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University of Maryland, University College SEJMPE II/ US Army Armor School - US ARMY SEJMPME IISEJMPE 2 Tests 1 – 17 (333 Pages). Everything is Essentially in here. Definitiona and Tests with Answers Indicated

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US Army Armor School - US ARMY SEJMPME IISEJMPE 2 Tests 1 – 17 DIME -----Diplomatic, Informational, Military, and Economic • The President, Secretary of Defense (SECDEF), and Chairman of the... Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) provide: ----- • The operational branch chain of command runs from: ----- • exercise Combatant Command (COCOM) command authority over assigned forces. • Sub-unified commanders and JTF commanders exercise: ----- • -----Direction or exercise of authority over subordinate or other organizations in respect to administration and support. • 7. A unified or specified command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander established and so designated by the President, through the Secretary of Defense and with the advice and assistance of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. • typically have geographic or functional responsibilities. • Non-transferable command authority, which cannot be delegated, of a combatant commander to perform those functions of command over assigned forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces. • The interrelated responsibilities between commanders, as well as the operational authority exercised by commanders in the chain of command; defined further as combatant command (command authority), operational control, tactical control, or support. • A general term applied to a force composed of significant elements, assigned or attached, of two or more Military Departments, operating under a single joint force commander. • A general term applied to a combatant commander, sub-unified commander, or joint task force commander authorized to exercise combatant command (command authority) or operational control over a joint force. • The authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. • The action of a force that aids, protects, complements, or sustains another force in accordance with a directive requiring such action. • The authority over forces that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned. • common philosophy, a common language, a common purpose, and a unity of effort. - GEN George H. Decker, United States Army • to enhance the operational effectiveness of U.S. forces. • authoritative guidance and will be followed except when, in the judgment of the commander, exceptional circumstances dictate otherwise. • the focus is on how to think about operations, not what to think about operations. • The judgment of the commander based upon the situation is always: ----- • -----tailor forces for the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success. • ensure achievement of the national strategic objectives established by the President through decisive action while concluding operations on terms favorable to the United States. • built on a sound base of war fighting theory and practical experience. • nine principles of war have been consistent in joint doctrine with an additional three that may also apply to joint operations. • endeavor to wage protracted conflicts in an attempt to break the will of their opponent and its population. • insurgency, subversion, terrorism, information operations (disinformation, propaganda, etc.), organized criminal activity (such as drug trafficking), strikes, and raids. • unlike traditional war that focuses on the control of an adversary's: ----- • DIME instruments are leveraged to achieve national interests • the capacity that a sovereign nation-state can leverage to achieve its national interests. • Diplomatic, Informational, Military and Economic (DIME) • the principal instrument for engaging with other states and foreign groups to advance U.S. values, interests, and objectives. • Which U.S. Government is the agency for foreign affairs? ----- • Are geographic combatant commanders responsible for aligning military activities with diplomatic activities in their assigned areas of responsibility • What entails focused efforts to create, strengthen, or preserve conditions favorable for the advancement of national interests, policies, and objectives by understanding and engaging key audiences through the use of coordinated programs, plans, themes, messages, and products synchronized with the actions of all instruments of national power. • the information operations (IO), public affairs (PA), and defense support to public diplomacy (DSPD). • those military actions to attack an adversary's decision making while protecting our own. • those public information, command information, and community engagement activities directed toward both the external and internal publics with interest in the DOD. • comprises those activities and measures taken by DOD components to support and facilitate USG public diplomacy efforts. • National Security Strategy, and Unified Command Plan • What is the Secretary of Defense role? ----- • What is the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff's role? • The Combatant Commander's role? ----- • The Chairman of the Joints Chief of Staff and the Combatant Command must maintain -----Continuous interaction and are unified action in execution. • the Defense Strategic Guidance (DSG) and the Guidance for Employment of the Force (GEF). • National Military Strategy (NMS) and Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP). The Chairman also issues the Global Force Management Implementation Guidance with the approval of the SECDEF. • The UCP states that communications between the President or SECDEF