Chamberlain College Of Nursing > NURSING > 2020 NR 508 Patho COMPLETE LAST EXAM (ALREADY GRADED A)

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Question 1 : Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? Neisseria syphilis Treponema pallidum Haemophilus ducreyi Chlamydia trachomatis ... Question 2. : Kidney stones in the upper part of the ureter would produce pain referred to which anatomical area? : Vulva or penis Umbilicus Thighs Lower abdomen Question 3. : Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? Blood vessels Epithelial cells Connective tissue Glandular tissue Question 4. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 5. What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? Refractory Hyperpolarization Threshold Sinoatrial (SA) Question 6. Stress-induced norepinephrine results in: Pupil constriction Peripheral vasoconstriction Increased sweat gland secretions Decreased blood pressure Question 7. What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child? 104/55 mm Hg 106/58 mm Hg 112/62 mm Hg 121/70 mm Hg Question 8. Graves disease is a result of: Increased levels of circulating immunoglobulins The infiltration of the thyroid with T lymphocytes Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites Exposure to acetylates in substances such as rubber Question 9. Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. Question 10. Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long? 6 to 8 weeks 8 to 12 months Until the iron level is normal The rest of one’s life Question 11. Which of the following are formed elements of the blood that are not cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting? Monocytes Platelets Macrophages Erythrocytes Question 12. Question : The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as: Infectivity Toxigenicity Pathogenicity Virulence Question 13. Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection? The virus does not circulate in the blood. It does not have antibody receptors. It resists agglutination. The virus is a soluble antigen. Question 14. Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system? Decreased flow resistance Fewer alveoli Stiffening of the chest wall Improved elastic recoil Question 15. Question : Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin? Viruses Bacteria and fungi Protozoa and Rickettsiae Mycoplasma Question 16. The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? IgE IgG IgM T cells Question 17. Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because: Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling. The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of lean adults. The rate of urine output of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults. The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively. Question 18. The World Health Organization (WHO) defines grade 1 (overweight) as a BMI of: 18.5 to 24.9 25 to 29.9 30 to 39.9 40 to 50.9 Question 19. Which type of anemia occurs as a result of thalassemia? Microcytic, hypochromic Microcytic, normochromic Macrocytic, hyperchromic Macrocytic, normochromic Question 20. The area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli and portions of the tubules is called the: Medulla Cortex Pyramids Columns Question 21. At birth, which statement is true? Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall. Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung. Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises. Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise. Question 22. On average, what percent of cardiac output do the kidneys receive? 10% to 20% 15% to 20% 20% to 25% 30% to 35% Question 23. How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured? Reticulocyte count Serum transferring Hemoglobin Serum vitamin B12 Question 24. What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies? Greater quantities of histamine More histamine receptors Greater quantities of IgE A deficiency in epinephrine Question 25. What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer? Herpes simplex virus type 6 Herpes simplex virus type 2 Human papillomavirus Human immunodeficiency virus Question 26. In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? Thymus gland Regional lymph nodes Bone marrow Spleen Question 27. Which of the following causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts? Chlamydia Adenovirus Human papillomavirus (HPV) Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) Question 28. Where in the lung does gas exchange occur? Trachea Segmental bronchi Alveolocapillary membrane Main bronchus Question 29. The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland? Posterior pituitary Thyroid Parathyroid Anterior pituitary Question 30. Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful? Flight or fight Alarm Adaptation Arousal Question 31. In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult erythrocyte life span is _____ days. 30 to 50; 80 60 to 80; 120 90 to 110; 140 120 to 130; 150 Question 32. Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease? Syphilis Gonorrhea Human papillomavirus Pelvic inflammatory disease Question 33. What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children? Chronic respiratory infections Adenotonsillar hypertrophy Obligatory mouth breathing Paradoxic breathing Question 34. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? Nausea Fatigue Hair loss Weight loss Question 35. Blood cells that differentiate into macrophages are known as: Monocytes Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils Question 36. Where are Langerhans cells found? Skin Intestinal lining Kidney Thyroid Question 37. Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines? Uromodulin Nephrin Urodilatin Cystatin Question 38. How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s. Question 39. Which renal change is found in older adults? Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate Sharp decline in renal blood flow Decrease in the number of nephrons Decrease in urine output Question 40. Which nutritional deficiency in a pregnant woman is associated with neural tube defect (NTD)? Iron Vitamin C Zinc Folate Question 41. Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea? Syphilis Herpes simplex virus Chlamydia Chancroid Question 42. Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response? Norepinephrine Epinephrine Cortisol Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Question 43. What is the function of erythrocytes? Tissue oxygenation Hemostasis Infection control Allergy response Question 44. Aspiration is most likely to occur in the right mainstem bronchus because it: Extends vertically from the trachea. Is narrower than the left mainstem bronchus. Comes into contact with food and drink first. Is located at the site where the bronchi bifurcate. Question 45. Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of: Epinephrine and aldosterone Norepinephrine and cortisol Epinephrine and norepinephrine Acetylcholine and cortisol Question 46. Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Hypercalcemia Question 47. What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx? Nasal turbinates Alveolar macrophages Cilia Irritant receptors on the nares Question 48. Where are alveolar macrophages found? Skin Breasts Gastrointestinal tract Lungs Question 49. Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process? Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils Erythrocytes Question 50. The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant? Immunotope Paratope Epitope Antigenitope Question 51. An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident? Chorionic Alpha fetoprotein Amniotic Embryonic Question 52. What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)? Diet high in saturated fats Increased production of cholesterol by the liver Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood Question 53. Which medication compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis? Salt tablets Pancreatic enzymes Antihypertensives Antibiotics Question 54. Which statement is true regarding the major difference between male and female sex hormone production? Luteinizing hormone has no apparent action in a man. In a man, sex hormone production is relatively constant. Estradiol is not produced in a man. In a man, gonadotropin-releasing hormone does not cause the release of follicle stimulating hormone. Question 55. Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell? Potassium Calcium Sodium Phosphorus Question 56. At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder? Esophageal atresia Congenital aganglionic megacolon Pyloric stenosis Galactosemia Question 57. Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which of the brain’s neurotransmitters? Gamma-aminobutyric acid Dopamine Norepinephrine Acetylcholine Question 58. What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes? Increases serum calcium. Decreases serum calcium. Decreases serum magnesium. Increases serum magnesium. Question 59. How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature? The release of epinephrine causes shivering. It affects muscle tone. It raises the metabolic rate. It increases and strengthens the heart rate. Question 60. Consanguinity refers to the mating of persons: Who are unrelated When one has an autosomal dominant disorder Having common family relations When one has a chromosomal abnormality Question 61. The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term? Relativity Survivability Prevalence Incidence Question 62. Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain? GCT Pattern theory Specificity theory Neuromatrix theory Question 63. What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone? Sharpey fibers Collagen fibers Glycoproteins Elastin fibers Question 64. Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion? Vitamin B6 Vitamin B1 Vitamin K Folic acid Question 65. What is the leading cause of infertility in women? Pelvic inflammatory disease Endometriosis Salpingitis Polycystic ovary syndrome Question 66. What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain? Limbic system Parietal lobe Thalamus Hypothalamus Question 67. Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia? Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue Question 68. Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates? Trypsin Amylase Lipase Chymotrypsin Question 69. Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke? Hemorrhagic Thrombotic Embolic Lacunar Question 70. What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding? Tolerance Perception Threshold Dominance Question 71. Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer? Human papillomavirus (HPV) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) Herpes simplex II virus (HSV) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Question 72. Which term is also used to refer to paradoxic sleep? Non-REM Light REM Delta wave Question 73. What is the blood type of a person who is heterozygous, having A and B alleles as codominant? A B O AB Question 74. Which term is used to describe an intestinal obstruction caused by the invagination of the ileum into the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve? Congenital aganglionic megacolon Malrotation Intussusception Volvulus Question 75. What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor? Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Mammary glands Posterior pituitary Question 76. An individual’s genetic makeup is referred to as his or her: Phenotype Genotype Heterozygous locus Homozygous locus Question 77. How many days does it take for the entire epithelial population of the small intestines to be replaced? 30 to 45 15 to 25 7 to 15 4 to 7 Question 78. What is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer? Nipple dimpling Nipple discharge Enlargement of one breast Painless lump Question 79. A child with which genetic disorder has a characteristic cry? Down syndrome Klinefelter syndrome Turner syndrome Cri du chat Question 80. A complex partial seizure is described as: Alternating of tonic and clonic movements Impairment of both consciousness and the ability to react to exogenous stimuli Focal motor movement without loss of consciousness One seizure followed by another in less than 1 minute Question 81. Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation? Heat cramps Heat stroke Malignant hyperthermia Heat exhaustion Question 82. Using a fan to reduce body temperature is an example of which mechanism of heat loss? Evaporation Radiation Convection Conduction Question 83. It is true that myasthenia gravis: Is an acute autoimmune disease. Affects the nerve roots. May result in adrenergic crisis. Causes muscle weakness. Question 84. Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone? Cortisol Oxytocin Epinephrine Growth hormone Question 85. Which hormone triggers uterine contractions? Thyroxine Oxytocin Growth hormone Insulin Question 86. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria? Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus Pseudomonas aeruginosa Haemophilus Question 87. Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of: Decreased production of aqueous humor Increased production of vitreous humor Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor Excessive destruction of vitreous humor Question 88. Which assessment finding characterizes Osgood-Schlatter disease? Lateral epicondylitis of the elbow Inflammation of the anterior cruciate ligament Bursitis of the subscapular bursa in the glenohumeral joint Tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon Question 89. What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle? Gradual decrease in estrogen levels Sudden increase of LH Sharp rise in progesterone levels Gradual increase in estrogen levels Question 90. Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor? Parietal Chief G H Question 91. A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to which region of the brain? Frontal Temporal Parietal Occipital Question 92. The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin? IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 93. People with gout are at high risk for which co-morbid condition? Renal calculi Joint trauma Anemia Hearing loss Question 94. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of: Positive feedback Negative feedback Neural regulation Physiologic regulation Question 95. What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels? Procallus Joint capsule Hematoma Elastin fibers Question 96. Which neurotransmitter is inhibited in panic disorders? Norepinephrine Serotonin Dopamine Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) Question 97. The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they: Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse. Increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse. Decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse. Decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse. Question 98. In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: Disruption in the hypothalamus Disruption of the pituitary Deficit in estrogen or testosterone Physiologic hormonal delays Question 99. Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels? Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Thyroxine (T4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Triiodothyronine (T3) Question 100. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer? Increased consumption of dairy produces Increased consumption of foods containing vitamin C Decreased consumption of foods high in fat Decreased consumption of artificial food coloring [Show More]

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