation of the inhaler with her breathing. What intervention is most appropriate at this time? a. Notify the doctor that the patient is unable to use the MDI. b. Obtain an order for a peak flow meter. c. Obtain an order for a spacer device. d. Ask the prescriber if the medication can be given orally. 11. The nurse is providing instructions about the Advair inhaler (fluticasone propionate and salmeterol). Which statement about this inhaler is accurate? a. It is indicated for the treatment of acute bronchospasms. b. It needs to be used with a spacer for best results. c. Patients need to avoid drinking water for 1 hour after taking this drug. d. It is used for prevention of bronchospasms. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta2 agonist bronchodilator, while fluticasone is a corticosteroid. In combination, they are used for the maintenance treatment of asthma and COPD. As a long-acting inhaler, Advair is not appropriate for treatment of acute bronchospasms. The other statements are incorrect. Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse is discussing adverse effects of antitubercular drugs with a patient who has active tuberculosis. Which potential adverse effect of antitubercular drug therapy should the patient report to the prescriber? a. Gastrointestinal upset b. Headache and nervousness c. Reddish-orange urine and stool d. Numbness and tingling of extremities 2. A patient who has been taking isoniazid (INH) has a new prescription for pyridoxine. She is wondering why she needs this medication. The nurse explains that pyridoxine is often given concurrently with the isoniazid to prevent which condition? a. Hair loss b. Renal failure c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Heart failure 3. The nurse will assess the patient for which potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy? a. Glaucoma b. Anemia c. Heart failure d. Hepatic impairment 4. When monitoring patients on antitubercular drug therapy, the nurse knows that which drug may cause a decrease in visual acuity? a. rifampin (Rifadin) b. isoniazid (INH) c. ethambutol (Myambutol) d. streptomycin 5. A patient has been taking antitubercular therapy for 3 months. The nurse will assess for what findings that indicate a therapeutic response to the drug therapy? a. The chronic cough is gone. b. There are two consecutive negative purified protein derivative (PPD) results over 2 months. c. There is increased tolerance to the medication therapy, and there are fewer reports of adverse effects. d. There is a decrease in symptoms of tuberculosis along with improved chest x-rays and sputum cultures. 6. The nurse is counseling a woman who will be starting rifampin (Rifadin) as part of antitubercular therapy. The patient is currently taking oral contraceptives. Which statement is true regarding rifampin therapy for this patient? a. Women have a high risk for thrombophlebitis while on this drug. b. A higher dose of rifampin will be necessary because of the contraceptive. c. Oral contraceptives are less effective while the patient is taking rifampin. d. The incidence of adverse effects is greater if the two drugs are taken together. . 7. The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a patient who is taking isoniazid (INH). Which drug or drug class has a significant drug interaction with isoniazid? a. pyridoxine (vitamin B6) b. Penicillins c. phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Benzodiazepines 8. A patient who has started drug therapy for tuberculosis wants to know how long he will be on the medications. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. “Drug therapy will last until the symptoms have stopped.” b. “Drug therapy will continue until the tuberculosis develops resistance.” c. “You should expect to take these drugs for as long as 24 months.” d. “You will be on this drug therapy for the rest of your life.” 9. The nurse is preparing to administer morning medications to a patient who has been newly diagnosed with tuberculosis. The patient asks, “Why do I have to take so many different drugs?” Which response by the nurse is correct? a. “Your prescriber hopes that at least one of these drugs will work to fight the tuberculosis.” b. “Taking multiple drugs reduces the chance that the tuberculosis will become drug resistant.” c. “Using more than one drug can help to reduce side effects.” d. “Using multiple drugs enhances the effect of each drug.” 10. A patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) has been taking antitubercular drugs for 1 week calls the clinic and is very upset. He says, “My urine is dark orange! What’s wrong with me?” Which response by the nurse is correct? a. “You will need to stop the medication, and it will go away.” b. “It’s possible that the TB is worse. Please come in to the clinic to be checked.” c. “This is not what we usually see with these drugs. Please come in to the clinic to be checked.” d. “This is an expected side effect of the medicine. Let’s review what to expect.” Rifampin, one of the first-line drugs for TB, causes a red-orange-brown discoloration of urine, tears, sweat, and sputum. Patients need to be warned about this side effect. The other options are incorrect. Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient is to receive iron dextran injections. Which technique is appropriate when the nurse is administering this medication? a. Intravenous administration mixed with 5% dextrose b. Intramuscular injection in the upper arm c. Intramuscular injection using the Z-track method d. Subcutaneous injection into the abdomen 2. A nurse is giving instructions to a patient who will be receiving oral iron supplements. Which instructions will be included in the teaching plan? a. Take the iron tablets with milk or antacids. b. Crush the pills as needed to help with swallowing. c. Take the iron tablets with meals if gastrointestinal distress occurs. d. If black tarry stools occur, report it to the doctor immediately. 