Biology > STUDY GUIDE > BIO 181 Complete Study Guide (2018-2019 Capco)-Arizona State University. (All)

BIO 181 Complete Study Guide (2018-2019 Capco)-Arizona State University.

Document Content and Description Below

BIO 181 Study Guide (2018-2019 Capco) Sat Sep 08 11:10:53 PDT 2018 All the answers Marked Correct! A cell that is itself an organism must have a minimum of four needs presented in lecture. List... these four things: Write a few sentences that explain what limits an individual cell from becoming more complex. In Cell Biology what can limit the progress of science? A normal cell is anchorage-dependent for growth and mortal. Compared to bacteria which of the cell types below are not responsible for finding food? The paramecium discussed in class contained an organelle called the contractile vacuole. This is the presumed precursor of the:Term What limits the paramecium from acquiring more complex functions? write a sentence answer here A cancer cell will be anchorage-dependent for growth and immortal. In your own multicellular body, cells with different functions have different DNA. In your own multicellular body, different cells in your body have a division of labor between them. A single-celled eukaryotic organism: In order to examine cells which are smaller than can be detected by the human senses what needs to be used? A cell that is anchorage-dependent for growth will also exhibit contact inhibition. The paramecium swims by way of using a flagella. Comparing a single-celled eukaryotic organism with a multicellular organism such as yourself identify the major difference from the list below. Why is it important to know the limitations of technology? Why is it important to know the limitations of technology? DNA in extant prokaryotic cells is circular. The presumed first step in the transition of the primitive, proto-prokaryotic cell into the primitive, proto-eukaryotic cell was the loss of the cell wall. Fluorescence microscopy is a form of light microscopy. After a cell is pancake shaped in a cell culture dish, the order of events that occurs as a cell walks is (pick the best order): Finish the sentence based on my lectures: The association of ribosomes with invaginations would support the theory. The cytoskeleton gave rise to the nuclear envelope. Motility improved the fitness of these early cells because: In an extant prokaryotic cell, the outer boundary of life is the capsule.Term A normal cell is and for growth. The cytoskeleton enabled the primitive cell to become motile. The ancient earth did not contain much oxygen.Term When cancer cells are crowded by surrounding cells, the cancer cells become spherical and they can still go through cell division. Cancer Cells are... The end of the retraction fiber touching the cell culture plate still contains the cell equivalent of super-glue. List one limitation of the cell culture technique. List one limitation of the cell culture technique. What limits how big a cell can be? TEM provides a thin, two-dimensional section of the object being studied. Ribosomes bound to some of the membrane invaginations in the endomembrane theory. Loss of the cell wall was required for the endomembrane system theory.Term Loss of the cell wall is required for the endosymbiotic theory. Active transport uses ATP to move components in parallel with their concentration gradient, that is: from a high concentration to a low concentration. The ER is contiguous with the nuclear envelope. What are the two functions of a membrane? What are the two functions of a membrane Amino acids can be largely subdivided into two groups. What are the two groups? Amino acids can be largely subdivided into two groups. What are the two groups? 1 Amino acids can be largely subdivided into two groups. What are the two groups? A single pass trans-membrane protein that is an alpha helix can make a channel. Explain the evolutionary origin of the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus and vesicles. Explain the evolutionary origin of the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus and vesicles. It is a simple matter (i.e., thermodynamically favorable) for a vesicle to form from the endoplasmic reticulum. What are the orphaned organelles orphaned from? What are the orphaned organelles orphaned from? The ER is contiguous with the Golgi apparatus. Explain the evolutionary origin of mitochondria. Explain the evolutionary origin of mitochondria For a protein to enter the endoplasmic reticulum as part of the endoplasmic reticulum’s lumen or part of the endoplasmic reticulum’s membrane: For a protein to enter the endoplasmic reticulum as part of the endoplasmic reticulum’s lumen or part of the endoplasmic reticulum’s membrane: If something is soluble in water a of hydration forms around it and it is termed . If something is soluble in water a of hydration forms around it and it is termed Draw a phospholipid and make sure the numbers of carbons are clearly identified. What is the difference between a triglyceride and a phospholipid? What is the difference between a triglyceride and a phospholipid? Cholesterol is to have in biological membranes. Explain how the vesicles are carried from the Golgi apparatus to the plasma membrane. When a vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane the contents of the lumen of the vesicle are: The plasma membrane gets new lipids from: Facilitated diffusion uses a channel protein to let components move down their concentration gradient. What is the difference between a single-pass transmembrane protein and a 7-pass transmembrane protein? What is the difference between a single-pass transmembrane protein and a 7-pass transmembrane protein? What is the difference between a single-pass transmembrane protein and a 7-pass transmembrane protein? We are made up of percent water. The diameter of an intermediate filament is 25 nm. The actin filament system is present in the nucleus. Cilia and microvilli contain a similar number of parallel actin filaments. What does the nucleosomal core have in it (i.e., the basket ball like structure on the slides)? What does the nucleosomal core have in it (i.e., the basket ball like structure on the slides)? Molecular motors use ATP as the energy source to power the molecular motors. Where is the histone H1 found? Where is the histone H1 found Where is the histone H1 found? Which cytoskeletal filament system lines the inside of the nucleus to protect it? Heterochromatin does not exist in interphase nuclei. Molecular motors run on which two cytoskeletal filament systems? To get into the nucleus a component has to have the correct signal sequence and pass through a nuclear pore. Naked DNA does not exist in Nature but scientists can make naked DNA in a test tube. Consider the geography of cells. Actin filaments are present in the cell’s and the microtubules are present in the cell’s The actin filament system extends outside of the cell. When a cell “talks to itself” it is called communication. When insulin binds to a receptor, this signal first uses . The other point where MAPK can become active is of the cell cycle. There is communication between cells and communication cells. For a cell to respond to a ligand released from a neighboring cell where the ligand diffuses directly from one cell to another is called communication. There are two types of receptors. One type of receptor binds to polar (hydrophilic) ligands and this is the receptor located in the . For a cell to respond to a ligand released from a cell and uses the circulatory system to get to the responding cell it is called communication. There are two basic types of communication within cells. One type is called signaling and it takes days to weeks to occur. The other type is called communication and it takes minutes to hours to act. Two types of second messengers discussed in lecture can exist downstream of a plasma membrane receptor. These are and . Two types of second messengers discussed in lecture can exist downstream of a plasma membrane receptor. These are and . There are two basic forms of cytoplasmic signaling (i.e. signal transduction). One uses and the other uses . There are two basic forms of cytoplasmic signaling (i.e. signal transduction). One uses and the other uses . MAPK has two different functions depending on where this kinase acts in the (two words). If the kinase becomes active during interphase the cell is triggered to progress through the (two words). Cell cycle; cell cycle Why is cell small to maintain a large surface area-to- volume ratio. When a vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane the contents of the lumen of the vesicle are: Ligands that enter the nucleus. Ligands that become the part of the plasma membrane. Ligands that are used in cell communication. Two of the above. Part of the nuclear pore complex. Ligands that are used in cell communication. The plasma