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PATIENT CARE - ARRT X-RAY BOARD EXAM LATEST 2023 RATED A+

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PATIENT CARE - ARRT X-RAY BOARD EXAM LATEST 2023 RATED A+ The normal body temperature taken orally for a healthy adult is: A. 97.6 degrees F B. 98.6 degrees F C. 99.6 degrees F D. 100.6 degrees ... F ✔✔B. 98.6 degrees F The normal range for adult systolic blood pressure is: A. 60 - 80 B. 80 - 100 C. 100 - 120 D. 120 - 140 ✔✔C. 100 - 120 The normal range for adult pulse rate is: A. 40 - 60 beats per minute B. 60 - 100 beats per minute C. 80 - 100 beats per minute D. 100 - 120 beats per minute ✔✔B. 60 - 100 beats per minute The normal range for adult diastolic blood pressure is: A. 60 - 80 B. 80 - 100 C. 100 - 120 D. 120 - 140 ✔✔A. 60 - 80 The most accurate body temperature measurement can be obtained by what method? A. oral B. rectal C. tympanic D. axillary ✔✔A. rectal Which blood pressure reading is associated with the contraction of the left ventricle? A. systolic B. diastolic ✔✔A. systolic The diastolic blood pressure is a measurement of the pressure exerted on the arterials walls during: A. atrial contraction B. right ventricle contraction C. relaxation of the left ventricle D. relaxation of the atria ✔✔C. relaxation of the left ventricle The measurement of oxygen saturation of the blood is accomplished with a: A. stethoscope B. blood test C. sphygmomanometer D. pulse oximeter ✔✔D. pulse oximeter A patient could be considered hypoxic if the blood oxygen saturation falls below: A. 100% B. 96% C. 93% D. 90% ✔✔D. 90% Upon noticing that any of a patient's vital signs are abnormal, the radiologic technologist's priority should be to: A. complete the exam as quickly as possible so the images are available for diagnosis B. stop the exam immediately and stabilize the patient C. call a nurse D. return the patient to their floor or unit ✔✔B. stop the exam immediately and stabilize the patient Which of the following respiration rates would most likely apply to an adult patient with a diagnosis of tachypnea? A. 6 breaths per minute B. 12 breaths per minute C. 20 breaths per minute D. 30 breaths per minute ✔✔D. 30 breaths per minute In a trauma situation, which of the following arteries are best for assessing a patient's pulse due to their larger size and more accurate representation of the heart's activity? 1. femoral 2. carotid 3. radial A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1,2, and 3 ✔✔C. 1 and 2 only An EKG is a measurement of: A. electrical activity of the brain B. the force of contractions of the heart C. the electrical activity of the heart D. the pulse rate ✔✔C. the electrical activity of the heart The first phase of contraction of the heart involves contraction of the: A. left atrium only B. right atrium only C. right and left atria D. right and left ventricles ✔✔C. right and left atria From the ventricles, blood is pushed into the: A. pulmonary veins and aorta B. pulmonary artery and aorta C. atria D. inferior and superior vena cava ✔✔B. pulmonary artery and aorta The P wave of an EKG pattern represents the: A. electrical activity through the atria B. electrical activity through the ventricles C. resetting of the ventricles D. contraction of the ventricles without electrical impulse ✔✔A. electrical activity through the atria The contraction of the ventricles is represented by which segment of the EKG pattern? A. P wave B. QRS Complex C. ST segment D. T wave ✔✔B. QRS Complex EKG Gating is used to obtain diagnostic images of the heart: A. during ventricular contraction B. during atrial contraction C. after ventricular contraction when the ventricles are resetting for the next contraction D. when the heart is at rest between beats ✔✔D. when the heart is at rest between beats The purpose of EKG Gating is to: A. obtain images of the heart without motion blur B. obtain images of the heart during contraction C. eliminate the need for continuous EKG monitoring D. ensure the patient is closely monitored during imaging exams ✔✔A. obtain images of the heart without motion blur During an EKG, the patient is connected to at least ____ electrical leads. A. two B. three C. four D. five ✔✔B. three The red highlighted segment of this EKG pattern is the: A. T wave B. QRS segment C. P wave D. ST segment ✔✔B. QRS segment Which labeled segment of the EKG wave is a recording of the electrical stimulation causing atrial contraction? A. A B. B C. C D. D ✔✔C. C The normal range of BUN values for adults is: A. 4 - 8 B. 7 - 21 C. 10 - 20 D. 15 - 30 ✔✔B. 7 - 21 The lab test that evaluates the chemical byproduct of metabolism in the muscles is: A. BUN B. GFR C. sedimentation rate D. creatinine ✔✔D. creatinine Which of the following creatinine mg/dL levels would be considered abnormal? A. 