*NURSING > QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > RCIS 2023 Exam. Questionbank.Top Questions and answers, 100% Accurate. (All)

RCIS 2023 Exam. Questionbank.Top Questions and answers, 100% Accurate.

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RCIS 2023 Exam. Questionbank.Top Questions and answers, 100% Accurate. What is the formula for calculating cardiac output? A. CO= PA-1 SVC B. CO= AO x PA C. CO= HR x SV - ✔✔-C. CO= HR x SV ... Stroke volume is... A. Related to preload B. Related to afterload C. The same as ejection fraction - ✔✔-A. Related to preload Preload is most impacted by... A. Mean arterial pressure B. Increased filling volumes C. Ejection fraction - ✔✔-B. Increased filling volumes A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate A. Increased afterload B. Decreased afterload C. Decreased preload - ✔✔-A. Increased afterload Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by... A. Blood viscosity B. BMI C. Length of the vessel D. Radius of the vessel - ✔✔-D. Radius of the vessel The formula for BP is... A. BP= SV x SVR B. BP= CO x SVR C. BP= HR x SVR - ✔✔-B. BP= CO x SVR What component of a PCWP indicates Mitral Insufficiency A. A wave B. C wave C. P wave D. V wave - ✔✔-D. V wave An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology A. LV infarct B. Aortic stenosis C. RV infarct D. Mitral regurgitation - ✔✔-C. RV infarct If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment A. Decreased exercise tolerance B. Decreased O2 sat C. Increased O2 sat D. JVD - ✔✔-D. JVD What is the most common cause of Pulmonic stenosis A. Aging B. Congenital C. Cardiomyopathy D. Mitral regurgitation - ✔✔-B. Congenital The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan A. 15cm B. 30cm C. 45cm D. 5cm - ✔✔-B. 30cm When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the______ and the temperature is measured in the _______ A. LA, AO B. RV, PCWP C. RA, PA D. RA, LA - ✔✔-C. RA, PA Equalization of RVEDP and LVEDP are found in A. Tamponade B. Restrictive pericarditis C. Acute MI D. LV MI - ✔✔-B. Restrictive pericarditis Signs of right sided heart failure include A. Decreased O2 sat B. SOB C. JVD D. Pulmonary embolism - ✔✔-C. JVD Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present? SVC sat = 67% IVC sat = 71% RA sat = 85% PA sat = 85% LA sat = 98% LV sat = 98% RV sat = 85% AO sat = 98% A. R to L ASD B. L to R ASD C. L to R VSD D. It is all normal, there is not shunt - ✔✔-B. L to R ASD What type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called A. Ostium primium B. Sinus venosus C. Ostium secundum - ✔✔-C. Ostium secundum What is the Flamm's equation A. 3(svc) + 1(ivc)/4 B. 6(svc) + 2(ivc)/2 C. 3(pa) + 2(ao)/4 - ✔✔-A. 3(svc) +1(ivc)/4 The formula used to calculate MAP is A. HR x SV/SVR B. Mean AO-mean RA C. 1 (systolic) + 2 (diastolic)/3 - ✔✔-C. 1(systolic) + 2(diastolic)/3 What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot A. ASD, VSD, LVH, RVH B. VVH, PS, Over riding aorta, RVH C. Over riding aorta, RVH, LVH, ASD D. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSD - ✔✔-D. Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSD Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises A. Transposistion of the great vessels B. Tricuspid atresia C. Tetralogy of fallot D. Truncas arteriosus - ✔✔-D. Truncas arteriosus Pulsus paradoxus is a sign of A. Constrictive percarditis B. Cardiomyopathy C. Cardiac tamponade D. COPD - ✔✔-C. Cardiac tamponade What does RAD stand for A. Radiation absorbed dose B. Radiation attenuated date C. Radiation attributable distance - ✔✔-A. Radiation absorbed dose Which component of the x-ray system converts light rays to images A. Image intensifier B. X-ray tube C. Photon tube D. Anode - ✔✔-A. Image intensifier What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually A. 5 RAD B. 5 Currie C. 0.5 REM D. 5 REM - ✔✔-D. REM Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead A. 1.0 B. 0.25 C. 0.5 - ✔✔-C. 0.5 What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the