membrane gets new lipids from: The lumen of the ER. The lumen of the Golgi apparatus. Making new lipids at the plasma membrane. The nucleus. None of the above. None of the above. For a protein to enter the endoplasmic reticulum as part of the endoplasmic reticulum’s lumen or part of the endoplasmic reticulum’s membrane: The messenger RNA goes directly to the ER. A ribosome binds to the mRNA and a short stretch of protein is synthesized that contains a signal sequence. Ribosomes at the endoplasmic reticulum bind to the protein Is a random event and one day the protein could go to the ER and on another day the same protein could associate with a free polyribosome. None of the above. Acitve Transport in mRNA which one is the front End and which one is the back end to get from endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus Actin Filament and microttubule system The intermediate filament system The Intermediate Filament System Geography of Microtubules Geography of Active Filaments nuclear envelope What is the limitation of isolated nuclei studies What does the nucleosomal core have in it diameter of Intermediate Filaments diameter of microtubules diameter of actin filaments Geography of Intermediate Filaments what limits a paramecium from acquiring If all the lysosomes within a cell suddenly ruptured, what would be the most likely result? a. The macromolecules in the cytosol would break down. b. More proteins would be made. c. The DNA in mitochondria would break down. d. The mitochondria and chloroplasts would divide. e. There would be no change in cell functio all bacteria [prokaryotic cells] have which two internal cell structures Which statement about plastids is ? a. They are found in prokaryotes. b. They are surrounded by a single membrane. c. They are the sites of cellular respiration. d. They are found only in fungi. e. They may contain various pigments or polysaccharides Which structure is not surrounded by one or more membranes? a. Ribosome b. Chloroplast c. Mitochondrion d. Peroxisome e. Vacuole The cytoskeleton consists of a. cilia, flagella, and microfilaments. b. cilia, microtubules, and microfilaments. c. internal cell wallsd. microtubules, intermediate filaments,and microfilaments. e. calcified microtubules. Microfilaments a. are composed of polysaccharides. b. are composed of actin. c. allow cilia and flagella to move. d. make up the spindle that aids themovement of chromosomes. e. maintain the position of the chloroplast in the cell. Which structure is generally present in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic plant cells? Which of the following structures are found in both plant and animal cells? A: Cell Walls B: Cytoskeleton C: Mitochondria D: Lysosomes E: B and C F: A and C G: None of the above are found in both. Which of the following is a fundamental difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A: Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells. B: Prokaryotic cells lack internal membrane-bound organelles that are characteristic of eukaryotic cells. C: Prokaryotic cells possess a cell wall instead of a plasma membrane. D: Both B and C E: All of the above. Prokaryotes: A: have a nucleus. B: have a cell wall similar in composition to that of plant cells. C: are typically larger than eukaryotic cells. D: do not have ribosomes. E: are surrounded by a plasma membrane. The extracellular matrix of animal cells A: holds cells together. B: contains collagen. C: contains proteoglycans. D: is involved in chemical signaling between cells. E: All of the above Gap1 of the cell cycle represents the time when the cell is doing what it is supposed to do as part of its cell type. In other words, that is when a liver cell is doing its function as a liver cell. After a cell is pancake shaped in a cell culture dish, the order of events that occurs as a cell walks is Which of the following is present in ALL prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells? A: Cytoskeleton B: Genome of DNA C: Ribosomes D: Plasma membrane E: Internal membrane-bound organelles F: B and D G: B, C and D H: A, B, C and D Nucleic acids are found in: A: the nucleus. B: mitochondria. C: ribosomes. D: prokaryotic cells. E: All of the above Which of the following structures is involved with the movement of organelles within a cell? A: Golgi apparatus B: Intermediate filaments C: Microtubules D: Mitochondrion E: Endoplasmic reticulumm Which of the following about the nucleus in animal cells is ? A: DNA in the nucleus combines with proteins. B: It is the site of protein synthesis. C: The nucleolus is located in the nucleus. D: DNA replication takes place in the nucleus. E: It occupies the largest volume of the cell Plant cells do not have lysosomes. Which of the following structures likely fulfills the function of lysosomes in a plant cell? A: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B: Chloroplast C: Vacuole D: Peroxisome E: Golgi apparatus Lysosomes: A: are derived from the nucleus. B: have a lower internal pH than the cytoplasm. C: are derived from the plasma membrane. D: contain enzymes that synthesize proteins. E: are derived from the endoplasmic reticulum. The endomembrane system includes all of the following except: A: mitochondria. B: the endoplasmic reticulum. C: the plasma membrane. D: Golgi apparatus. E: vesicle Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane of eukaryotes? A: Homeostasis B: Creating energy C: Adhering to other cells D: Selective uptake E: Receiving signals from other cells Which of the following organelles is involved in energy gathering? A: Lysosomes B: Chloroplasts C: Vacuoles D: Peroxisomes E: Nuclei Which of the following processes is not carried out by the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? A: Protein synthesis B: Steroid biosynthesis C: Modification of proteins D: Chemical modification of foreign molecules, including drugs E: Lipid biosynthesis Which of the following organelles is thought to have arisen from an endosymbiotic relationship with a prokaryote? A: Nuclei B: Mitochondria C: Golgi apparatus D: Lysosomes E: Peroxisomes Some proteins that are on the surface of mammalian cells contain carbohydrates. These proteins are synthesized by and the sugars are added in the . A: cytoplasmic ribosomes; plasma membrane B: the Golgi apparatus; rough endoplasmic reticulum C: cytoplasmic ribosomes; smooth endoplasmic reticulum D: mitochondrial ribosomes; smooth endoplasmic reticulum E: the rough endoplasmic reticulum; Golgi apparatus Cilia and eukaryotic flagella: A: have a motor protein that uses chemical energy to power movement. B: propel cells by rotation of the structures. C: contain microtubules that are sufficient to drive movement. D: contain microfilaments. E: contain centrioles. At these checkpoints, a cyclin works with a cyclin-dependent kinase (i.e., Cdk) to regulate the checkpoint. Cancer can be described as a loss of cell cycle regulation. Cytoplasmic signal transduction controls the checkpoints of the cell cycle. After DNA synthesis (i.e., S-phase) an identical copy of the DNA has been made and this is present in the two chromatids when viewed as the chromosome. The synthesis/presence of cyclin is what turns on the Cdk as the Cdk is always present but it is the cyclin that is synthesized and degraded in cycles. During mitosis, the cytoplasm of the cell is “settled down”. Many chemotherapy drugs act by arresting the cell in M-phase of the cell cycle. List the three categories of cells in the body with regard to the cell cycle. The begins to be destroyed at the metaphase of the cell cycle causing the chromosomes to begin to . The begins to be destroyed at the metaphase of the cell cycle causing the chromosomes to begin to . Cytokinesis in plant and animal cells takes two forms. List them here. An important checkpoint regulator is at the Gap2/M-phase transition. Here cyclin B and Cdk1 activate and form MPF which becomes a (two words) and causes the DNA to condense into . Replication of DNA is semi -conservative. There are two types of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. These two types can be distinguished because the polyribosome is either or - There are two types of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. These two types can be distinguished because the polyribosome is either or . The double helix of DNA is wrapped about 1 3/4 around which of these components? a. Helicase b. DNA polymerase lll c. DNA polymerase l d. Nucleosomes e. DNA ligas Which enzyme unwraps the double helix? a. Helicase b. DNA polymerase III c. DNA polymerase I d. Nucleosomes e. DNA ligase Which strand is produced more rapidly? a. Okazaki fragment b. Lagging strand c. Leading strand d. 3’ e. 5’ List one type of post-translational modification. List one type of post-translational modification List one type of post-translational modification In the ribosome, what pairs