0.8 B. 1.0 C. 1.5 D. 2.0 ✔✔D. 2.0 A test of GFR would provide information on which of the following? A. the amount of creatinine in the blood B. the amount of waste products that the kidneys can filter C. the rate at which the kidneys filter waste from the blood D. the rate of urine production ✔✔C. the rate at which the kidneys filter waste from the blood What is the normal range for GFR? A. 90 - 120 B. 50 - 80 C. 20 - 40 D. 10 - 20 ✔✔A. 90 - 120 Which of the following statements concerning kidney function is correct? A. A high creatinine level is associated with a high GFR level. B. High BUN and creatinine levels are associated with a low GFR. C. High BUN and creatinine levels are indicators that iodine contrast media is OK for a patient. D. Lower than normal creatinine and BUN levels indicate that the kidneys are filtering insufficient amounts of waste. ✔✔B. High BUN and creatinine levels are associated with a low GFR. Which of the following lab tests would be a test relating to blood coagulation? 1. PT 2. Platelet count 3. PTT 4. INR A. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 2, and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ✔✔D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 The normal range for platelet count per mm3 is: A. 1000 - 4000 B. 50,000 - 150,000 C. 150,000 - 400,000 D. 300,000 - 500,000 ✔✔C. 150,000 - 400,000 A PTT result of 50 seconds would indicate which of the following? A. a shorter than normal blood clotting time B. a normal clotting time C. a longer than normal clotting time ✔✔C. a longer than normal clotting time Which of the following would be indicated by a higher than normal PT or PTT value? A. the patient should not receive iodinated contrast media due to impaired kidney function B. a procedure requiring a large spinal needle may need to be avoided C. all injections should be completely avoided D. all types of contrast media should be avoided ✔✔B. a procedure requiring a large spinal needle may need to be avoided The normal range for PT tests is: A. 11 - 13.5 seconds B. 25 - 25 seconds C. 35 - 45 seconds D. 50+ seconds ✔✔A. 11 - 13.5 seconds The normal range for the international normalized ratio (INR) for reporting PTs is: A. 0.8 - 1.2 B. 1.5 - 2.0 C. 2.0 - 2.5 D. 2.5 - 5.0 ✔✔A. 0.8 - 1.2 In healthcare, what does the abbreviation "fx" stand for? A. Fistula B. Fracture C. Frequent D. Follow-up ✔✔B. Fracture Which of the following drugs might be given to a patient prior to an invasive procedure to reduce anxiety? A. Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) B. Norepinephrine (Levophed) C. Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan) D. Midazolam (Versed) ✔✔D. Midazolam (Versed) Which of the activities below is commonly necessary when performing radiographic procedures on a patient with a head injury? A. Suction as necessary any nasal drainage B. Check the patient's vital signs frequently C. Remove cervical collars for radiographic exposures D. Start low dose oxygen for breathing difficulties ✔✔B. Check the patient's vital signs frequently How should an used needle be disposed of? A. Place the cap on the needle and throw it in the biohazard container B. Place the cap on the needle and place it in the sharps container C. Place the uncapped needle in the sharps container D. Place the capped needle in the trash ✔✔C. Place the uncapped needle in the sharps container The grieving stage in which patient act as though nothing is wrong with them best describes: A. Acceptance B. Anger C. Denial D. Depression ✔✔C. Denial Of the following, which would be considered a severe systemic effect of anaphylaxis? A. Diffuse hives B. Rapid onset of hypotension C. Rapid onset of nausea D. Vomiting within 2 minutes of the contrast injection ✔✔B. Rapid onset of hypotension Injections of medication under the skin are referred to as which type of injections? A. Intramuscular B. Intravenous C. Intradermal D. Subcutaneous ✔✔D. Subcutaneous What is the main purpose for insertion of PICC lines? A. Deliver nutrients to the intestines B. Deliver medication through the nose or esophagus C. Deliver mediation through an arterial artery D. Deliver medication through a vein ✔✔D. Deliver medication through a vein Which of the following conditions would require protective, expanded, or reverse isolation? 