and the Combatant Commanders shall be transmitted through the: • • the UCP states that a task force will be formed. Command of the task force will be determined by the Secretary of Defense and assigned to the appropriate combatant commander. • What outlines DOD's approach to implementing the President's National Security Strategy (NSS). ----- • Who also promulgates the Quadrennial Defense Review (QDR), a legislatively-mandated review of DOD strategy and priorities. • How often will the SECDEF conduct a comprehensive examination of the national defense strategy, force structure, forced modernization plans, infrastructure, budget plan, and other elements of the defense program and policies of the U.S?. • How many QDRs have there been? • As needed. There is no requirement that each new Secretary of Defense publish one and no requirement on how often it must be rewritten. • The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. the National Military Strategy is reviewed and published as needed. There is no requirement that each new Chairman publish one and no requirement on how often it must be rewritten. • The Guidance for Employment of the Force (GEF) is written guidance from whom? • provides military strategic and operational guidance and direction from the CJCS to the Combatant Commanders and the Service Chiefs for preparation of plans to accomplish tasks and missions using current military capabilities. • What is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans? • What integrates complementary force assignment, apportionment, and allocation processes into a single management process in support of the Defense Strategic Guidance and joint force availability requirements? • The President of the United States provides guidance for developing, applying, and coordinating the instruments of national power to achieve objectives that contribute to national security in the ____. • ____ is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). • The ability of the United States to achieve its national strategic objectives is dependent on the effectiveness of the U.S. Government in employing the instruments of national power, which are ____. • Research shows that everyone that is exposed to trauma will develop psychological health problems • Some individuals that are exposed to stressful situations, trauma, and combat develop new skills, display previously hidden strengths, and grow in character. • Symptoms of ________ include depression, substance abuse, problems of memory and cognition, and other physical and mental health problems. It is also associated with difficulties in social or family life, including occupational instability, marital problems, family discord, and difficulties in parenting - • Service members contribute to force readiness by being focused, alert, and prepared for new tasks, behaving responsibly and ethically, and ________. • Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in building • The Armed Forces of the United States are authorized under certain conditions to provide assistance to U.S. civil authorities for disasters, catastrophes, infrastructure protection, and other emergencies. - • Provides the JFC with a timely, complete, and accurate understanding of the environment and potential adversaries: • The activities of a commander that establish, maintain, influence, or exploit relations between military forces, governmental and nongovernmental civilian organizations and authorities and the civilian population in a friendly, neutral, or hostile operation area in order to facilitate military operations describe: • Nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) are usually willing to quickly align themselves with intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for their physical security. - False • The combatant commander, within the context of unified action, may function at both the _______________________ levels in coordinating the application of all instruments of national power with the actions of other military forces, United States Government (USG) agencies, nongovernmental organizations (NGOs), regional organizations, intergovernmental organizations (IGOs), and corporations toward theater strategic objectives. - • Which of the following is not considered an instrument of national power? - • Specifies the policies, procedures, and reporting structures for both contingency planning and CAP: - ( • CAP is divided into the three operational activities, they are: - S "Commander s estimate, orientation, decision" Not - Crisis beginning, operation execution, crisis resolution "Planning, execution, evaluation" • In most CAP situations, the combatant commander will establish a joint task force (JTF) headquarters to execute operations, so that the combatant commander and staff may continue to monitor and deal with situations elsewhere in the area of responsibility - • It provides joint force commanders with immediate access to essential joint force headquarters capabilities. It is responsible for providing forces to newly-established JTF headquarters that can rapidly enable critical command and control capabilities Joint Forces Command Cell (JFCC) Joint Deployable and Intelligence Group Joint Communications & Public Affairs Branch • In most CAP situations, the preferred option is to form a JTF headquarters around a combatant command's Service component command, or the Service component's existing subordinate headquarters (such as a numbered fleet, numbered Air Force, Marine expeditionary force, or Army corps) that includes an established command structure. - true Crisis action planning (CAP) ends when: - the requirement for the plan is canceled the operation is terminated the crisis is satisfactorily resolved • ____________________ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right. - • The operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to __________________. • U.S. Joint Forces Command, U.S. Special Operations Command, U.S. Strategic Command, and U.S. Transportation Command comprise the _____________________. - • Joint force air component commander (JFACC), joint force land component commander (JFLCC), and joint force maritime component commander (JFMCC) are all examples of ____. - NOt joint Task force subunified commands Service component commands functional component commands • The _______________ organize, train, equip, and provide combat-ready forces to conduct operations as directed by the President and Secretary of Defense. • Operations directed by the President and managed by Department of State or other appropriate authority whereby U.S. civilians and others are extracted from foreign countries when their lives are endangered by war, civil unrest, or natural disaster to safe havens or to the United States are referred to as • Use of joint capabilities in _____________ helps shape the operational environment and keep the day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while maintaining U.S. global influence. – • Joint force commanders coordinate with other government agencies to facilitate coherent use of all instruments of national power in achieving national strategic objectives. • Military Flexible Deterrent Options (FDOs) can only be initiated after unambiguous warning. - • The purpose of this principle of joint operations is to allocate minimum essential combat power to secondary efforts. • The principle of joint operations designed to ensure the commitment necessary to attain the national strategic end state is ___________. • The primary responsibilities of the Air Force Reserve Components, the Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard, include airlift and air refueling. • The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. • Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what point in the planning process? - • Which of the following ceremonies affirms a ""leader among leaders"" in the USAF, using a symbol of truth, justice, and power rightly used? - • Devised to survive on a potentially atomic battlefield, vertical envelopment enabled Marines to achieve which of the following? - * Beachhead assaults Night vision • USCG has always served under the Secretary of the Treasury, reflecting its early historical mission. - • Which of the following represent highlights of US Air Force history? - • Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought onboard to combat the rat population • Which of the following are among US Air Force customs, courtesies and traditions designed to provide high morale? - Dining-In, Dining-Out, and Combat Dining-In The Grog Bowl • Successful coalitions require: - • When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken to: - Ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage. • Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include: - • Military actions conducted by forces of two or more nations, typically organized within the structure of a coalition or alliance • - Refusal to cooperate with partners; restricted access to national proprietary defense information. • To promote their mutual national interests and ensure mutual security against real and perceived threats, nations that form partnerships must understand the impacts of: - Internally displaced personnel (IDPs) Non-governmental agencies Techniques, tactics, and procedures (TTPs)" • The JTF J2 should have personnel knowledgeable in foreign disclosure policy and procedures and should obtain necessary foreign disclosure authorization from DIA as soon as possible. • When considering the principle of synchronization, the most common error that impacts the J2, J3, and J5 is the failure to build sufficient lead time for intelligence production. • Intelligence analysts must communicate a degree of analytical confidence to help intelligence consumers decide how much weight to place on an intelligence assessment when making a decision. • This intelligence product category results from the fusion of identity attributes and other information and intelligence associated with those attributes collected across all intelligence disciplines. • When considering the principle of synchronization, the most common error that impacts the J2, J3, and J5 is the failure to build sufficient lead time for intelligence production. • Joint Operation Planning includes all activities that must be accomplished to plan for an anticipated operation - the mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment, and demobilization of forces • Which of the following are tasks that the J2 performs? -Analyze the Adversary and other relevant aspects of the operational environment -Ensure that critical intelligence is disseminated appropriately in a timely manner to the joint force commanders, Staff, and components -Produces threat assessments on a continuing basis to help the commander create or exploit opportunities to accomplish friendly force objectives - Assesses the characteristics of the adversary’s decision-making process and identifies weaknesses that may be exploited The principal system within the Department of Defense for translating national policy decisions into operation plans and orders in support of national security objectives. To accomplish this task, it provides procedures for both Deliberate Planning and Crisis Action Planning. - National Security Council (NSC) Planning Committee *Joint Operation Planning Process - JOPP Adaptive Planning and Execution system-APEX Planning, Programming, Budgeting, & Executing (PPBES) System" • The Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD) (usually