with the codon? In the ribosome, what pairs with the codon? In the ribosome, what pairs with the codon? RNA is double stranded. or RNA synthesis, also called RNA transcription occurs in three phases. List them from beginning to end order. RNA synthesis, also called RNA transcription occurs in three phases. List them from beginning to end in order List the two basic categories of nitrogenous bases in nucleus acids. How many “stop” codons exists? How many "stop" codons exist? In the lagging strand, the DNA is read from the parental DNA’s 3’ to 5’ end. or The DNA polymerase that replicated the parental strand of DNA reads the parental DNA from 5’ to 3” and makes a new DNA strand from 3’ to 5’. or ? Protein synthesis changes from the language of to the language of . Protein synthesis changes from the language of to the language of . The genetic code for the conversion of mRNA codons to proteins has redundancy. or ? In eukaryotic cells the start codon for protein synthesis is . In eukaryotic cells the start codon for protein synthesis is In eukaryotic cells the start codon for protein synthesis is . In the ribosomes, what is the name of the bond that links one amino acid to the next? In the ribosome, what is the name of the bond that links one amino acid to the next? For DNA polymerase III to work which of these components has to act first? a. Conservative replication b. Newly replicated strand c. Primase d. RNA e. Mutation rate Which enzyme is used first to permit DNA polymerase III to begin replicating the 3’ strand? a. Conservative replication b. Parental strand c. Primase d. RNA e. Mutation rate Which sugar is present in RNA? Which sugar is present in RNA? Which nucleotide is different in RNA compared to DNA? Which nucleotide is different in RNA compared to DNA? Which nucleotide is different in RNA compared to DNA? Which nucleotide is different in RNA compared to DNA? How many hydrogen bonds are there between and A and it’s paired nucleotide? DNA replication in eukaryotes is sped up by multiple origins of replication. or ? Uridine is a nucleotide in DNA or ? During DNA replication is greatly reduced by enzymes that proof read the newly replicated DNA. or ? Assume that you have a eukaryotic cell with three chromosomes within it. How many 5’ ends would there be? Assume that you have a eukaryotic cell with three chromosomes within it. How many 5’ ends would there be? Assume that you have a eukaryotic cell with three chromosomes within it. How many 5’ ends would there be? During DNA replication in the lagging strand there is production of this component? a. Okazaki fragment b. mRNA c. tRNA d. Proteins e. None of the above During mRNA maturation, what is the name of the part of the mRNA that is removed? During mRNA maturation what is the name of the part of the mRNA that is removed? During mRNA maturation what is the name of the part of the mRNA that is removed? In DNA, what does the nucleotide labeled as A pair with? In DNA, what does the nucleotide labeled as A pair with? In DNA, what does the nucleotide labeled as A pair with? Draw the sugar in DNA and label the carbons as discussed in the lecture. Then circle the carbon that is different in RNA. T/F A bacterium coated by antibodies is a signal that a macrophage should endocytose (eat) it Any cell can present an antigen on a class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein. Any cell can present an antigen on a class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein. B and T cells are called lymphocytes Epithelial cells serve as a barrier to prevent non-specific movement of chemicals from one side of the epithelium to the other side. FADH2 results as one of the products of the citric acid cycle.Term Having a fever of 100 oF can help you fight off infections. In the lagging stand, the DNA is read from the parental DNA’s 3’ to 5’ end. In 1 mL of blood, there are 1.5 million white blood cells If something is called a vitamin, it cannot be made by the organism and must be taken in as a part of diet. Lymph nodes are a place where cells of the immune system accumulate and share information. Memory cells “remember” the antigen and make a faster and greater response the next time the antigen is encountered. Mast cells release histamine. Natural killer cells are part of the specific immune system. Red blood cells are a part of the immune system Red blood cells originate from the bone marrow. The citric acid/Kreb’s cycle breaks down carbohydrates into CO2. The cell does not need ATP to survive. T/F The cell does not need ATP to survive. The humoral immune system involves cells in the immune system. There are times when the spleen can be considered to be the primary lymph node. You should have your appendix removed whenever possible. 90% of absorption in the intestine occurs where? 90% of absorption in the intestine occurs where? Adhering junctions are based on two different types of cytoskeleton filament systems. Name those systems. Does gravity have a role in some part of the lymphatic fluid flow back to the circulatory system? During DNA replication in the lagging strand there is production of this component? For DNA Polymerase III to work which of these components has to act first? Glycolysis requires the investment of two ? in order to obtain a gross output of four ? How does the lymph fluid return from the legs to the circulatory system. How does the lymph fluid return from the legs to the circulatory system? How does the lymph fluid return from the legs to the circulatory system? How does the pancreas neutralize the pH of the chyme that comes from the stomach? How does the pancreas neutralize the pH of the chyme that comes from the stomach? In the lecture we discussed normal flora, this refers to: Inflammation is caused by an increased blood supply due to released by some cells of the immune system. If a macrophage endocytoses (i.e., eats) an antigen it can digest it and present it on a Major histocompatibility complex protein to a . In what way is the making of a primary lysosome similar to the enzymes delivered by the pancreas? In what way is the making of a primary lysosome similar to the enzymes delivered by the pancreas?. List the layers of the digestive track covered by a thick layer of mucous. List the layers of the digestive track covered by a thick layer of mucous. List two basic categories of nitrogenous bases in nucleic acids. List the two basic categories of nitrogenous bases in nucleic acids. List three items required for photosynthesis to occur. List three items required for photosynthesis to occur. Lymphatic tissue is composed of the following five components. Please list them. Lymphatic tissue is composed of the following five components. Please list them. List the order in which storage compounds are utilized if there is no intake of food. Name the main enzyme in the stomach. Name the sphincter that separates the stomach from the small intestine. Specifically, where in a cell does the citric acid/Kreb’s cycle occur? Specifically, in a cell where does Glycolysis occur? Think about feedback loops. What triggers the gall bladder to secrete bile? This double helix of DNA is wrapped about 1/3/4 times around which of these components? The light reactions produce [x] and [y] and this process also results in the release of [z]. The light reactions produce and and this process also results in the release of . The most abundant protein in the world is called The antenna system is in the membranes. The antenna system is in the membranes. The Calvin-Benson cycle takes in [x] and [y] from the light reaction and also [z] to make carbohydrates. NADPH + H+, ATP, carbon dioxide The Calvin-Benson cycle takes in and from the light reaction and also to make carbohydrates. The Calvin-Benson cycle takes in and from the light reaction and also to make carbohydrates. The molecular seal that serves as the barrier is called a . While this is a good barrier, such barriers are not very strong and must be underlined by . The esophagus has two distinct muscles that close off the tube. What are these called? The esophagus has two distinct muscles that close off the tube. What are these called? The digestive track begins with the and the first enzyme added is . The digestive track begins with the and the first enzyme added is . Vitamin K cannot be made by the cells of your body. Where is it made? Which strand is produced more rapidly? Which enzyme unwraps the double helix? Which enzyme is used first to permit DNA polymerase III to begin replicating the 3’ strand? Where is carbon dioxide produced? When immune cells mature and can recognize trans-membrane proteins indicating “self”, this is called . When a B cell is shown an antigen on a class II major histocompatability complex protein it will go through and B cells subsequently can become and/or . When amino acids are acquired by food because your body can't make