MFT Practice Set Exam Bank | Marital and Family Therapy Exam Test Bank, Answered

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MFT Practice Set Exam Bank | Marital and Family Therapy Exam Test Bank, Answered-A young woman comes to therapy alone. She has been dating a man for almost a year and they recently began having sexual... relations. Although the woman is sexually aroused during intercourse, she is unable to achieve orgasm through either intercourse or clitoral stimulation. The woman says that, while this is her first experience with intercourse, she has masturbated to orgasm several times. In treating the woman a therapist using Masters and Johnson's approach to sex therapy is most likely to recommend that the woman use which of the following techniques? Select one: a. The bridge technique b. The stop-start technique c. Sensate focus d. The squeeze technique - Although many questions that ask you to choose an intervention are "best answer" questions, this is a "one-correct-answer" question because Masters and Johnson suggest specific procedures for treating each sexual dysfunction.Answer C is correct: In treating secondary Orgasmic Disorder, Masters and Johnson emphasize the sexual value system and recommend giving the couple permission to be sexual, using sensate focus with constant communication of likes and dislikes to the partner, genital play, penile containment without thrusting, and, finally, coitus.Answer A is incorrect: Be careful: this is associated with Kaplan's treatment for secondary Orgasmic Disorder.Answer B is incorrect: This is associated with Kaplan's treatment for Premature Ejaculation.Answer D is incorrect: This technique is associated with Masters and Johnson, but is used to treat male sexual dysfunction, such as Premature Ejaculation. The correct answer is: Sensate focus Based on the initial evaluation of a 15-year-old boy, a clinician believes the nature and number of his symptoms suggest a DSM-5 diagnosis of Attention-Deficit or Hyperactivity Disorder, predominantly inattentive presentation. Before assigning the diagnosis, the clinician will want to confirm that some symptoms were present before the boy was _____ years of age and that he exhibits them in at least _____ settings. Select one: a. 7; 2 b. 12; 2 c. 6; 3 d. 10; 3 - Answer B is correct: For a diagnosis of ADHD, the DSM-5 requires that "several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms were present prior to age 12" (p. 60) and that symptoms are present in at least two settings. Answer A is incorrect: This answer describes the DSM-IV-TR requirements for the diagnosis. The correct answer is: 12; 2 Bipolar I Disorder is distinguished from Bipolar II Disorder by the presence of which kind of episode? Select one: a. Manic episode b. Psychotic episode c. Mixed episode d. Depressed episode - This is another straightforward recall question about diagnosis.Answer A is correct: The presence of a manic episode rules out Bipolar II Disorder. The criteria for diagnosing Bipolar I Disorder include one or more manic episodes.Answer B is incorrect: With psychotic features is a specifier for Bipolar I Disorder, but psychotic episodes are not one of the types of episodes associated with the Bipolar Disorders. The correct answer is: Manic episode Charles and Martha bring their two children to therapy. The parents are concerned with how disrespectful the youngest child is to the mother. Whenever she tries to discipline him, he engages in name-calling and has threatened violence. The therapist asks the mother to recall a recent event that occurred and notes that the husband rolls his eyes and looks away as she begins to speak. When the therapist calls attention to the husband's response, the youngest child immediately lashes out at his mother. A structural therapist would view this interaction as: Select one: a. Conflict-detouring. b. Reciprocal inhibition. c. Equifinality. d. Nonsummativity. - Answer A is correct: Conflict-detouring occurs when conflict from one subsystem is detoured to another subsystem. This is often what is occurring in situations where there is a family scapegoat. Reciprocal inhibition is a Behavioral Family therapy term that describes the pairing of responses that are incompatible with anxiety to the previously anxiety-producing stimuli (e.g. systematic desensitization) (B). Equifinality means that the same results may arise from different origins. For example, an inhibited child may develop from experiences of physical abuse or emotional abuse (C). Nonsummativity is the concept that a system cannot by analyzed by isolated segments: "The whole is greater than the sum of its parts" (D). The correct answer is: Conflict-detouring. Cindy and Tom Thomas come to counseling with their 6-year-old son, Michael, who was adopted from a Romanian orphanage three years ago. Michael has been slow to learn English, is behind at school, and often doesn't seem focused or socially engaged. Cindy and Tom tell you they often fight about Michael and Tom says, "I think that Cindy spoils him and now he doesn't want to do anything himself." Your next step would be to: Select one: a. Refer Michael for psychological and psychiatric testing. b. Refer Cindy and Tom to a parenting class. c. Normalize Michael's cultural adjustment process. d. Get a release to speak with his teacher. - Answer A is correct: It is important to refer Michael for a psychological and psychiatric evaluation. Because Michael's prenatal and first three years of care are questionable, it cannot be assumed that his problems are acculturation issues or weak parenting. In recent years there have been many couples who have been stunned to find children who were adopted from abroad were not properly cared for during their formative years and permanent cognitive deficits have been the result. Russian and Romanian adoptions have been under specific scrutiny in this regard. Referring Cindy and Tom to a parenting class would not address any possible existing organic or psychological problems. Because Michael's prenatal and first three years of care are questionable, it cannot be assumed that his problems are strictly the result of trial and error parenting attempts (B). Helping to normalize Michael's bicultural adjustment for his parents is not enough in this case (C). Getting a release to speak with Michael's teacher might be somewhat helpful, but it doesn't address the possible organic problems this child may be having as a result of prenatal or early neglect or abuse (D). The correct answer is: Refer Michael for psychological and psychiatric testing. Clementine, an 18-year-old high school senior, is referred for therapy by her physician. She went to see her doctor due to constipation and menstrual irregularity. Though slightly underweight, Clementine talks excessively about being fat and unattractive. When prompted by the MFT, she admits to thinking that food is a "tyrant" in her life. She also discloses that she sometimes "gorges on food" to a point where she feels sick and throws up, but is quick to add that she does this no more than a couple of times a week. Based on this information, the most likely diagnosis for Clementi [Show More]

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