referred to as the ""tip-fid""), using a proven analytical process, provides detailed movement requirements from a unit's origin to destination, articulating specific geographical locations, modes of movement, and dates for units needing to deploy. It assists combatant commanders in articulating movement planning to USTRANSCOM who provides strategic transportation required to deploy or redeploy units." • The commander's estimate of the situation is a clear and concise expression of the purpose of the operation and the military end state • Since combatant commanders are planning for future events during Deliberate Planning, the CJCS apportions forces and capabilities to the combatant commanders so they have an idea of the resources they might expect to receive if the plan is implemented. • After intelligence requirements are established, the staff reviews organic information sources for answers to requirements. If a requirement cannot be met from local sources then the ____. • The President, Secretary of Defense (SECDEF), and Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) provide: - national strategic guidance and direction for Combatant Commanders and Service Chiefs to ensure the national strategic objectives are clearly defined, understood, and achievable. • The operational branch chain of command runs from: - the President, through the SECDEF, to the Combatant Commanders for missions and forces assigned to their commands. • The _____ is a lethal, agile, and flexible force, capable of executing a myriad of complex, joint special operations missions in support of U.S. policy and objectives. - • What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? - It can be cumbersome - It is often time-consuming • These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships - Forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR) • The U.S. Transportation Command, U.S. Special Operations Command, and U.S. Strategic Command comprise the _____. - • _____ is a hostile environment that often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas. - • Short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions conducted with specialized military capabilities to seize, destroy, capture, exploit, recover, or damage designated targets in hostile, denied, or diplomatically and/or politically sensitive environments is called _____. It differs from other offensive actions in the level of diplomatic or political risk, the operational techniques employed, and the degree of discriminate and precise use of force to achieve specific objectives. - • Which of the following are among the Coast Guard's roles? - Law Enforcement -Environmental Protection -Ice Operations -Being transferred by Presidential order to the U.S. Navy for operational purposes -Search and Rescue • The _____ organize, train, equip, and provide combat-ready forces to conduct operations as directed by the President and Secretary of Defense • National Military Strategy - Signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. provides guidance for distributing and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. • The document approved by the Secretary of Defense for applying the Armed Forces of the United States in coordination with Department of Defense agencies and other instruments of national power to achieve national security strategy objectives is known as the - • - President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy. • The ____ is the President's principal forum for considering national security policy matters with his senior national security advisors and cabinet officials. • The ____ outranks all other officers of the Armed Forces, but may not exercise military command over any of the Armed Forces. He is the principal military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the SECDEF. - • The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to • The term joint force commander refers exclusively to the following three (3) types of commanders • A unified or specified command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander established and so designated by the President, through the Secretary of Defense and with the advice and assistance of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is called a - • Joint force air component commander, joint force land component commander, and joint force maritime component commander are all examples of – • These commands are established by combatant commanders when authorized by the SECDEF through the CJCS to conduct operations on a continuing basis in accordance with the criteria set forth for unified commands. - • ____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the SECDEF, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing JTF commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics • • command authority) over assigned forces. This is the broadest command authority and may NOT be delegated or transferred. - Combatant Command (COCOM). • The four categories of support are ____. - • Command authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability or forces made available for tasking, that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned is known as ____. - • ____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command. - • The _______ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these policies among various government agencies. - • _______ are responsible for coordinating with U.S. ambassadors in their AOR across the range of military operations. - • One way to remember the instruments of national power is by using the acronym, • The _______ is the principal military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense. - Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. • 3) _____ are elements of information that the commander identifies as being critical to timely decision making. [objective174] Priority intelligence requirements Commander's critical information requirements Tactical information requirements Friendly force information requirements • • The National Security Council is comprised of the following three levels of formal interagency committees for coordinating and making decisions on national security issues. -. • The ______ acts as the honest "broker" among the many USG agencies to broker disagreements and achieve consensus among agencies on national security issues. - • Within the NSC, the purpose of the ______ is to maintain the day-to-day interagency cooperation; manage the development and implementation of national security policies by multiple agencies; provide policy analysis for consideration by senior committees; and, ensure timely responses to Presidential decisions. - • Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? - • Successful interagency coordination is a force multiplier that contributes to the achievement of a combatant commander's mission by _________________. • The concept of ______ highlights the synergistic application of all the instruments of national power and includes the actions of non-military organizations as well as military forces. • DOS assigns a ______ to combatant commanders and, increasingly, to JTF commanders, to provide foreign policy perspectives and to establish linkages with U.S. embassies in the AOR or JOA and with DOS. - • U.S. military forces are authorized under certain conditions to provide assistance to U.S. civil authorities for disasters, catastrophes, infrastructure protection, and other emergencies, and this assistance is known as ______ within the defense community because the assistance will always be in support of a lead federal agency. -. • The supported combatant commander is responsible for developing ______, which covers Interagency Coordination, for each Operation Plan (OPLAN). This enables interagency planners to more rigorously plan their efforts in concert with the military, to suggest other activities or partners that could contribute to the operation, and to better determine any support requirements they may have. - • It is imperative that the combatant commander or JTF commander coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because, while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions. - • The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and collaborative working relationships between other government agencies (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI) representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. - • The Country Team provides for rapid interagency consultation and action on recommendations from the field and DOD is normally represented on the Country Team by the • ______ are independent, diverse, flexible, grassroots-focused, primary relief providers that are frequently on the scene before the U.S. military and will most likely remain long after military forces have departed • In most situations, IGOs and NGOs need the following military capabilities. - • The JTF commander facilitates unified action and gains a greater understanding of the roles of IGOs and NGOs and how they influence mission accomplishment by establishing a • The JTF commander should carefully consider where to locate the CMOC. Which of the following are valid considerations in determining the location? - • The JTF commander cannot dictate cooperation among OGAs, IGOs, and NGOs. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build consensus to achieve • The interagency support provided by a ______, composed of intelligence experts from DIA, CIA, NSA, NGA, and other intelligence agencies, affords the JTF access to national-level databases and to agency-unique information and analysis. - • By virtue of their familiarity in a foreign country or region, ______ are a valuable source of information for a JTF commander who may have neither access to nor current information about the affected country or region. - • A particular type of operation is not doctrinally fixed and could shift within the range of military operations, for example a counterinsurgency operation escalating from a security cooperation activity into a major operation or campaign. • ________. They differ primarily in the amount of available planning time and products. - deliberate planning and crisis action planning. • Planning in an adaptive planning environment using APEX supports the systematic, on-demand, creation and revision of executable plans, with up-to-date options, as circumstances require. A premium is placed on _______. - • Planning activities associated with joint military operations by combatant commanders and their subordinate joint force commanders in response to contingencies and crises are known as ________. It includes planning for the mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment, and demobilization of joint forces • With respect to strategic planning documents, the SECDEF provides overarching guidance for planning in the ________ and supplementary Strategic Guidance Statements (SGS) for top priority plans. - • In Deliberate Planning, the strategic planning documents include all of the following except ________. - • Those headquarters, commands, and agencies involved in joint operation planning or committed to a joint operation are collectively termed the ________. • This is a complete and detailed joint plan containing a full description of the CONOPS, all annexes applicable to the plan, and a TPFDD. - • Deliberate Planning is normally initiated by a tasking in the ________. It is based on assigned planning guidance, derived assumptions, and apportioned