them, they are called Write a few sentences to distinguish between digestion and absorption. Write a few sentences to distinguish between digestion and absorption. Write a few sentences to distinguish between digestion and absorption. Write a few sentences to distinguish between digestion and absorption. Write a few sentences to distinguish between digestion and absorption When glucose is taken in by the digestive track and enters your blood, cells are triggered to take in the glucose by what mechanism? When glucose is taken in by the digestive track and enters your blood, cells are triggered to take in the glucose by what mechanism? What is bile made from? And how does oatmeal reduce cholesterol levels?. What is bile made from? How does oatmeal reduce cholesterol levels? What is bile made from? And how does oatmeal reduce cholesterol levels? What is bile made from? How does oatmeal reduce cholesterol levels? Draw concentric circles and label the four layers of the gut. Also label the hole at the inner most circle. List what is in these four layers The genetic code for the conversion of mRNA codons to proteins has redundancy.Term T/F FADH2 results as one of the products of the citric acid cycle. Glycolysis requires the investment of two in order to obtain a gross output of four . T/F The citric acid/Kreb’s cycle breaks down carbohydrates into CO 2. List the order in which storage components are utilized if there is no intake of food. List three items required for photosynthesis. What is the enzyme in saliva that digests starch? What does normal flora refer to? When a B cell is shown an antigen on a Class II (MHC) protein it will go through and B cells subsequently can become and/or . T/F In 1mL of blood, there are 1.5 million white blood cells. T/F FADH 2 results as one of the products of the citric acid cycle. If a macrophage endocytoses (ie, eats) an antigen it can digest it and present it on a MHC protein to a . What triggers the gall bladder to secrete bile? How many hydrogen bonds are there between a A and it’s parallel nucleotide? 2 There are two types of protein systhesis in eukaryotic cells. These two type can be distinguished because the polyribosome is either or . T/F During DNA replication, mistakes are greatly reduced by enzymes that proof read the newly replicated DNA. T/F Any cell can present an antigen on a class II major histocompability complex (MHC) protein. Lymphatic tissue is composed of the following five components. T/F: Excitatory synapses make the post-synaptic cell less likely to fire. The terminal web: In the motor end plate, the event that is the immediate trigger for exocytosis is: T/F: The cell body refers to the part of the neurons that begin at the dendrites and extend to the axon terminal. T/F: The autonomic nervous system contains the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous system. T/F: When the presynaptic cell contacts a muscle cell, the synapse area is called a motor end plate. The action potential is: T/F: Acetylcholine esterase breaks acetylcholine into muscarinic acid. or ? T/F: The membrane potential (resting potential) is largely set by the Na-K- ATPase pump. T/F: Voltage-gated ion channels open when a protein bind to the receptor. or ? T/F: Fast Neurons as described in lecture require cytoplasmic signal transduction to open an ion channel. or ? T/F: The axon from a pre-synaptic cell contacts the axon of another neuron. or ? The resting potential of neurons is: The resting potential of neurons is: The resting potential of neurons is: The central nervous system (CNS) contains the and . The central nervous system (CNS) contains: T/F: The axon hillock in the pre-synaptic neuron fires based on temporal and spatial summation of inputs. T/F: Fast neurons as described in lecture are fast because they are surrounded by a type of glial cell that results in a myelin coating. T/F: Receptors are made from membrane-bound polyribosomes. T/F: Acetylcholine exocytosed from the presynaptic cell travels to the postsynaptic cell to start the action potential in the postsynaptic cell. T/F: Excitatory synapses cause depolarization of the post-synaptic cell. The neural tissues are: T/F: Only presynaptic neurons are coated with myelin T/F: Potassium ions are at high concentrations inside of cells including in neurons. T/F: Excitatory synapses cause hyperpolarization of post-synaptic cells. The post-synaptic cell can be: T/F: The receptors in post-synaptic cells are the basis on which the synapse can be defined as inhibitory or excitatory. Draw an action potential in the axon of a neuron and indicate which ions flow into the neuron and out of the neuron as the action potential passes at the point where the electrodes are in the cell. Be sure to assign on the Y-axis the mV of each of these areas. This should be as described in my lectures. Briefly explain why the action potential flows only from the axon hillock to the terminal web. Briefly explain why the action potential flows only from the axon hillock to the terminal web List the 4 types of glial cells and list a phrase to describe their function. List the 4 types of glial cells and list a phrase to describe their function. Draw a neuron, and label all the parts as described in lecture. How do glial cells (ie myelin sheath) speed up the firing of neurons? How do the glial cell (ie. myelin sheath) speed up the firing of neurons? T/F? Where do fats in the body play a role in balance between glucose and glycogen? . Where do fats in the body play a role in balance between glucose and glycogen? Where do fats in the body play a role in the balance between glucose and glycogen? T/F: Insulin is a ligand. T/F: Vitamin D is synthesized from cholesterol T/F: The medulla of the adrenal gland produces epinephrine (i.e., adrenaline). T/F: Vitamin D causes the parathyroid to inhibit new PTH synthesis. Your mom came back from her medical appointment and said that her M.D told her she had low bone density. What medical problem could this cause and what hormones/endocrine glands in the body are involved? Your mom came back from her medical appointment and said that the M.D. told her she had low bone density. What medical problem could this cause and what hormones/endocrine glands in the body are involved? Your mom came back from her medical appointment and said that the M.D. told her she had low bone density. What medical problem could this cause and what hormones/ endocrine glands in the body are involved? When epinephrine is released it triggers activation of which part of the autonomic nervous system? When epinephrine is released it triggers activation of which part of the Autonomic Nervous System? Explain how insulin and glucagon regulate the balance (i.e. homeostasis) between glycogen and glucose when epinephrine (i.e. adrenaline) is not involved Explain how insulin and glucagon regulate the balance (i.e., homeostasis) between glycogen and glucose when epinephrine (i.e., adrenalin) is not involved. Explain how insulin and glucagon regulate the balance (i.e, homeostasis) between glycogen and glucose when epinephrine (i.e., adrenalin) is not involved. Explain how insulin and glucagon regulate the balance (i.e. homeostasis) between glycogen and glucose when epinephrine (i.e. adrenaline) is not involved. What could the stress of taking an exam do to your glucose levels in various parts of the body? What could the stress of taking an exam do to your glucose levels in various parts of the body? What could the stress of taking an exam do to your glucose levels in various parts of the body? T/F: When the Sympathetic nervous system is triggered glycogen is broken down to glucose to provide more energy. T/F: Insulin is produced by alpha cells. T/F: Insulin is produced by alpha cells. Insulin is produced by alpha cells. T/F? T/F: The Parasympathetic Nervous System is triggered is trigger to act by exposure to epinephrine. T/F: Vitamin D is really a hormone. Once inside the circulatory system is the molecule that binds oxygen. When you inhale, which set of muscles uses the least ATP and triggers the parasympathetic nervous system? What does carbonic anhydrase do? What does carbonic anhydrase do? What does carbonic anhydrase do? When oxygen passes from the lungs into the circulatory system as gas, how many cells does it have to pass through to be in the circulator system? T/F: Veins and venueles have valves in them, but arteries and arterioles do not. T/F: Red blood cells carry CO2 back to the lungs.Term T/F: The oxygen in the circulatory system functions to bring oxygen to every cell of the body so it can make ATP. T/F: In capillaries the blood pressure pushes nutrients out of the capillaries towards the cells. The heart pumps to two circuits. Name and define these circuits. The heart pumps to two circuits. Name and define these circuits. To prevent back flow of blood in the heart there are . To prevent back