x-ray source A. 3ft B. 6ft C. 10ft D. 15ft - ✔✔-B. 6ft In an x-ray tube the A. Cathode is positive and the anode is negative B. Cathode is negative and anode is positive C. The charges alternate depending on the heat generated - ✔✔-B. Cathode is negative and anode is positive Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation A. AP B. LAO cranial C. Lateral D. RAO with cranial 30 - ✔✔-C. Lateral What converts x-rays into an image A. Filament B. Image intensifier C. X-ray tube D. Kvp - ✔✔-B. Image intensifier The contrast that is best for a patient is A. Low osmolality B. High osmolality C. Renografin - ✔✔-A. Low osmolality Radiolucent means A. X-rays are not permitted to pass through B. X-rays are partially deflected C. X-rays are permitted to pass through - ✔✔-C. X-rays are permitted to pass through Radiopaque means A. X-rays are permitted to pass through B. X-rays are partially deflected C. X-rays are randomly deflected - ✔✔-B. X-rays are partially deflected ReoPro works on A. Fibrin B. Prothrombin C. Antithrombin D. IIb/IIIa receptors - ✔✔-D. IIb/IIIa receptors Heparin potentiates the action of A. Antithrombin B. Factor III C. Factor IX D. Factor VIII - ✔✔-A. Antithrombin Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of A. Pro thrombin B. Tissue factor C. Platelets D. Thrombin - ✔✔-D. Thrombin There are _____ known pathways to imitate the clotting cascade A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4 - ✔✔-A. 2 Aspirin inhibits the action of A. Von willebrand factor B. Factor VII C. Thrombin D. Arachidonic acid - ✔✔-D. Arachidonic acid Which agent is not an antiplatelet A. ASA B. Heparin C. Plavix D. ReoPro - ✔✔-B. Heparin If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give A. Lasix B. Fluids to hydrate C. Ionic contrast - ✔✔-B. Fluids to hydrate If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given A. Protamine B. Lasix C. Heparin - ✔✔-A. Protamine Which medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT A. NTG B. Lidocaine C. Dopamine D. Adenosine - ✔✔-D. Adenosine If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized A. True B. False - ✔✔-A. True Lidocaine converts from 2GM in 500cc to A. 8gm in 1cc B. 400mg in 250cc C. 4mg in 1cc - ✔✔-C. 4mg in 1cc Dopamine concentration 1600mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concentration of A. 200mg in 250cc B. 400mg in 250cc C. 100mg in 250cc - ✔✔-B. 400mg in 250cc The best short acting medication/anxietolytic to sedate a patient is A. Fentanyl B. Valium C. Versed/Midazolam - ✔✔-C. Versed/Midazolam The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is A. Verapamil B. NTG C. Amiodarone - ✔✔-B. NTG Amiodarone is used to treat A. Atrial arrhythmias only B. Ventricular arrhythmias only C. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias - ✔✔-C. Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. NTG D. Lidocaine - ✔✔-C. NTG Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _____ post contrast administration A. Renal failure B. Infarct C. Pulmonary embolism D. Systemic infection - ✔✔-A. Renal failure Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal A. 1st degree block B. Wenchebach C. Mobitz 2 - ✔✔-C. Mobitz 2 The Impella catheter most likely resembles A. JR4 B. Amplatz C. Pigtail D. IMA - ✔✔-C. Pigtail When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a rate of rise A. It controls the total volume injected B. It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopy C. It adjusts the PSI for the correct catheter size - ✔✔-B. It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopy An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect A. Inferior wall B. Lateral wall C. Apical wall - ✔✔-A. Inferior wall An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded A. RCA B. LAD C. Cx - ✔✔-C. Cx How do you test the defibrillator A. Hold the paddles in the air and discharge B. Discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load) C. Never test, call Biomed - ✔✔-B. Discharge into the defibrillator