forces. - • Deliberate Planning encompasses the preparation of plans for non-crisis situations. It is used to develop ________ for a broad range of activities based on requirements identified in the GEF, JSCP, or other planning directive. - • Deliberate Planning features a series of periodic ________ that constitute a disciplined dialogue among strategic leaders, specifically the combatant commanders - • Contingency plans are best understood as ________ to the overarching global or theater campaign plan. • After a contingency plan is approved in deliberate planning. These supporting plans are normally reviewed and approved by the ________. - • The mission is the task or set of tasks, together with the purpose, that clearly indicates the action to be taken and the reason for doing so • The ________, JSCP, and related Strategic Guidance Statements (for top priority plans) serve as the primary guidance to begin Deliberate Planning. • The process of war gaming provides a means for the commander and staff to analyze friendly COAs by comparing them against anticipated adversary COAs - • A common, proven technique during COA Comparison is the decision matrix, which uses evaluation criteria to assess the effectiveness of each COA. - • Operations conducted in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to achieve military, diplomatic, informational, and/or economic objectives employing military capabilities for which there is no broad conventional force requirement are known as ________. - • Elite, highly trained military units that conduct operations that typically exceed the capabilities of conventional forces are known as ________. - • Special operations are a integral part of the geographic combatant commander´s theater campaign plan • Special operations must complement not compete with nor be a substitute for - conventional operations. • Special Operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using specialized tactics and equipment to achieve ______ • Short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions conducted as a special operation in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments - • Special operations forces are organized under the ________, a functional combatant command - • Actions conducted as a special operation in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance - • After the attacks of 9/11, U.S. Special Operations Command assumed an operational role in leading the DOD effort in ________. - • Most special operations forces are ________ oriented. This allows them to maintain a cultural awareness and a language capability for their assigned areas. • A broad spectrum of military and paramilitary operations, normally of long duration, predominantly conducted through, with, or by indigenous or surrogate forces - • Military-political considerations frequently cast Special Operations into clandestine or covert environments; therefore, their activities normally involve oversight at the • The Army Special Forces A-Team is capable of conducting operations in remote and hostile areas for extended periods of time; however, it has minimal ________. - • The ________ is the premier light, airborne, infantry unit of the U.S. Army • The unique unit that provides support to special operations forces personnel on a worldwide basis with specially equipped helicopters is the ________. • The units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the area of operations are known as ________. • The units manned by Special Warfare Combatant-craft Crewmen who operate and maintain state-of-the-art surface craft to conduct coastal patrol and interdiction and support special operations missions are known as ________. The 193rd Special Operations Wing of the Pennsylvania Air National Guard provides the only ________ platform in the Department of Defense with the EC-130 Commando Solo. • The Air Force´s Battlefield Airmen or ________ Teams frequently operate with Navy SEALs, Army Rangers, and Special Forces in direct action, airfield seizure, and personnel recovery missions in hostile territory. - Each geographic combatant command has a ________ to plan and control joint special operations forces in their areas of responsibility. - • When required, the joint task force commander may establish a ______, which is a temporary joint special operations forces command formed to conduct special operations in a specific joint operations area. - • Which one of the following is NOT a limitation of special operations forces? • Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small part of the total force - a little over • In joint SOF mission planning, a demanding full-up, real-time ________ can mitigate much of the inherent risks of many SOF missions. It is key to the success of complex joint SOF missions. • Which of the following is not one of the SOF Truths? - • A traumatically induced structural injury and/or physiological disruption of brain function as a result of an external force defines a ________. - • A state of well-being in which one is aware of personal abilities and limits, copes well with life stresses, works productively and effectively, and contributes positively to his or her communities is known as ________. • Exposure to stressful situations, trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative. • Symptoms of ________ include depression, difficulties in social or family life, substance abuse, problems of memory and cognition, and other physical and mental health problems. - • One of the Navy's MOOTW roles is to enforce United Nations economic sanctions. - • While its missions might include forcible entry operations and peace enforcement, humanitarian assistance is not within the Marine Corps' purview. • Aerospace Forces produce synergistic