1. bone marrow transplant 2. hepatitis B 3. third-degree burns A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3 ✔✔B. 1 and 3 A patient is transported by ambulance to the emergency room on a trauma back board. The patient should not be removed from the board until: A. All images ordered by the ER physician are completed B. All fractures are set in casts C. All fractures have been ruled out D. All CT scans have been completed ✔✔C. All fractures have been ruled out The legal doctrine "the employer is liable for employees' negligent acts" is referred to as: A. Respondeat superior B. Absolute liability C. Res ipsa loquitur D. Assumption of risk ✔✔A. Respondeat superior A patient who is moderately hypoglycemic would benefit from which of the following? A. Glass of water B. Glass of orange juice C. Bag of pretzels D. Insulin injection ✔✔B. Glass of orange juice During an operative procedure, which of the following is NOT considered to be sterile? A. The patient B. The scrub nurse C. The surgeon D. The anesthesiologist ✔✔D. The anesthesiologist Which of the following types of drugs would most likely be administered to the patient exhibiting a moderate case of hives following an injection of iodinated contrast medium? A. Analgesic B. Cathartic C. Diuretic D. Antihistamine ✔✔D. Antihistamine According to Maslow's hierarchy of basic human needs, what is the most basic type of behavior all humans strive to full? A. Physiologic B. Self esteem C. Safety D. Love and belonging ✔✔A. Physiologic Cerebral hypoxia can cause irreversible brain damage in: A. 2-3 minutes B. 4-5 minutes C. 6-7 minutes D. 8 or more minutes ✔✔A. 2-3 minutes During an injection of iodinated contrast media, your patient states she is feeling hot and is noticing a bad, metallic taste. You note the patient is slightly flushed. What is the best response to this situation? A. Stop the injection immediately and get the physician B. Increase the speed of the injection so the signs/symptoms will pass more quickly C. Stop the injection and call a code D. Slow the injection rate and observe the patient ✔✔D. Slow the injection rate and observe the patient The term "parenteral" refers to medications given by: A. Injection B. Mouth C. Suppositories D. Transdermal patches ✔✔A. Injection When cleaning a contaminated surface, it is best to: A. Clean from most contaminated to least contaminated B. Clean from least contaminated to most contaminated C. Clean in large circles from the inside out D. Clean in small circles from the inside out ✔✔B. Clean from least contaminated to most contaminated Systolic blood pressure can be defined as: A. The lowest point to which the blood pressure drops during relaxation of the ventricles B. The highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricle C. The difference between pressure in the right and left ventricles D. The pressure in the pulmonary artery ✔✔B. The highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricle Which method for measuring body temperature may be contraindicated for patients with cardiac conditions? A. Rectal method B. Oral method C. Axillary method D. Forehead method ✔✔A. Rectal method Proper body mechanics for lifting a patient include which of the following? 1. Lift with your back 2. Stand with your feet, shoulder width apart 3. Bend your knees slightly A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only 4. 1, 2, and 3 ✔✔C. 2 and 3 only The causes of loss of patency in an IV include: A. Poor circulation B. Malnutrition C. Improper needle selection D. Improper height of IV selection ✔✔D. Improper height of IV selection Linens or bedding that are soiled with body fluids should be disposed of: A. By placing in a bag marked "Biohazard" B. By placing in a regular laundry hamper C. In the trash receptacle D. Be sending back to the room with the patient ✔✔A. By placing in a bag marked "Biohazard" Choose the three signs/symptoms below that would indicate impending diabetic coma: Diaphoresis Extreme thirst Increased urination Elevated blood pressure Pallor Sweet/fruity smelling breath ✔✔Extreme thirst Increased urination Sweet/fruity smelling breath A patient's BUN and Creatinine levels are checked prior to IV contract injection in order to evaluate: A. Heart function B. Kidney function C. Liver function D. Blood gas levels ✔✔B. Kidney function If a dose of Benadryl is needed ASAP for an emergency reaction to contrast, how should it be administered? A. Orally B. In the muscle C. Intravenously D. Subcutaneously ✔✔C. Intravenously Isopropyl alcohol and povidone iodine (Betadine) are two common agents that may be used for : A. Surgical asepsis B. Topical anesthesia C. Disinfecting the skin D. Lubricating enema tips ✔✔C. Disinfecting the skin Iodine is used as a contrast medium principally because of its: A. High atomic number B. High osmolality C. Radiolucent characteristics D. Low toxicity ✔✔A. High atomic number An elderly patient has potentially suffered a stroke and arrives in the ER unable to speak and form words. This is a condition called: A. Dysphasia B. Dysphagia C. Aphasia D. Aphagia ✔✔C. Aphasia A disease caused by a physician or healthcare professional is knows as a(n)? A. Direct contact disease B. In-house disease C. Iatrogenic disease D. Hospital disease ✔✔C. Iatrogenic disease Which of the following