What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave A. They are easily cardioverted to a sinus rhythm B. You could put them into Vfib C. You could make them hypertensive - ✔✔-B. You could put them into Vfib In 1st degree heart block, where is the conduction delay A. AV node B. SV node C. Bundle of His D. In the RA - ✔✔-A. AV node What is the normal PR interval A. .08-.12 B. >.20 C. .12-.20 - ✔✔-C. .12-.20 If a patient is attached to the monitor, V tach is the rhythm, the patient has no pulse and is not responding, what should you do A. Synchronized cardioversion B. Unsynchronized cardioversion C. Call the MD before taking action D. Check a BP - ✔✔-B. Unsynchronized cardioversion If a patient is on a monitor in SVT, SBP is 70, the patient is diaphoretic, dusky and SOB. What should you do A. Call the MD before taking action B. Do immediate unsynchronized cardioversion C. Do immediate synchronized cardioversion D. Give Adenosine 6mg - ✔✔-C. Do immediate synchronized cardioversion A common complication of placing a pacing electrode/wire is A. MI B. Perforation/Pericardial effusion/Tamponade C. Cardiac arrest - ✔✔-B. Perforation/pericardial effusion/tamponade A pacing generator that paces in both chambers, senses in the ventricle, and inhibits QRS complexes is a A. DDI B. DVI C. AAI - ✔✔-B. DVI A pacing generator that paces both chambers, senses in both chambers, and triggers or inhibits is a A. DDI B. DDD C. AAI - ✔✔-B. DDD A pacing generator that paces in the atria, senses in the atria, and inhibits pacing is a A. AAI B. AAO C. DDD - ✔✔-A. AAI What is the formula for calculating SVR A. Mean AO- Mean RA/CO B. Mean PA- Mean PCWP/CO C. EDV- ESV/EDV - ✔✔-A. Mean AO- Mean RA/CO Which cardiac output would be most accurate in a patient with tricuspid regurgitation A. Thermals B. LVMF C. FICK - ✔✔-C. FICK Which right heart pressure best reflects LV preload A. PA systolic pressure B. PCWP C. RA pressure - ✔✔-B. PCWP Which balloon is used for valvuloplasty A. ICE balloon B. Tran-septal balloon C. Inoue D. Self expanding - ✔✔-C. Inoue Aortic stenosis demonstrates a pressure that is elevated in the left ventricle and a pressure that is lower in the A. Left atrium B. Aortic arch C. Pulmonary artery D. RV - ✔✔-B. Aortic arch Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following data: Arterial O2 sat-98% Pulmonary artery O2 sat-74% RV O2 sat-71% Hgb-14.7 PCWP-12 O2 consumption- 250ml/min Constant-1.36 RA- 5 Mean gradient- 70 A. 4.8L/min B. 5.2L/min C. 6.0L/min D. Not enough information collected - ✔✔-B. 5.2L/min Calculate the stroke volume on this patient ESV- 35 EDV-85 BP-120/74 EF-40% HR-72 A. 50cc B. 45cc C. 20cc D. Not enough information given - ✔✔-A. 50cc Calculate an aortic valve area with the following information HR-85 Mean gradient- 64 CO- 4.2L/min BP- 136/74 SEP-.37 A. .52cm2 B. .75cm2 C. .37cm2 D. Not enough information given - ✔✔-C. .37cm2 Calculate the regurgitant fraction of a patient who has a thermal CO of 4.1L/min and an angiographic CO of 5.4L/min A. 24% B. 34% C. 15% D. 41% - ✔✔-A. 24% This patient has a cardiac output of 5.2 L/min. Calculate the SVR of this patient with the following data Mean PA- 24 Mean RA- 5 Mean PCPW- 15 Mean AO- 95 A. 1411 dynes/sec/cm-5 B. 800 dynes/sec/cm-5 C. 1010 dynes/sec/cm-5 D. Not enough information given - ✔✔-A. 1411 dynes/sec/cm-5 If a patient has a pulsatile mass below the sheath site, and a bruit is present, what should be suspected A. Hematoma B. Aortic dissection C. Thrombus D. Pseudoaneurysm - ✔✔-D. Pseudoaneurysm An abdominal aortic pulsation greater than 3.0cm can be a finding for what A. Normal finding B. Anomalous renal artery C. Increased BMI D. Aortic aneurysm - ✔✔-D. Aortic aneurysm Back pain not relieved with NTG, morphine or oxygen and not associated with EKG changes can indicate A. PVD B. Anomalous renal artery C. Increased BMI D. Aortic aneurysm - ✔✔-C. Increased BMI Which stent is self expanding A. Cypher B. Wall stent C. Vision - ✔✔-B. Wall stent A catheter has a diameter of 