flow of blood in the heart there are _ T/F: Blood moves very rapidly in the capillaries. Oxygen is distributed throughout the body by: T/F: The two circuits in the heart and the cardiovascular system have the same blood pressure. T/F: The two circuits in the heart and the cardiovascular system have the same blood pressure. T/F: The inspiratory and the expiratory reserves make up the total volume in the lungs. T/F: The partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs causes it to load into the circulatory system. T/F: When the systole occurs the ventricle is contracting. T/F: The left ventricle of the heart contains more muscle. T/F: Tidal breathing causes the incoming air to mix with some older air in the lungs. T/F: When the ventricles contract blood is pushed out into the artery and the artery stretches because of its elastic layers allowing the blood to continue to flow into the circulatory system while the ventricle is relaxing. T/F: The lungs have increased surface area to increase the movement of oxygen into the circulatory system. T/F: The excretory system uses oxygen because oxygen diffuses more rapidly into the excretory system because it contains water in the urine. T/F: The slow flow of blood in the capillaries facilitates the production of bicarbonates in the blood. how many oxygen molecules can bind to one hemoglobin molecule T/F: When the diaphragm is relaxed, it allows air to leave the lungs including the residual volume. T/F: The pulmonary artery contains oxygenated blood. T/F: Surfactants is one of the later components made in the fetus (prior to birth). T/F: Unlike other epithelia the epithelia that make up the capillaries have holes in them called fenestrations. T/F: Nutrients and oxygen can leave the arteries and arterioles to reach the cells. T/F: In mammals ventilation is tidal. T/F: The atrioventricular node fires after the sinoatrial node. The heart pace maker that triggers the two atria to contract is the . T/F: The slow flow of blood in the capillaries facilitates release of oxygen. There is a reserve of oxygen in the muscles held by . There is a reserve of oxygen in the muscles held by T/F: The blood flow slows down in the capillaries because the increased total area of the capillary is very large. T/F: The medulla of the kidney secretes epinephrine. T/F: Urine leaves our body through the urethra. T/F: Blood pressure drives red blood cells and plasma proteins out of the glomerulus. T/F: The kidney gets rid of toxic compounds. T/F: The Bowman’s capsule is the beginning of the nephron. T/F: Each kidney contains about one million nephrons. T/F: The kidney filters about 180 liters of blood per day. The collecting duct of the kidney drains into the and this enters the . The collecting duct of the kidney drains into the _ and this enters the T/F: The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron. T/F: Blood pressure is the force that drives molecules out of the glomerulus into the Bowman’s capsule. T/F: Toxins including urea (in mammals) is driven out of the glomerulus into the Bowman’s capsule. T/F: Efferent arterioles enter the Bowman’s capsule and afferent arterioles leave the Bowman’ s capsule. T/F: In the proximal convoluted tubule useful molecules are collected and brought back into the circulatory system such as glucose and amino acids, but not the toxic materials. T/F: The Bowman’s capsule, the proximal convoluted tubule, and the distal convoluted tubule are in the cortex of the kidney. T/F: The inter-weaving of the circulatory system with the nephron is essential for the concentration of urea in the urine. T/F: The kidney controls the water balance in the body. One of the problems with the increased surface area of the lungs is that the could stick to each other causing the lungs to collapse. To get around this the body secretes into the lungs. One of the problems with increased surface area of the lungs is that the _ could stick to each other causing the lungs to collapse. To get around this the body secretes _ into the lungs. The lungs are in the thoracic cavity, but they are also in another cavity. What is the name of that other cavity? When arterial blood pressure falls the body compensates to raise the blood pressure. Explain this process. When arterial blood pressure falls, the body compensates to raise the blood pressure. Explain this process. When arterial blood pressure falls the body compensates to raise the blood pressure. Explain the process. When arterial blood pressure falls, the body compensates to raise the blood pressure. Explain this process. . Draw a cross-section of an artery or arteriole and label the layers. There are two factors that cause the release of oxygen from hemoglobin. List them. There are two factors that cause the release of oxygen from hemoglobin- list them. There are two factors that cause the release of oxygen from hemoglobin- list them. What happens to the nephron if the blood pressure drops significantly? What happens to the nephron if the blood pressure drops significantly? What happens to the nephron if the blood pressure drops significantly? Give an example of homeostasis in the kidney Give an example of homeostasis in the kidney Give an example of homeostasis in the kidney. T/F: Fast neurons as described in lecture require cytoplasmic signal transduction T/F: The axon hillock in the pre-synaptic neruon fires based on temporal and spatial summation of inputs. List 4 types of glial cells and a phrase to describe their function. 1 T/F: Only pre-synaptic neurons are coated with myelin. T/F: Voltage-gated ion channels open when a protein bindds to the receptor. How do the glial cells (i.e., myelin sheath) speed up the firing of neurons? . How do the glial cells (i.e., myelin sheath) speed up the firing of neurons? T/F: The membrane potential (resting potential) is largely set by the Na-K-ATPase. Your mom came back from her medical appointment and said that the M.D. told her she had low bone density. What medical problem could this causse and what hormones/endocrine glands in the body are involved? T/F: The partial pressurre of oxygen in the lungs causes it to load into the circulatory system. T/F: In capillaries the blood presure pushes nutrients out of the capillaries towards the cells. The heart contains two circuits. Name them. The heart contains two circuits. Name them. What is the maximum number of molecules of oxygen that can bind to hemoglobin? What is the maximum number of molecules of oxygen that can bind to hemoglobin? T/F: Red blood cells carry CO2 back to the lungs. Oxygen is distributed throught the body by: T/F: Nurtients and oxygen can leave the arteries and arterioles to reach the cells. When you inhale, which set of muscles uses the least amount of ATP and triggers the parasympathetic nervous system? When you inhale which set of muscles uses the least amount of ATP and triggers the parasympathetic nervous system? When oxygen passes from the lungs into the circulatory system as a gas, how many cells does it have to pass through to be in the circulatory system? When oxygen passes from the lungs into the circulatory system as a gas, how many cells does it have to pass through to be in the circulatory system? T/F: The inter-weaving of the circulatory system with the nephron is esential for the concentration of urea in the urine. Myoglobin The resting potential of neurons is: The answer is not on this list. 0 mV Same as the action potential. Always a positive value. Two of the above. The neural tissues are: Spinal cord, sensory neurons, and cell body Spinal cord, sensory neurons, and brain Brain, and sensory neurons Pituitary and hypothalamus. None of the above. In the motor end plate, the event that is the immediate trigger for exocytosis is: Potassium ions. Chloride ions. Calcium ions. The action potential. The cell body. The terminal web: is the site where exocytosis occurs is in the dendrites is the site where exocytosis occurs is at the axon hillock The central nervous system (CNS) contains: Two of the above Nerves extending from the spinal column to the fingers Motor neurons extending from the spinal column to the fingers Only the brain Two of the above t/fReceptors are made from membrane-bound polyribosomes. The post-synaptic cell can be: In glands, muscle cells, neurons are only neurons have only chemical synapses have only electrical synapses 16. Events at a chemical synapse usually involve opening of both voltage-gated ion channels & chemically-gated ion channels. Where are these ion channels located & what causes each to open? T/F Messenger RNA is double stranded. The light reactions of photosynthesis produce [x] and [y] and this process also results in the release of [z]. In Photosynthesis the antenna system is in the membranes. T/F Having a fever of 100 degrees F can help you fight off infections. T/F Memory cells in your immune system will all die after 3 