effects that are designed not to exceed separately employed individual • The US Army's adaptation to new technologies was a result of the federal government nurturing the arms industry after the Revolutionary War, spurred by Eli Whitney's invention of interchangeable parts which made standardized gun design possible. • Established in 1798, the US Navy and Marine Corps was created to protect American interests overseas and support maritime free trade. • It was Lt. Col. Earl H. "Pete" Ellis's post-WWI Advanced Base Operations in Micronesia, 1921 document that gave birth to the Marine Corps' amphibious doctrine. - • By 1986, the MPS program had in place 13 ships: one squadron in the Eastern Atlantic, a second squadron at Diego Garcia in the Indian Ocean, and a third at Guam in the Western Pacific. - • The comprehensive doctrine of air warfare supported the conclusion that high-altitude, daylight bombing of an enemy's war-supporting industries and transportation systems could win a war. – • Supporting the conditions for economic reconstruction is an action in the • the USCG's motto is Semper Paratus meaning "always ready" - • It is not customary during Dining-In to hear an address by a distinguished guest. - • The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which includes passing the wine "over the water," an historical reference to James I, who was exiled by Oliver Cromwell. - • While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you are unsure of an enlisted Marine's name or grade, "Marine" is as appropriate as "Good morning, Sir," in the case of an officer. - • The main difference between Dining-In and Mess Night for Marines is that spouses and other non-military guests may attend a Dining-In • Promotions and Re-enlistments are ceremonies requiring formation in this order: (a) Personal awards presented first, (b) Promotions second, and (c) Re-enlistments third. - • Dining-In and Dining-Out represent the most formal aspects of Air Force social life. - • Which document spells out the broad responsibilities or missions of the combatant commanders? - • - To train and equip itself for the overwhelming and synchronized application of land combat power • Soldiers fighting the War of 1812 benefited from the improved quality and standardization of their equipment. By the Mexican War, American arms were technologically equivalent to those of Europe. Advances in which of the following areas made that possible? - Mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery • Which technological advancements directly impacted warfare during the American Civil War • Introduced in WWI and perfected in WWII, which of the following mechanized alternatives to trench warfare led to successful campaigns? - • Through which of the following strategies has the Navy retained its traditional roles while expanding into expeditionary warfare? - " • Which of the following advantage/advantages of boats were designed for the Marines by Andrew Higgins? All of the above - • Why was the participation of the Montford Point Marines in the amphibious assault at Saipan such a historic event? • In the name of strategic mobility, the Marine Corps adopted pre-positioning for which of the following purposes? • What was the purpose of the Revenue Cutter Service? - • In 1848, why was the Bureau of Navigation established? - To build, maintain and man all Lightships • The helicopter was hailed as revolutionary in the Korean War. In which of the following aspects did Vietnam War ground combatants achieve new levels of success? a. Tactical mobility b. Logistical sustainability c. Fire support d. Heliborne medical evacuation - All • Which Naval technological advancements secured the Sea Power concept as the Navy's strategy for the 20th century, impacted the ability to sell US goods globally, and buttressed the US position as a major power? - - Submarine and airplane - Battleship and cruiser - Aircraft carriers and long-range submarines • Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? a. Long-range reconnaissance planes b. Destroyers equipped with advanced sonars c. Anti-submarine weapons d. Escort carriers e. Direction-finding equipment - All • Which of the following are examples of Naval implementation of the US Containment Policy? a. Development of nuclear-powered submarines capable of lengthy deployments under the sea b. Nuclear-armed jet aircraft c. Imposing a quarantine during a crisis d. Long-term deployment around the globe - All • When tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation were worked out, on whose experiences were they based? -Germany's Luftwaffe - Royal Air Force • Which of the following were obstacles for the Berlin Airlift of 1948? - Carrying only small individual loads - Transporting a minimum of 4,500 tons of material daily • What Services were established as precursors to the USCG? - Life Saving Service - Lighthouse Service and Revenue Cutter Service - Bureau of Navigation - Steamboat Inspection Service • Known as the Revenue Marine or Treasury Fleet, which of the following tasks fell to the Steamboat Inspection Service? a. Crew licensing and vessel documentation b. Port and harbor safety c. Protection of the marine environment d. Hazardous cargo handling - All • Short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions conducted as a special operation in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments and which employ specialized military capabilities to seize, destroy, capture, exploit, recover, or damage designated targets is called ________. It differs from conventional offensive actions in the level of physical and political risk, operational techniques, and the degree of discriminate and precise use of force to achieve specific objectives. - direct action • The