3. The nurse will teach a patient who is receiving oral iron supplements to watch for which expected adverse effects? a. Palpitations b. Drowsiness and dizziness c. Black, tarry stools d. Orange-red discoloration of the urine 4. A patient has been taking iron supplements for anemia for 2 months. During a follow-up assessment, the nurse will observe for which therapeutic response? a. Decreased weight b. Increased activity tolerance c. Decreased palpitations d. Increased appetite 5. An oral iron supplement is prescribed for a patient. The nurse would question this order if the patient’s medical history includes which condition? a. Decreased hemoglobin b. Hemolytic anemia c. Weakness d. Concurrent therapy with erythropoietics 6. The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient before giving a new order for iron sucrose (Venofer). Which statement regarding the administration of iron sucrose is correct? a. The medication is given with food to reduce gastric distress. b. Iron sucrose is contraindicated if the patient has renal disease. c. A test dose will be administered before the full dose is given. d. The nurse will monitor the patient for hypotension during the infusion. 7. The nurse is teaching a patient with iron-deficiency anemia about foods to increase iron intake. Which food may enhance the absorption of oral iron forms? a. Milk b. Yogurt c. Antacids d. Orange juice 8. The nurse is administering liquid oral iron supplements. Which intervention is appropriate when administering this medication? a. Have the patient take the liquid iron with milk. b. Instruct the patient to take the medication through a plastic straw. c. Have the patient sip the medication slowly. d. Have the patient drink the medication, undiluted, from the unit-dose cup. 9. A woman who is planning to become pregnant should ensure that she receives adequate levels of which supplement to reduce the risk for fetal neural tube defects? a. vitamin B12 b. vitamin D c. iron d. folic acid 10. The nurse is administering folic acid to a patient with a new diagnosis of anemia. Which statement about treatment with folic acid is true? a. Folic acid is used to treat any type of anemia. b. Folic acid is used to treat iron-deficiency anemia. c. Folic acid is used to treat pernicious anemia. d. The specific cause of the anemia needs to be determined before treatment. 11. During therapy with the hematopoietic drug epoetin alfa (Epogen), the nurse instructs the patient about adverse effects that may occur, such as a. anxiety. b. drowsiness. c. hypertension. d. constipation. 12. The nurse is administering intravenous iron dextran for the first time to a patient with anemia. After giving a test dose, how long will the nurse wait before administering the remaining portion of the dose? a. 30 minutes b. 1 hour c. 6 hours d. 24 hours 13. A patient with end-stage renal failure has been admitted to the hospital for severe anemia. She is refusing blood transfusions. The nurse anticipates drug therapy with which drug to stimulate the production of red blood cells? a. folic acid b. cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) c. epoetin alfa (Epogen) d. filgrastim (Neupogen) 14. During drug therapy with epoetin alfa (Epogen), the nurse knows that therapy must be stopped if which laboratory result is noted? a. White blood cell count of 550 cells/mm3 b. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL c. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L d. Glucose level of 78 mg/dL 15. A patient has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for severe iron-deficiency anemia. Today, the provider changed the order to darbepoetin (Aranesp). The patient questions the nurse, “What is the difference in these drugs?” Which response by the nurse is correct? a. “There is no difference in these two drugs.” b. “Aranesp works faster than Epogen to raise your red blood cell count.” c. “Aranesp is given by mouth, so you will not need to have injections.” d. “Aranesp is a longer-acting form, so you will receive fewer injections.” FOCUS ON: • Select All That Apply o Iron Supplements o Nitroglycerin A, C, E, G o CNS stimulants o Vicodin Effects urine retention, light headedness, constipation and itching • Things to Know o Warfarin Antidote vitamin K o Carvadopa with Levodopa (precursor for dopamine) adjacent when patient response to levodopa is fluctuating o Livaptic o Fish hook inf: of lidocaine o TE livome o Epinephrine keeps anesthetic at local site o Barbituates treat seizures; AE: hypotension, drowsiness, lethargy and cough; low therapeutic index o Iron supplements implementation; iron dextron test for allergies (dose) (z tract method) o Heprin 0.6-1.2; activated by aPPTs o Lithium levels 0.6-1.2 mEq o Phenobarbituol drank wine o Status epliepticious carb; valium o Ferrous sulfate use straw it stains teeth; iron deficient anemia, injections cause pain o Eopiten olfa end stage kidney failure and chemo anemia o Hypertension sexual function o Calcium Channel Blocker increase fiber diet o Beta blocker bradycardia o ACE cough o INH peripheral neuropathy o INB warfarin o Antiepilemic liver dysfunction o Hydrochloritis digitalis o Zopepentin peripheral neuropathy o Garlic and warfarin bad o Barbituates maintain airway o Diuretics morning o Muscle skeletal injury flexeril o 18 basketball non-opioids o Benzodipophine antidote flumazenil o Morphine respiratory rate o Xenical reduce fat intake o 78 y/o patient after surgery narcan o Ritalin 4-6 hours before bed o Opioid isn’t working tolerance o Nopoz sleep deprived o Empty bottle of Tylenol hepatic necrosis o Erigot alkode chest pain o Ritalin check on children height and weight [Show More]
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