months. T/F A bacteriumin your body coated by antibodies is protected from the immune system. The paramecium discussed in class contained an organelle called the contractile vacuole. This is the presumed precursor of the. In an extant prokaryotic cell, the outer boundary of life is the capsule. The ancient earth did not contain much oxygen. Loss of the cell wall was required for the endomembrane system theory. In the lagging stand, the DNA is read from the parental DNA’s 3’ to 5’ end.Term Fast neurons as described in lecture require cystoplasmic signal transduction to open an ion channel. T/F? The axion hillock in the pre-synaptic neuron fires based on temporal and spatial summation of inputs. T/F? Excitatory synapses make the post-synaptic neuron cell less likely to fire.T/F? Excitatory synapses cause hyperpolization of post-synaptic cells. T/F? The plumonary artery contains oxygenated blood. T/F? Unlike other epithelia that make up the capillaries have holes in them called fenestrations. T/F? The atrioventicular node fires after the sinoatrial node. T/F? The excitatory system uses oxygen because oxygen diffuses more rapidly into the excretory system because it contains water in the urine. T/F? The Bowman's capsule, the proximal convulated tubule, and the distal convulated tubule are in the cortex of the kidney. T/F? In the proximal convulated tubule, useful molecules are collected and brought back into the circulatory system such as glucose and amino acids, but not the toxic materials. T/F? A symptom of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is: hyponatremia (dilutional). Clincal manifestations type 2 Diabetes (4) overweight, dyslipidemic, hypertensive, nonspecific. A patient experiences nausea, vomiting, loss of body hair, fatigue, weakness, and hypoglycemia. The hormone deficiency the patient is most likely experiencing is that of: ). Which is regarding acromegaly? It: A symptom of a prolactinoma includes Two siblings are diagnosed with a thyroid disorder due to destruction of thyroid tissue by lymphocytes and circulating thyroid autoantibodies. This pathology is likely the result of: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a result of: It is that neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) (3 answers): A newly diagnosed diabetic patient will exhibit symptoms of (3): Risk factors for insulin resistance include (4): Complications experienced by patients with chronic uncontrolled type 2 diabetes are (4): Polyphagia polydipsia orthostatic hypotension Which type of hearing loss is a result of foreign body obstruction of the middle ear? Pinhole-sized pupils can be a result of an overdose of: A patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury but is able to follow simple commands and can manipulate objects. The term used to describe this state is: A patient who is experiencing difficulty in recognizing a pattern’s form and the nature of objects is exhibiting characteristics of: agnosia. . Aphasia Dysphasia A patient who is experiencing a loss of comprehension or the production of language is described as having: Transcortical dysphasia A patient who was admitted to a postsurgical unit 2 days ago is now demonstrating progressive restlessness and is uncharacteristically irritable. This scenario is characteristic of: It is that Alzheimer disease is: Alzheimer Disease A patient diagnosed with Parkinson disease initially experiences: A characteristic of Alzheimer disease includes (4): The most common cause of TBI in adults: It is that an acute cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is Which is correct regarding hemorrhagic strokes? They: Hypertension Which is regarding meningitis? It is that encephalitis is: A patient is brought to the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident in which a diffuse brain injury is sustained. Which symptoms would be expected to accompany the injury? (4) span Risk factors for a CVA include (4) An anomaly in which the soft, bony components of the skull and part of the brain are missing is called a(n): A patient has a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst containing meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a deficit in the spinal column. This condition is described as a(n): A patient diagnosed with cerebral palsy exhibits increased muscle tone, prolonged primitive reflexes, scoliosis, and contractures. These are characteristic signs of a form of cerebral palsy called: Which statement regarding infectious mononucleosis (IM) is ? It is: commonly Which form of leukemia is the most common in children? Which statement regarding Hodgkin lymphoma is ? The most common source of drug-induced thrombocytopenia is: Which statement regarding immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is ? It is Which statement regarding iron deficiency anemia is ? . Which statement regarding iron deficiency anemia (IDA) is ? Which statement regarding anemia in children is ?Term Anemia is the most common blood disorder in children. Which statement regarding maternal antibodies is ? . Which statement regarding a Coombs test is accurate? . -cyte -chromic Anemia commonly results from (4) Hypoxemia hypoxemia Cushing disease Cushing pathophysiology (2) Clincial manifestations of Cushing (5) Clinical manifestations for type 1 Diabetes (6): Thyrotoxicosis / Hyperthyroidism Hyperthyroidism Graves disease (hyperthyroid) (4) Graves thyriod-stimulationg immunoglobulins (2) Graves disease symptoms Hypersecretion of prolactin in females Hypersecretion of prolactin in males Huntington disease (chorea) Huntington pathophysiology . Diabetes insipidus Diabetes insp. manifestations Infectious Mononucleosis (IM) (3) Polycythemia Vera (primary) Hemostasis Thrombocythemia Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) Complications of DIC Most common condition associated with DIC Coagulation Treatment of DIC . most common blood disorder in children. HL is characterized by Sickle cell disease is Sickle cell disease Sickle cell disease causes Dye used to stain DNA Normal Cells are.. Single-cell organism has 4 needs The paramecium Cell size is limited by... The cytoskeleton enabled the primitive cell to become mobile Limitations of cell culture technique (choose 2) The Cytoskeleton is composed of 3 systems Actin Filament System The Microtubule System Molecular motors ... Whenever a ligand binds to a receptor The receptor changes it's shape autocrine communication is the cell talking to itself Paracrine communiaction the cell talking to it's neighbors Endocrine communication The ligand reaches the circulatory system and is sent through to it's destination 2 types of communication within cells 1. nuclear signaling2. Cytoplasmic signaling Nuclear signaling involves a change in gene activity, synthesizing/degrading new proteins. Takes days-weeks cytoplasmic signaling faster than nuclear signaling. takes minutes-days Which statement regarding arteriosclerosis is ? Arteriosclerosis is: thickening and hardening of the vessel wall. Which is a characteristic of hypoventilation? Inadequate alveolar ventilation in relation to metabolic demands A patient experiences a rapidly progressive hypertension with a diastolic pressure of 146 mm Hg. Which is the correct term for this condition? Malignant hypertension Jim was recently evaluated by his physician after complaining of distended and palpable vessels in his lower extremities. Which of the following his likely his diagnosis? varicose veins. Jim has been diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following complications would most likely occur secondary to his hypertension diagnosis? Congestive heart failure Which term describes the occlusion of a blood vessel from a bolus of circulating matter in the bloodstream? Embolus Keri is a 28 year old female who presents to her primary care doctor with pallor, numbness, and a sensation of cold temperature of her digits. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause for these symptoms she presented with? Keri has raynaud phenomenon Which statement regarding cigarette smoke is correct? Cigarette smoking produces: an increased thrombotic state. Which is the MOST common complication of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? Arrhythmia Which valvular disorder is characterized by impaired blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle? Mitral stenosis A patient has rheumatic fever. Which valve is most commonly affected? Mitral Which statement is accurate regarding the epidemiology of congenital heart defects in children? Congenital heart disease is the leading cause of death in the first year of life. An infant born with a congenital heart defect experiences sudden onset of dyspnea, cyanosis, and restlessness. Which condition will most likely be considered the cause of these symptoms? “Tet” spell associated with tetralogy of Fallot A 75-year-old obese female presents to her primary care provider reporting edema in the lower extremities. Physical exam reveals that she has varicose veins. Upon performing the history, which of the following is a possible cause for the varicose veins? Long periods of standing When a patient is diagnosed with coronary artery disease, the nurse assesses for myocardial ischemia A nurse takes an adult patient’s blood pressure and determines it to be normal. What reading did the nurse obtain? Systolic pressure less than 120 mm Hg and diastolic pressure less than 80 mm Hg Most cases of combined systolic and diastolic hypertension have no known cause and are documented on the chart as hypertension. primary A 30-year-old White female was recently diagnosed with primary hypertension. She reports that she eats fairly well, usually moderate red meat consumption. She also reports that her father has hypertension as well. A nurse determines which of the following risk factors is most likely associated with this diagnosis? Genetic What term should the nurse use to document a detached blood clot? Thromboembolus A patient is diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which of the following modifiable risk factors would the nurse suggest the patient change? Smoking cigarettes The most common cause of myocardial ischemia is: atherosclerosis. Which statement regarding croup is accurate? Children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years of age are at greatest risk. DNA mutation is greatly reduced by enzymes that proof read the newly replicated DNA. Specically in a cell where does Glycolysis occur? Cytoplasm Specically where in a cell does the citric acid/Kreb’s cycle occur? Mitochondrial matrix Having a fever of 100 degrees F can help you ght o infections. Epithelial cells serve as a barrier to prevent non-specic movement of chemicals from one side of the epithelium to the other side. The digestive track begins with the [x] and the rst enzyme added is [y]. mouth, amylase What is the best method for minimizing the spread of tuberculosis? Wearing a face mask A 20-year-old presents reporting difficulty breathing when lying down. What term should the nurse use to document this condition? Orthopnea A 65-year-old diagnosed with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals both bluish skin and mucous membranes. What term will the nurse use to document these observations? Cyanosis The most common cause of pulmonary edema is: left heart failure. Pneumonia is caused by: viral or bacterial infections. What is the most likely cause of chronic bronchitis in a 25-year-old? Cigarette smoke Which of the following is regarding the pathophysiology of asthma? Inflammation results in hyperresponsiveness. What is Raynaud Phenomenon and symptoms Attacks of vasospams in small arteries of digits. Symptoms: numbness/coldness in digits, skin change including cyanosis Atherosclerosis and what it leads to thickening and hardening of vessel walls. Leads to formation of plaque Atherosclerosis is the leading cause of what two diseases? coronary artery and cerebrovascular Atherosclerosis is the leading cause of _ attack heart what is the most common valve disorder in the US? Mitral valve prolapse syndrome (MVPS) Coronary artery disease any vascular disorder that narrows coronary arteries Modifiable factors of coronary artery dyslipidemia, HTN, cigarette use, diabetes mellitus, obesity/sedentary lifestyle, atherogenic diet Non-modifiable factors of coronary artery old age, family history, male, or female menopause Complications of coronary artery disease heart attack (myocardial ischemia) A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe: acute pericarditis Acute Pericarditis is the most common _ cardiovascular complication of HIV 3 factors promoting deep venous thrombosis Triad of Virchow 1. Venous stasis 1. Venous endothelial damage 2. Hypercoagulable state Primary hypertension 90% of cases, no known cause secondary hypertension high blood pressure caused by effects of another disease Orthostatic Hypertension Blood pressure drops as patient rises from recumbent position pulmonary embolism clot or other material lodges in vessels of the lung.. Usually arises from lower extremities myocardial infarction death of cardiac muscle due to ischemia Unstable angina is an indication of _ impending heart attack Valvular regurgitation incomplete closure of valve > to backward flow of blood. most common causes of Infective endocarditis Bacteria: steptococci, staphylococci, enterococci make up 80% of cases right heart failure symptoms and manifestations Peripheral edema, hepatosplenomegaly, COPP, ARDS, heart attack, vavular disease Clinical manifestations of Shock Hypotension (most common), decreased cardiac and urinary output, increased respiratory rate, MODS Hypovolemic shock Shock resulting from blood or fluid loss. Septic shock a serious condition that occurs when an overwhelming bacterial infection affects the body (pneumonia, infections) SIRS MODS and its triggers Organ failure of 2 or more organs. triggers: trauma, burns, some drugs, major surgery, among others What is the most common type of Congenital Heart Defect? Ventricular Septal Defect One of the identified causes of cardiac defects an intrauterine What is the most common congenital cyanotic heart disease? tetralogy of fallot (boot-shaped heart) Hypoplastic Left heart Syndrome underdevelopment of the left heartPresents as mild cyanosis, tachypnea, cardiac output What is the leading cause of acquired heart disease in children? Kawasaki Disease Dyspnea Difficult or labored breathing, shortness of breath orthopnea inability to breathe unless one is in an upright position hemoptysis spitting up blood (from the respiratory tract) Resting Heart Rate Is the number of times your heart beats in one minute when your are not active. tachypnea rapid breathing Hypoventilation Breathing too shallow, CO2 levels increase, blood is too acidic Hyperventilation Rapid and deep breathing, CO2 levels drop Aspiration inhalation of a foreign substance into upper respiratory tract (usually fluid) Atelectasis Lung Collapse ARDS acute respiratory distress syndrome widespread inflammation of lungs, fluid in alveoli, reduced lung compliance Causes: Sepsis. Inhalation of harmful substances. Severe pneumonia. Head or chest injury. Asthma is thought to be caused by: interactions between genetic and environmental factors What is a nosocomial infection? Infectious disease that are acquired or developed during a hospital stay What is the most common type of renal stone composed of? Calcium A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain, and hematuria. These signs and symptoms support which diagnosis? Acute cystitis A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. When the nurse checks the culture results, which of the following organisms is most likely infecting her urinary tract? Escherichia coli The most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is: urinary tract obstruction. A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3-5 grams per day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is: acute glomerulonephritis. A 42-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident that has resulted in prerenal failure. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition Inadequate renal blood flow An older male presents with flank pain and polyuria. Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate. Which type of renal failure is this patient at risk for? Postrenal Upon examination of a male infant, it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis. The nurse will document this condition as: hypospadias When a child is admitted with acute renal failure, a clinician realizes the most common cause of acute renal failure is: hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS). A 7-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for incontinence. His mother indicates that he has never been continent before. This history supports which form of enuresis? Primary A patient is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Which conditions will confirm such a diagnosis? (select all that apply) Obesity Infertility Hirsutism Amenorrhea A patient presents with an inflammation of one of the ducts that lead from the introitus. What is the appropriate term for this condition? Bartholinitis A sexually active male reports unilateral pain in his scrotum. Assessment findings include a red and swollen, tender area on his scrotum. Which diagnosis is supported by this data? Epididymitis Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is characterized with the presence of: amenorrhea. Which are frequent sites for distant metastasis for prostate cancer? (select all that apply) Lymph nodes, lungs, liver, bones Which condition must be ruled out when identifying the cause of secondary amenorrhea? Unknown pregnancy Which reason is the primary contributor to the continued spread of sexually transmitted diseases? People unaware they are infected Which statements should be included in information regarding uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)? (select all that apply) Develops from smooth muscle Decreases with menopause Generally asymptomatic Which term describes painful menstruation associated with the release of prostaglandins in ovulatory cycles? Primary dysmenorrhea Which are possible causes of prostate cancer? (select all that apply) Chronic prostatic inflammation Reduced levels of 5á-dihydrotestosterone Genetic predisposition Elevated androgen levels A 20-year-old man presents with periumbilical pain, fever, and loss of appetite. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his abdominal discomfort? Appendicitis A 3-year-old child presents with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The child attends a daycare and has not been vaccinated. There is no other significant history, and his parents are healthy. Which diagnosis is supported by these symptoms? Hepatitis A A client presents with epigastric pain, which radiates to the back, and vomiting. Hyperglycemia and tachycardia are noted. Client reports being “a heavy drinker but never had problems like this before.” Which disease process is supported by this client’s symptoms? Acute pancreatitis A premature infant has abdominal distention, pain, fever, bradycardia, and apnea. Stools are bloody, and white blood cells are elevated. What diagnosis do these symptoms support? Necrotizing enterocolitis Bright red bleeding from the rectum is referred to as: hematochezia. A 19-year-old presents with abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and a low- grade fever. A possible diagnosis would be: appendicitis. An increase in the rate of red blood cell breakdown causes which form of jaundice? Hemolytic An analysis of most gallstones would reveal a high concentration of: cholesterol. Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by: obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone. Tissue damage in pancreatitis is initially triggered by: backup of pancreatic enzymes. A patient has total displacement of a bone from its normal position. Which of the following terms describes this injury Dislocation What is the appropriate term for a “fungal infection of the scalp”? Tinea capitis A patient is brought to the hospital after twisting an ankle. The ligaments appear to have sustained tears. Which is the best term to describe this injury? Sprain At what age does age-related bone loss begin? 30-40 Which is a clinical manifestation of Paget disease? Impaired motor function Which organism is the most common cause of hematogenous osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients? Salmonella A middle-aged female presents with painful, tender joints. Laboratory testing reveals elevated IgM and IgG. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Rheumatoid arthritis A patient is diagnosed with gout following pain in the big toe. Which would be the symptoms or signs of the disease? (select all that apply) Tophi formations Hyperuricemia Inflammation of a single joint Formation of renal stone Which of the following is the most common malignant bone tumor that occurs during childhood? Osteosarcoma Which bone trauma when diagnosed in a child is suggestive of physical abuse? A corner metaphyseal fracture Which risk factors are associated with the developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a newborn? (select all that apply) Family history Low levels of intrauterine fluid Breech presentation With regard to pressure ulcers, which stage correctly correlates to the description? Stage I = Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin An older adult male presents with inflammation of skin on his forehead, nose, cheeks and chin. His nose appears bulbous, and he has developed conjunctivitis. Which diagnosis is supported by these symptoms? Acne rosacea Which statement regarding herpes simplex virus (HSV-1) is ? Lesions of HSV-1 are typically found near the mouth. What is the most common type of skin cancer? Basal cell Which statement about thrush is correct? Thrush begins white plaques or spots in the mouth. Which form of dermatitis is common in infancy and childhood? Atopic A deficiency of which substances have been associated with osteoporosis? (select all that apply) Magnesium Estrogen Calcium Vitamin D Which bone tumor is the most aggressive and demonstrates a moth-eaten pattern of bone destruction? Osteosarcoma Which age-group has the highest incidence of bone tumors? Adolescents postrenal kidney injury caused by: urinary tract infections prerenal injury renal hypofusion Oliguria less than 400 ml/day of urine output Anuria less than 50 ml/day of urine output. Virtually no urine output Hypospadias urethral meatus located on ventral side of (under) penis Epispadias Abnormal opening of penile urethra on superior (dorsal) side of penis due to faulty positioning of genital tubercle. When you have Epispadias you hit your EYE when you PEE) Exstrophy herniation of the bladder through pelvis wall Amenorrhea Lack of menstration. Pregnancy must be disproved what is pelvic organ prolapse? protrusion of pelvic organs into the vagina Increased risks for prostate cancer include: Diets with high fat diet (particularly saturated fats), high calcium intake from things like dairy products (maybe because of increased vitamin D levels), low intake of dietary fiber and complex carbohydrates, high protein intake. (All a vote against the Adkins diet.) (ii) Increased androgen levels (like anabolic steroid abusers). (iii)There are some familial forms of prostate cancer, indicating that some prostate cancers are inherited—in an autosomal dominant fashion. Osmotic diarrhea a nonabsorbable substance in the intestine draws water into the lumen by osmosis. The excess water and the nonabsorbable substance cause large volume diarrhea. Secretory diarrhea Excessive mucosal secretion of fluid and electrolytes.Crohns, antibiotics, clostridium difficle motility diarrhea Caused by resection of small intestine (short bowel syndrome) and IBS GERD symptoms, and clinical Symptoms worse when laying down, heart burn, acid reflux, chronic cough, asthma Peptic Ulcer Disease Break or ulceration of protective mucosal lining in lower esophagus, stomach, or duodenum Superficial ulcers Erosions that only erode the mucosa Most common type of ulcer duodenal ulcers Gastric ulcers ulcers of the stomach What is jaunice in newborns caused by impaired bilirubin uptake and conjugation What is cholelithiasis gallstones GER (gastroesophageal reflux) Passage of gastric contents into the esophagus independent of swallowing. Common in infants. What is the leading cause of death in young children diarrhea Most common cause of diarrhea in children Rotavirus Greenstick fracture break in only one cortex of the bone rhabdomyolysis classical triad muscle pain, weakness, dark urine primary organism responsible for osteomyelitis staph. aureus Keloids irregulary shape, elevated, progressively enlarging, clawlike prolongations Response to burn injury rule of 9's. Burns exceeding 20% TBA are major burn injuries Hypovolemia Associated with burnshock. Results from massic fluid loss and shifts to interstitial space from circulating blood volume Ebb phase Blood shunted away from liver, kidney, and gut during first 24 hours What is critial for restoring circulating blood volume to burn victim? intravenous fluid resuscitation Capillary seal reaching the end of burn shock Hirsutism Abnormal growth and distribution of hair in a male pattern on a women [Show More]

Last updated: 1 year ago

Preview 1 out of 49 pages

Add to cart

Instant download

We Accept:

We Accept
document-preview

Buy this document to get the full access instantly

Instant Download Access after purchase

Add to cart

Instant download

We Accept:

We Accept

Reviews( 0 )

$12.50

Add to cart

We Accept:

We Accept

Instant download

Can't find what you want? Try our AI powered Search

OR

REQUEST DOCUMENT
182
0

Document information


Connected school, study & course


About the document


Uploaded On

Sep 09, 2019

Number of pages

49

Written in

Seller


seller-icon
Expert#1

Member since 5 years

411 Documents Sold


Additional information

This document has been written for:

Uploaded

Sep 09, 2019

Downloads

 0

Views

 182

Document Keyword Tags

Recommended For You

Get more on STUDY GUIDE »

$12.50
What is Browsegrades

In Browsegrades, a student can earn by offering help to other student. Students can help other students with materials by upploading their notes and earn money.

We are here to help

We're available through e-mail, Twitter, Facebook, and live chat.
 FAQ
 Questions? Leave a message!

Follow us on
 Twitter

Copyright © Browsegrades · High quality services·