foundation of Army Special Forces is the basic unit, the Operational Detachment Alpha (ODA), also known as the "A-Team." The A-Team is capable of conducting operations in remote and hostile areas for extended periods of time; however, it has minimal ________. - • This MARSOC element trains, advises and assists friendly host nation forces - including naval and maritime military and paramilitary forces - to enable them to support their governments´ internal security and stability, to counter subversion, and to reduce the risk of violence from internal and external threats. It has the capability to form the nucleus of a Joint Special Operations Task Force. - • DIME - Diplomatic, Informational, Military, and Economic • - Secretary of the Treasury, the Attorney General, the Secretary of Homeland Security, the Representative of the United States to the United Nations, the Assistant to the President and Chief of Staff (Chief of Staff to the President), and the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs (National Security Advisor). • The National Security Council is the President's: - principal forum for considering national security policy matters with his senior national security advisors and cabinet officials. • The function of the National Security Council has been to: - advise and assist the President on national security policies. The NSC also serves as the President's principal arm for coordinating these policies among various government agencies • The Composition of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is: - Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (VCJCS) Chief of Staff, U.S. Army Chief of Naval Operations Chief of Staff, U.S. Air Force Commandant of the Marine Corps Chief of the National Guard Bureau • : - principal military advisor, outranks all other officers, may not exercise military command, communications link from President to combatant commanders, military strategy and risk assessment, participates in NSC meetings, and advises SECDEF on budget. • The Joint Staff is under the exclusive authority, direction, and control of the: - • - "more art than science," while military operations tend to depend more on structure and doctrine. • Who is the principal policy-making forum responsible for national security strategy? - • The post-Vietnam Maritime Strategy called for the positioning of strong Naval forces along the seaward flanks of the Soviet Union in what locations? (Select all that apply.) - • With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on • shaping the international environment preparing now for an uncertain future responding to crises • _____ warfare is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). It favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capacities, in order to erode an adversary's power, influence, and will. - Irregular • The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day, year round, are called? - • Which of the following would be initiated into the "Top 3"? - • What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) - to equip forces • In major operations, joint force commanders need a clear understanding of the national strategic end state and how military operations support that end state. (True/False) - • Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? • Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to share _____ with all team members. • _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, self-discipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. - • To ensure that respect and mutual cooperation exists among all parties, and to leverage cooperation in order to meet operational end states, combatant commanders should use • The _____ is an integrative and holistic framework to better understand, assess, and maintain the fitness of the joint force • Which of the following are inherent military stressors that impact psychological health? - • During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army's activities toward the stopping old rivalries and conflicts? - • The Exxon Valdez oil spill led to the creation of the Oil Pollution Act of 1990, which tasked the Coast Guard with the creation of Strike Teams capable of quickly responding to spills and other ocean disasters. (True/False) - • Which of the following is NOT a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff? - • Guidance from which joint operations are planned and executed is obtained from joint _____. - • Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media? - • What are the fundamental roles of the U.S. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard in the implementation of the National Naval Strategy (NNS)? (Select all that apply.) - secure strategic access and retain global freedom of action strengthen existing and emerging alliances and partnerships secure the US from direct attack • Which of the following advantage(s) of boats were designed for the Marines by Andrew Higgins? • Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in producing which of the following? • The first step in solving a problem is to _____. • A special operations command-forward can transition to a _____. • Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? • The Noncommissioned Officer and Petty Officer: Backbone of the Armed Forces (2013)" states that, "The officer-NCO/PO relationship is a sacred feature in the Profession of Arms. It is built on mutual recognition of their _____, • A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? - • The Joint Task Force commander facilitates unified action and gains a greater understanding of the roles of IGOs and NGOs and how they influence mission accomplishment by establishing a _____. [Show More]

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