should be used to disinfect after a blood spill on a table? A. Soap and water B. Betadine solution C. Bleach solution D. Alcohol solution ✔✔C. Bleach solution While caring for a patient with chest tube drainage, which of the following actions should you take? A. Clamp the drainage tube during the procedure B. Keep the drainage tube below the level of the chest during the procedure C. Remove the suction device during the procedure D. Make sure a nurse accompanies the patient for the procedure ✔✔B. Keep the drainage tube below the level of the chest during the procedure Which of the following is considered a side effect of iodinated contrast media injected into the vascular system? A. Itching B. Metallic taste C. Shaking D. Wheezing ✔✔B. Metallic taste The prime difference between an ionic and nonionic iodinated contrast agent is that: A. A nonionic contains less iodine B. An ionic contains less iodine C. A nonionic is considered to have lower osmolality D. An ionic is less likely to produce an adverse reaction when administered intravascularly ✔✔C. A nonionic is considered to have lower osmolality Which of the following imaging modalities would be considered the best screening tool for breast disease? A. Computed tomography B. Diagnostic medical sonography C. Magnetic resonance imaging D. Mammography ✔✔D. Mammography Which of the following conditions is described as an unsystematic discharge of neurons? A. Aneurysm B. Cerebrovascular accident C. Seizure D. Transient ischemic attack ✔✔C. Seizure A streptococcal infection is caused by a: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Protozoa D. Fungi ✔✔B. Bacteria When taking a patient's history prior to IV contrast injection, what factors are NOT a consideration for contraindication? A. Over age of 60 B. Allergic reaction to shellfish C. Sensitivity to Aspirin D. Allergic reaction to iodine ✔✔C. Sensitivity to Aspirin Which of the following terms refers to the radiographic interventional procedure that is performed to remove calculi from within the renal pelvis or proximal ureter? A. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty B. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy C. Renal arteriography D. Surgical nephrostomy ✔✔B. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy Rapid neurological assessment is accomplished by using the: A. Detailed history and physical form B. Glasgow scale C. Sacred seven assessment D. Apgar scale ✔✔B. Glasgow scale Which three of the following medications are considered to be opioid analgesics? Codeine Ibuprofen Morphine Acetaminophen Oxycodone Aspirin ✔✔Codeine Morphine Oxycodone Transferring a patient via Log rolling should be done if a patient is suspected of having: A. Head injury B. Spinal injury C. Lower limb fracture D. Internal bleeding ✔✔B. Spinal injury The medical condition ketoacidosis refers to: A. Chronic hypertension B. Acute hypertenison C. Acute hyperglycemia D. Chronic hypoglycemia ✔✔C. Acute hyperglycemia Which characteristic of iodinated contrast agents is defined as the resistance of a liquid to flow? A. Miscibility B. Toxicity C. Viscosity D. Osmolality ✔✔C. Viscosity You receive an order to confirm J-tube placement. What radiographic exam would best show the anatomy of interest? A. KUB/Abdomen B. PA Chest C. Lateral Chest D. Pelvis ✔✔A. KUB/Abdomen A reduction in the normal number of erythrocytes circulating in the blood is called: A. Anemia B. Hyperlipidemia C. Hypoglycemia D. Leukemia ✔✔A. Anemia The suffic "-algia" means: A. Pain B. Bacterial C. Numbing D. Referring to ✔✔A. Pain Which method is the most accurate in obtaining the temperature of a five month old patient? A. Oral B. Rectal C. Axilla D. Temporal ✔✔B. Rectal The term, "Res ipsa loquitur" is used to describe: A. The defendant is wrong B. Let the master respond C. Guilty as charged D. The thing that speaks for itself ✔✔D. The thing that speaks for itself What type of fracture is characterized by separation of the bone into numerous fragments at the midshaft? A. Compound B. Comminuted C. Impacted D. Stellate ✔✔B. Comminuted Which law serves to protect patient data from inappropriate disclosure or use and safeguards patient information systems from unauthorized access? A. Federal Education Right to Privacy Act B. ASRT Care Bill C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act D. Certified Federal Register ✔✔C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act What type of shock could result from a pulmonary embolus? A. Cardiogenic B. Neurogenic C. Anaphylactic D. Hypovolemic ✔✔A. Cardiogenic Which of the following imaging modalities should be used if the results of a radiographic metastatic bone survey are inconclusive? A. Computed tomography B. Arthrography C. MRI D. Nuclear medicine ✔✔D. Nuclear medicine Which of the following