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EXTRA Practice Exam Questions A & ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2024 GUARANTEED GRADE A+

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1. Many coding professionals go on to find work as: Consultants What is the purpose of National Coverage Determinations? To explain CMS policies on when Medicare will pay for items or services. . ... LCDs only have jurisdiction in their ____. region In what year was HITECH enacted as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act? 2009 Which of the following choices is NOT a benefit of an active compliance plan? Eliminates risk of an audit. . Healthcare providers are responsible for developing ____ ____ and policies and procedures regarding privacy in their practices Notices of Privacy Practices Voluntary compliance programs also provide benefits by not only helping to prevent erroneous or ____, but also by showing that the provider practice is making additional good faith efforts to submit claims appropriately. Fraudulent claims What is the value of a remittance advice? It states what will be paid and why any changes to charges were made. In what year was the AAPC founded? 1988 Muscle is attached to bone by what method? Tendons, aponeurosis and directly to bone How many lobes make up the right lung? three Upon leaving the stomach, nutrients move through the small intestine in what order? Duodenum, jejunum, ileum The splenic (left colic) flexure lies in the upper left quadrant, between what two portions of the large intestine? The transverse and descending colon . What is endometriosis? When the endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus Which cells produce hormones to regulate blood sugar? Pancreatic islets Where would a subungual hematoma be located? Under the toenail/fingernail Impetigo is best described as: bacterial skin infection Which of the following characterizes the disorder dystonia? Abnormal muscle tone causing abnormal postures and muscle spasm Splenorrhaphy is described as: suture of a ruptured spleen Excessive potassium in the blood is referred to as: Hyperkalemia Melasma is defined as: Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face The root for pertaining to pancreatic islet cells is: Insul/o The term for a shaking or involuntary movement is: Tremor A meningioma is defined as: tumor of the meninges The term for pain in the ear is: otalgia A dacryocystectomy describes: excision of a lacrimal sac A projection is the path of the X-ray beam. If the projection is front to back it would be: Anteroposterior A gonioscopy is an examination of what part of the eye: Anterior chamber of the eye What does ICD-10-CM stand for? International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification A 6 year-old patient is seen in the office for acute otitis media, coded as H66.90. This is an example of a ____ code. NOS The Global Surgical Package applies to services performed in what setting? a. Hospitals b. Ambulatory Surgical Centers c. Physician's offices d. All of the about D. All of the about What does the acronym HCPCS stand for? a. Healthcare Physician Coding Standards b. Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System c. Healthcare Physician Communicating System d. Health Codes for Physicians and Coding Surgeries b. Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System What does "non-facility" describe when calculating Medicare Physician Fee Schedule payments? a. Hospitals b. Nursing homes c. Non-hospital owned physician practices d. Hospital owned physician practices c. Non-hospital owned physician practices What are the layers of the skin? a. Epidermis and Dermis b. Epidermis, Dermis and Fascia c. Epidermis, Dermis, Subcutaneous Tissue and Fascia d. Epidermis and Fascia epidermis and dermis What is the appropriate modifier to use when two surgeons perform separate distinct portions of the same procedure? a. 66 c. 62 b. 80 d. 59 c. 62 In ICD-10-CM, what classification system is used to report open fracture classifications? a. Muller AO classification of fractures b. PHF classification of fractures c. Gustilo classification for open fractures d. Danis-Weber classification c. Gustilo classification for open fractures What is the largest single mass of lymphatic tissue? Spleen PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Heart Block POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Heart Block ANESTHESIA: Local anesthesia NAME OF PROCEDURE: Reimplantation of dual chamber pacemaker DESCRIPTION: The chest was prepped with Betadine and draped in the usual sterile fashion. Local anesthesia was obtained by infiltration of 1% Xylocaine. A subfascial incision was made about 2.5 cm below the clavicle, and the old pulse generator was removed. Using the Seldinger technique, the subclavian vein was cannulated and through this, the old atrial lead was removed, and a new atrial lead (serial # 6662458) was placed in the right atrium and to the atrial septum. Thresholds were obtained as follows: The P-wave was 1.4 millivolts, atrial threshold was 1.6 millivolts with a resultant current of 3.5 mA and resistance of 467 ohms. Using a second subclavian stick in the Seldinger technique, the old ventricular lead was removed and a new ventricular lead (serial # 52236984) was inserted and placed into the right ventricular apex. The thresholds were obtained and were as follows: R-wave was 23.5 millivolts. The patient was pacing at 100% at 0.5 volts, with resultant current of 0.8 mA and resistance of 480 ohms. When we were satisfied with the thresholds, the leads were connected to the pacemaker generator (serial # 22561587), which was inserted into the previously created pocket. The wound was thoroughly irrigated with antibiotic solution and hemostasis was obtained. The incision was closed in layered fashion with 2-0 Dexon. A compressive dressing was applied, and the patient tolerated the procedure very well. He was taken to the recovery room in satisfactory condition. a. 33207, 33206-51, 33236-51 c. 33208, 33238-51, 33241-51 b. 33202, 33233-51 d. 33235, 33208-51, 33233-51 b. 33202, 33233-51 Which statement is TRUE regarding codes for hypertension and heart disease in ICD-10-CM? Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship. What are the filtering units of the kidney called? Nephrons What ICD-10-CM code is reported for internal hemorrhoids? a. K64.0 c. K64.8 b. K64.4 d. K64.9 c. K64.8 What ICD-10-CM code is reported for acute gastritis with bleeding? a. K29.00 c. K29.70 b. K29.01 d. K29.71 b. K29.01 If a non-Medicare patient has an age and gender appropriate preventive medicine exam (i.e., a breast and pelvic exam) this is coded with the age appropriate Preventive Medicine codes from the E/M chapter of CPT®. If a Medicare patient has a breast and pelvic exam, how is this coded? a. 99387 b. G0101 c. 99387 or 99397 d. None of the above, preventive services are free for Medicare patients b. G0101 Mrs. Smith is visiting her mother and is 150 miles away from home. She is in the 26th week of pregnancy. In the late afternoon she suddenly feels a gush of fluids followed by strong uterine contractions. She is rushed to the hospital but the baby is born before they arrive. In the ED she and the baby are examined and the retained placenta is delivered. The baby is in the neonatal nursery doing okay. Mrs. Smith has a 2nd degree perineal laceration secondary to precipitous delivery which was repaired by the ED physician. She will return home for her postpartum care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT® codes are reported by the ED physician? a. 59409, O80, Z3A.26, Z37.0 b. 59409, 59414-51, 59300-51, O62.3, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.0 c. 59414, 59300-51, O62.3, O70.9, Z3A.26, Z37.0 d. 59414, 59300-51, O73.0, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.0 d. 59414, 59300-51, O73.0, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.0 What is a parathyroidectomy? a. Removal of the bottom part of the thyroid. b. Removal of the upper part of the thyroid. c. Removal of glands on the posterior surface of the thyroid. d. Removal of glands beneath the thyroid. c. Removal of glands on the posterior surface of the thyroid. When coding for surgery performed on the Skull Base (61580-61598) what term describes the method used to gain exposure to the lesion? a. Definitive procedure c. Repair procedure b. Radical procedure d. Approach procedure d. Approach procedure What information does ICD-10-CM add to many of the codes for eye disorders or injuries? a. Severity of the injury. b. Laterality (eye affected). [Show More]

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