2.66mm. What French size is it A. 7Fr B. 6Fr C. 5Fr D. 8Fr - ✔✔-D. 8Fr In relation to a coronary lesion where should the wire not be placed A. As distal as possible B. In the nearest side branch C. In a distal side branch D. Proximal to the lesion E. All of the above - ✔✔-E. All of the above Which lesion is best addressed with a Rotoblator A. Calcified B. Soft thrombus C. New dissection D. Very small vessels - ✔✔-A. Calcified Which catheter should be used to cannulate an LAD with a high take off A. JL4 B. Multipurpose C. Amplatz - ✔✔-C. Amplatz Landmarks for an internal jugular approach include the A. Head of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the clavicular head B. Superior and inferior carotid pulsations C. 2cm proximal to the xyphoid process - ✔✔-A. Head of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the clavicular head When performing a myocardial biopsy where are the tissue samples taken from A. LV B. RV C. LA D. Left atrial appendage - ✔✔-B. RV Hypokinetic means A. No movement at all B. Decreased movement C. Hyper or increased movement D. Disorganized movement - ✔✔-B. Decreased movement In the formula BP=HR x SV x SVR, Dobutamine acts as an _____, to _____ by increasing _____ A. Chronotrope, decrease stroke volume, contractility B. Chronotrope, increase stroke volume, contractility C. Inotrope, increase stroke volume, contractility - ✔✔-C. Inotrope, increase stroke volume, contractility Which of the following are Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBS) A. Lisinopril B. Losartan C. Metoprolol D. Valsartan - ✔✔-B. Losartan D. Valsartan NTG works to decrease preload when given during an MI by dilating A. Peripheral arteries B. Arterioles C. Veins D. Coronary arteries - ✔✔-C. Veins Low does Dopamine, 1-5mcg/kg/min A. Improves renal function and urine output B. Increases heart rate C. Increases systolic blood pressure D. Increases SV - ✔✔-A. Improves renal function and urine output If the patient complains of pain down the leg when attempting to cannulate the right femoral artery, which way do you move the needle A. Lateral B. Medial C. Anterior D. Medial and superior - ✔✔-B. Medial Coronary arteries perfuse best during A. Systole B. When the systolic blood pressure is less than 140mmHg C. Diastole D. Equally well during systole and diastole - ✔✔-C. Diastole What is the purpose of the IABP A. Increased coronary perfusion, decrease afterload B. Increased coronary perfusion, decrease preload C. Raise systolic blood pressure D. Increase renal perfusion - ✔✔-A. Increased coronary perfusion, decrease afterload An IMA catheter most nearly resembles a A. AR1 B. JR4 C. Multipurpose D. Renal catheter - ✔✔-B. JR4 What is the recommended rate of burr rotation when using a Rotablador A. 50,000-100,000 B. 100,000-150,000 C. 160,000-210,000 D. 100,000-105,000 - ✔✔-C. 160,000-210,000 Overtightening of the tuohy borst will A. Impinge the wire B. Prevent balloon inflation or deflation C. Crimp the guide D. Is not an issue - ✔✔-B. Prevent balloon inflation or deflation Which device employs the use of sterile heparinized saline to evacuate thrombus A. Pressure B. IVUS C. IABP D. Angiojet - ✔✔-D. Angiojet The best device for management of an acute thrombus in a vessel is A. Rotoblador B. Stent C. Angiojet D. Laser - ✔✔-C. Angiojet What are the signs and symptoms of a retroperitoneal bleed A. Flank pain, elevated blood pressure, bradycardia, drop in Hgb and Hct B. Back pain, elevated blood pressure, tachycardia, drop in Hgb and Hct C. Back or flank pain, drop in blood pressure, bradycardia, drop in Hgb and Hct D. Back or flank pain, drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, drop in Hgb and Hct - ✔✔-D. Back or flank pain, drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, drop in Hgb and Hct Calcified lesions are best managed with which device A. Perfusion balloon B. Stent C. Cutting/scoring balloon D. None of the above - ✔✔-C. Cutting/scoring balloo [Show More]

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