situations would be an example of libel? A. Describing the patient condition to assigned radiography student B. Writing a negative comment about the patient in the chart C. Nothing the location of a suspicious bruise in a potential child abuse case D. Discussing the x-ray results of a patient with your co-worker in a hospital cafeteria ✔✔B. Writing a negative comment about the patient in the chart A compound fracture: A. Fractured ends of bones are forced together B. Fractured ends of bone penetrate the skin C. Bone is broken in more than one place D. Bone has been forced out of alignment ✔✔B. Fractured ends of bone penetrate the skin Water soluble contrast media that result in the fewest adverse patient reactions should be: A. Ionic with high osmolality B. Ionic with low osmolality C. Non-ionic with high osmolality D. Non-ionic with low osmolality ✔✔D. Non-ionic with low osmolality Iodine contrast media is made less toxic and more tolerable to the human body by which of the following methods A. removing the iodine content from the molecules B. binding the iodine atoms to ionic molecules C. binding the iodine atoms to a benzene ring The benzene molecule is organic, composed of hydrogen and carbon, and not easily rejected by the human body. By attaching the iodine to the benzene ring, the iodine can be tolerated by the body. D. breaking the molecule into individual ions ✔✔C. binding the iodine atoms to a benzene ring _____ is the only type of contrast media that is safe for IV injection. A. nonionic iodine B. ionic iodine C. benzene iodine D. water-soluble iodine ✔✔D. water-soluble iodine Which type of iodine based contrast media is less likely to cause adverse reactions when injected into a patient's bloodstream? A. ionic B. non-ionic ✔✔B. non-ionic The main difference between ionic and non-ionic iodine contrast media is: A. non-ionic solutions contain molecules that do not break apart upon injection B. non-ionic solutions do not contain iodine C. non-ionic solutions are considered more toxic to the body D. non-ionic solutions are not water-soluble ✔✔A. non-ionic solutions contain molecules that do not break apart upon injection Comparing ionic and non-ionic iodine contrast media, which one is considered to have higher osmolarity? A. ionic B. non-ionic ✔✔A. ionic Which type of iodine contrast media is closer to the osmolarity of human blood? A. ionic B. non-ionic ✔✔B. non-ionic The term osmolarity refers to: A. how a substance dissolves in water B. the concentration of particles in a solution C. whether a molecule separates into ions in a solution D. the thickness of a liquid ✔✔B. the concentration of particles in a solution Non-ionic iodine contrast media will be less toxic to the body than ionic solutions due to: A. its lower osmolarity B. its stable chemical form that does not break apart into ions C. its osmolarity that is closer to that of human blood D. all of the above ✔✔D. all of the above Which of the following are desired characteristics of iodine contrast media to make it appropriate for injection and to decrease the likelihood of adverse reactions? 1. low osmolarity 2. water-soluble 3. ionic form A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3 ✔✔B. 1 and 2 only Iodine contrast media that is described as non-ionic is also associated with lower osmolarity. A. true B. false ✔✔A. true Recommendations for dietary restrictions prior to an exam involving injection of iodine contrast media include which of the following? A. no restrictions are recommended B. NPO after midnight prior to the day of the exam C. NPO for one hour prior to the exam D. increased hydration the day before and NPO for one hour prior to the exam ✔✔D. increased hydration the day before and NPO for one hour prior to the exam Increased hydration prior to an injection of iodine contrast media is recommended for what reason? A. to decrease the chance of nausea and vomiting B. to ease the burden on the kidneys when the contrast media is filtered through the kidneys C. to lessen the chance of an anaphylactic response to the iodine D. to decrease the concentration of the contrast media after it is injected ✔✔B. to ease the burden on the kidneys when the contrast media is filtered through the kidneys Which of the following lab tests are important for evaluation of renal function prior to injection of iodine contrast media? 1. Creatinine 2. GFR 3. BUN 4. CBC A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 4 only C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ✔✔C. 1, 2, and 3 The normal range for BUN is: A. 5 - 10 mg/dl B. 7 - 21 mg/dl C. 20 - 35 mg/dl D. 30 - 50 mg/dl ✔✔B. 7 - 21 mg/dl _____ is a byproduct of the metabolic activity in the muscles. A. urea B. creatinine C. iodine D. nitrogen ✔✔B. creatinine The normal range for creatinine levels in a health adult is: A. .7 - 1.5 mg/dl B. 1.5 - 3.0 mg/dl C. 7.0 - 20.5 mg/dl D. 20.0 - 35.0 mg/dl ✔✔A. .7 - 1.5 mg/dl Which of the following is the best description of the GFR measurement? A. measurement of how much waste is filtered by the kidneys B. measurement of how much waste is left in the bloodstream C. estimate of the rate at which waste is filtered from the blood D. estimate of how long it will take for contrast media to be filtered from the blood ✔✔C. estimate of the rate at which waste is filtered from the blood What is the normal GFR rate for an adult? A. 7 - 15 B. 20 - 35 C. 50 - 90 D. 90 - 120 ✔✔D. 90 - 120 Premedication is required for which type of patient undergoing IV injection of contrast media? A. patient with diabetes B. patient with elevated BUN or creatinine C. patient with known allergy to iodine D. patient with chronic or acute renal failure ✔✔C. patient with known allergy to iodine What drugs are commonly used as premedication to prevent allergic reactions to IV contrast in a patient with known allergy? A. antihistamines and corticosteroids B. antihistamines and antibiotics C. corticosteroids and antibiotics D. analgesics and anti-inflammatories ✔✔A. antihistamines and corticosteroids During an IV bolus injection of contrast media, the injection of contrast media into the tissues surrounding the vessel is called: A. absorption B. resorption C. extravasation D. infiltration ✔✔C. extravasation During an IV injection of contrast media, your patient complains of tightness and burning in the area of the injection. What should your immediate response be? A. place a cold compress on the area and continue the injection B. discontinue the injection and check for signs of extravasation C. make sure you are injecting into the vein and if so, continue the injection D. stop the injection and pull back onto the plunger of the syringe to remove what has been injected ✔✔B. discontinue the injection and check for signs of extravasation What are recommended treatments if your patient has experienced extravasation of IV contrast media? 1. elevation of the affected area 2. cold or hot compresses 3. administration of an antihistamine A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3 ✔✔B. 1 and 2 only The most common reaction to iodinated contrast media is: A. hives B. itching C. vomiting D. edema ✔✔A. hives Immediately after Mr. Miller receives an IV injection of iodinated contrast media, he complains of pruritis and you observe that he has two hives on his neck. What should your response to this situation be? A. no response is necessary since these are signs of a mild reaction B. monitor Mr. Miller's vital signs and be alert for further reactions for at least 20 - 30 minutes C. recognize a moderate reaction and make sure that IV access is maintained D. recognize the onset of a severe reaction and alert the radiologist immediately ✔✔B. monitor Mr. Miller's vital signs and be alert for further reactions for at least 20 - 30 minutes Which of the following represents a moderate reaction to iodinated contrast media? A. scattered hives B. rhinorrhea C. pruritis D. persistent vomiting ✔✔D. persistent vomiting Which of the following drugs would most likely be administered to a patient experiencing an allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media? A. diphenhydramine B. naproxen C. cephalexin D. hydromorphone ✔✔A. diphenhydramine Which of the following drugs would most likely be used as emergency treatment for a severe allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media? A. Benadryl B. diazepam C. epinephrine D. atropine ✔✔C. epinephrine As you progress with an IV injection of iodinated contrast media, your patient states she is having trouble breathing, and she is visibly struggling to breathe. What should your immediate reaction be? A. call a code B. stop the injection C. take her vital signs D. prepare emergency medications ✔✔B. stop the injection As the radiographer, you are performing an IVP exam on Mrs. Jefferson. During your conversations and history-taking with her, she seems alert and able to answer your questions. Why is it important to continue asking Mrs. Jefferson questions as you inject IV contrast media? A. so that she is aware of what you are doing during the exam B. to ensure that she is satisfied with her experience C. to monitor her mental status since changes can be associated with severe reactions D. to make sure your history is complete ✔✔C. to monitor her mental status since changes can be associated with severe reactions A decrease in renal function following administration of IV contrast media is called: A. renal failure B. nephrotoxicity C. nephrolithiasis D. iodine hypersensitivity ✔✔B. nephrotoxicity Risk factor for nephrotoxicity include which of the following? 1. elevated BUN or creatinine 2. diabetes 3. heart disease A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 ✔✔D. 1, 2, and 3 Which of the following are characteristics of barium sulfate? 1. it is water-soluble 2. it has a high atomic number 3. it is a suspension A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 ✔✔C. 2 and 3 only Which of the following statements about barium sulfate contrast media is true? A. it is water-soluble and can be used as IV injection B. it attenuates radiation more than normal body tissues C. it dissolves in solution D. it has an atomic number similar to that of body tissues ✔✔B. it attenuates radiation more than normal body tissues Barium sulfate is used almost exclusively for what type of x-ray examinations? A. urinary system B. gastro-intestinal system C. vascular system D. enteral system ✔✔B. gastro-intestinal system Which of the following methods for introduction of contrast media into the body would be safe for barium sulfate? A. intrathecal B. parenteral C. intravenous D. enteral ✔✔D. enteral As the radiographer for a patient having an Upper GI exam, you notice that the patient history states that there is a possibility of a bowel perforation. Which of the following situations would most likely be a result of this information? A. you would perform the exam as usual with no modifications B. you would perform the exam with a less toxic form of barium sulfate C. you would perform the exam with an iodine-based contrast media for the GI tract D. you would not perform the exam at all since no contrast media could be used. ✔✔C. you would perform the exam with an iodine-based contrast media for the GI tract For which of the following exams would barium sulfate be the contrast media of choice? A. small bowel B. intravenous pyelogram C. myelogram D. arthrogram ✔✔A. small bowel Barium sulfate contrast media is categorized as a suspension. Because of this fact, the radiographer must follow which practice regarding the use of it? A. it must be kept chilled to keep the particles suspended in the liquid B. it must be mixed with distilled water to evenly distribute the particles C. it has very short shelf-life since the particles will not dissolve in the liquid D. it must be shaken or mixed prior to use to redistribute the particles within the solution ✔✔D. it must be shaken or mixed prior to use to redistribute the particles within the solution What is the atomic number of barium? A. 6 B. 15 C. 26 D. 56 ✔✔D. 56 What is the main reason that barium is combined with a sulfate molecule for use as a contrast media? A. it lessens the toxicity of barium by forming a non water-soluble solution B. it increases the attenuation characteristics of the barium C. it improves the taste of barium for drinkable forms D. it increases the water-solubility of the barium so that it is less toxic ✔✔A. it lessens the toxicity of barium by forming a non water-soluble solution Which of the following methods of introducing contrast media into the body is considered an enteral method? A. intravenous B. intrathecal C. oral D. intra-articular ✔✔C. oral Which method of sterilization is the most effective and convenient for items that can withstand high temperature gas steam chemicals dry heat ✔✔Steam What causes positive contrast material to produce an area of reduced image density? scatter of primary photons absorption of primary photons scatter of secondary photons absorption of secondary photons ✔✔absorption of primary photons What type of adverse reaction is characterized by an exaggerated response to a substance which had previously sensitized the organism? hypotension anaphylactic reaction pitressin reaction generalized convulsion ✔✔anaphylactic reaction Which contrast medium is indicated for a gastrointestinal procedure when a perforation of the bowel is possible? barium iodine air ✔✔Iodine Which of the following is a recommended sequence of contrast media studies? upper GI, lower GI, urinary biliary biliary, urinary, lowerGI, upper GI urinary, biliary, lowerGI, upper GI biliary, urinary, upper GI, lower GI ✔✔urinary, biliary, lowerGI, upper GI Why should geriatric patients be advised to increase fluid intake following a barium enema examination? Select all that are correct. barium absorbs fluid from the bowel barium may solidify into an impaction barium becomes toxic if not flushed from the bowel within 48 hours barium is inert, so it will not become toxic ✔✔barium absorbs fluid from the bowel barium may solidify into an impaction Within what period of time do most reactions to iodinated contrast media occur? 1 to 10 minutes 10 - 20 minutes 30 - 60 minutes 1 to 2 hours ✔✔1 to 10 minutes What is a nosocomial infection? an infection acquired by a patient while in a health-care institution. an infection of the upper nasal passages an infection of the inferior nasal conchae a virulent microorganism that resists sterilization ✔✔an infection acquired by a patient while in a health-care institution. What is intended by the abbreviation npo? with without nothing by mouth as needed ✔✔nothing by mouth What is the most common method of the spread of microorganisms? touching with hands brushing with clothing sneezing and coughing normal breathing ✔✔touching with hands What is the proper method of painting the skin with antiseptic as part of surgical skin preparation? begin at the outside of the area and move in a circular motion toward the center begin at the center of the area and move in a circular motion toward the outside. begin at one corner and move in a linear pattern begin at one corner and move in a linear pattern, followed by a second linear pattern perpendicular to the first. ✔✔begin at the center of the area and move in a circular motion toward the outside. When putting on sterile gloves the only part of the gloves that you can touch with bare hands is the: inner surface of the folded cuff (which will be the inside of the glove when it is on completely) the tips of the fingers surface of the glove under the folded cuff (which will be the outside surface of the glove when it is on completely) you can't touch them anywhere with bare hands ✔✔inner surface of the folded cuff (which will be the inside of the glove when it is on completely) Which of the following are recommended when discarding needles? Select all that are correct. never recap a needle before discarding break all needles to prevent reclamation from trash consider all needles to be contaminated disconnect needles from syringes before discarding ✔✔never recap a needle before discarding consider all needles to be contaminated Iodine is effective as contrast media because: it is not water soluble it has a higher atomic number than normal body tissues it is a stable element it is non-ionizing ✔✔it has a higher atomic number than normal body tissues Techniques designed to reduce the numbers of infectious agents, which, in turn, decreases the probability of infection are called: sterilization surgical asepsis medical asepsis decontamination ✔✔medical asepsis What parts of a gown are considered sterile? 1. sleeves 2. front from the waist up 3. back below the waist 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3 ✔✔1 and 2 only Which of the following is an example of a pathology that requires droplet precautions? tuberculosis MRSA hepatitis A influenza ✔✔influenza Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name? Ibuprofen Tylenol Benadryl Vicodin ✔✔Ibuprofen A ________ is a predictable action or effect of a drug other than that desired. allergic response side effect synergistic effect therapeutic effect ✔✔side effect Heparin is an example of a _____ drug, one that inhibits the clotting mechanism of the blood. anesthetic antihistamine anticoagulant vasodilator ✔✔anticoagulant ______ is an antagonist drug that may be given in cases of an overdose of a/an opioid. Percocet Ativan Rocephin Narcan ✔✔Narcan A common medication that is classified as both a tranquilizer and an anticonvulsant is: Ativan Valium diazepam Atropine ✔✔Ativan Valium Diazepam ______ are drugs with a high potential for abuse and are therefore kept in locked containers, and are monitored by the US DEA. analgesics radioisotopes antipyretics controlled substances ✔✔controlled substances A ____ consists of written directions for a specific medication or procedure, signed by a physician, and used only under the specific conditions stated in the order/policy. prescription standing order verbal order implied order ✔✔Standing Order A parenteral route of drug administration refers to: administration directly into the GI tract via oral or rectal sites application of medication to the surface of the skin or mucous membranes administration of medication directly through the mucosal membranes of the oral cavity injection directly into the body ✔✔injection directly into the body An intrathecal injection would be utilized during which of the following exams? IVP arthrogram myelogram angiogram ✔✔myelogram Which of the following statements is correct concerning the bore of a needle? a larger bore diameter is associated with a lower gauge a larger bore diameter is associated with a higher gauge a smaller bore can deliver medication faster an 18 gauge needle would have a smaller bore than a 23 gauge needle ✔✔a larger bore diameter is associated with a lower gauge Leakage of IV fluid into the surrounding tissues is termed: infiltration hematoma hydrostatic pressure aspiration ✔✔infiltration Diphenhydramine is classified as a/an: analgesic anticholinergic ACE inhibitor antihistamine ✔✔antihistamine [Show More]

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