ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 From: ATI TEAS Secrets Study Guide: TEAS 6 Complete Study Manual, Full-Length Practice Tests, Review Video Tutorials for the Test of Essential Academic Skills, Sixth Edit ion... 1. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition for the underlined word in the following sentence? Adelaide attempted to assuage her guilt over the piece of cheesecake by limiting herself to salads the following day. a. increase b. support c. appease d. conceal 2. Which of the following would best support the argument that people cause global climate change? a. The average global temperature has increased 1.5 degrees Fahrenheit since 1880. b. Common greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide and water vapor. c. Most of the greenhouse gases today come from burning things like coal and other fossil fuels for energy. d. The average person breathes out about 1.0 kg of carbon dioxide every day, while the average cow produces about 80 kg of methane. The next three questions are based on the following information. The Dewey Decimal Classes 000 Computer science, information, and general works 100 Philosophy and psychology 200 Religion 300 Social sciences 400 Languages 500 Science and mathematics 600 Technical and applied science 700 Arts and recreation 800 Literature 900 History, geography, and biography 3. Lise is doing a research project on the various psychological theories that Sigmund Freud developed and on the modern response to those theories. She is not sure where to begin, so she consults the chart of Dewey Decimal Classes. To which section of the library should she go to begin looking for research material? a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 900 ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 4. During her research, Lise discovers that Freud’s theory of the Oedipal complex was based on ancient Greek mythology that was made famous by Sophocles’ play Oedipus Rex. To which section of the library should she go if she is interested in reading the play? a. 300 b. 400 c. 800 d. 900 5. Also during her research, Lise learns about Freud’s Jewish background, and she decides to compare Freud’s theories to traditional Judaism. To which section of the library should she go for more information on this subject? a. 100 b. 200 c. 800 d. 900 6. Which of the answer choices best describes the appropriateness of Mara’s data sample in the following vignette? Mara is conducting a study that will examine the ideas of middle school teachers, concerning the usage of iPhones in the classroom. She interviews all teachers who teach a computer software course. a. The sample is biased because it only includes teachers who are immersed in thetechnology field b. The sample is biased because the sample size is too small c. The sample is biased because the sample size is too large d. The sample is not biased and is appropriate for the study 7. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition for the underlined word in the following sentence? Although his friends believed him to be enjoying a lavish lifestyle in the large family estate he had inherited, Enzo was in reality impecunious. a. Penniless b. Unfortunate c. Emotional d. Commanding 8. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. • Start with the word ESOTERIC • Remove both instances of the letter E from the word • Remove the letter I from the word • Move the letter T from the middle of the word to the end of the word • Remove the letter C from the word What new word has been spelled? a. SECT b. SORT c. SORE d. TORE ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 The next two questions are based on the following chart, which reflects the enrollment and the income for a small community college. 9. Based on the chart, approximately how many students attended the community college in the year 2001? a. 2100 b. 2300 c. 2500 d. 2700 10. In order to offset costs, the college administration decided to increase admission fees. Reviewing the chart above, during which year is it most likely that the college raised the price of admission? a. 2002 b. 2007 c. 2009 d. 2010 11. If the statements listed below are true, which of the answer choices is a logical conclusion? Literacy rates are lower today than they were fifteen years ago. Then, most people learned to read through the use of phonics. Today, whole language programs are favored by many educators. a. whole language is more effective at teaching people to read thanphonics. b. phonics is more effective at teaching people to read than whole language. c. literacy rates will probably continue to decline over the next 15 years. d. the definition of what it means to be literate is much stricter now. ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 The next four questions are based on the following passage. The Bermuda Triangle The area known as the Bermuda Triangle has become such a part of popular culture that it can be difficult to separate fact from fiction. The interest first began when five Navy planes vanished in 1945, officially resulting from “causes or reasons unknown.” The explanations about other accidents in the Triangle range from the scientific to the supernatural. Researchers have never been able to find anything truly mysterious about what happens in the Bermuda Triangle, if there even is a Bermuda Triangle. What is more, one of the biggest challenges in considering the phenomenon is deciding how much area actually represents the Bermuda Triangle. Most consider the Triangle to stretch from Miami out to Puerto Rico and to include the island of Bermuda. Others expand the area to include all of the Caribbean islands and to extend eastward as far as the Azores, which are closer to Europe than they are to North America. The problem with having a larger Bermuda Triangle is that it increases the odds of accidents. There is near-constant travel, by ship and by plane, across the Atlantic, and accidents are expected to occur. In fact, the Bermuda Triangle happens to fall within one of the busiest navigational regions in the world, and the reality of greater activity creates the possibility for more to go wrong. Shipping records suggest that there is not a greater than average loss of vessels within the Bermuda Triangle, and many researchers have argued that the reputation of the Triangle makes any accident seem out of the ordinary. In fact, most accidents fall within the expected margin of error. The increase in ships from East Asia no doubt contributes to an increase in accidents. And as for the story of the Navy planes that disappeared within the Triangle, many researchers now conclude that it was the result of mistakes on the part of the pilots who were flying into storm clouds and simply got lost. 12. Which of the following describes this type of writing? a. Narrative b. Persuasive c. Expository d. Technical 13. Which of the following sentences is most representative of a summary sentence for this passage? a. The problem with having a larger Bermuda Triangle is that it increases the odds of accidents. b. The area that is called the Bermuda Triangle happens to fall within one of the busiest navigational regions in the world, and the reality of greater activity creates the possibility for more to go wrong. c. One of the biggest challenges in considering the phenomenon is deciding how much area actually represents the Bermuda Triangle. d. Researchers have never been able to find anything truly mysterious about what happens in the Bermuda Triangle, if there even is a Bermuda Triangle. ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 14. With which of the following statements would the author most likely agree? a. There is no real mystery about the Bermuda Triangle because most events have reasonable explanations. b. Researchers are wrong to expand the focus of the Triangle to the Azores, because this increases the likelihood of accidents. c. The official statement of “causes or reasons unknown” in the loss of the Navy planes was a deliberate concealment from the Navy. d. Reducing the legends about the mysteries of the Bermuda Triangle will help to reduce the number of reported accidents or shipping losses in that region. 15. Which of the following represents an opinion statement on the part of the author? a. The problem with having a larger Bermuda Triangle is that it increases the odds of accidents. b. The area known as the Bermuda Triangle has become such a part of popular culture that it can be difficult to sort through the myth and locate the truth. c. The increase in ships from East Asia no doubt contributes to an increase in accidents. d. Most consider the Triangle to stretch from Miami to Puerto Rico and include the island of Bermuda. 16. Which of the following is a primary source? a. A report of an original research experiment b. An academic textbook’s citation of research c. A quotation of a researcher in a news article d. A website description of another’s research 17. The guide words at the top of a dictionary page are intrauterine and invest. Which of the following words is an entry on this page? a. Intransigent b. Introspection c. Investiture d. Intone ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 The next question is based on the following chart. 18. A recycling company collects sorted materials from its clients. The materials are weighed and then processed for re-use. The chart shows the weights of various classes of materials that were collected by the company during a representative month. Which of the following statements is NOT supported by the data in the chart? a. Paper products, including cardboard, make up a majority of the collected materials. b. One quarter of the materials collected are made of glass. c. More plastic is collected than cardboard. d. Plastic and cardboard together represent a larger portion of the collected materials than glass bottles. 19. Ninette has celiac disease, which means that she cannot eat any product containing gluten. Gluten is a protein present in many grains such as wheat, rye, and barley. Because of her health condition, Ninette has to be careful about what she eats to avoid having an allergic reaction. She will be attending an all-day industry event, and she requested the menu in advance. Here is the menu: • Breakfast: Fresh coffee or tea, scrambled eggs, bacon or sausage • Lunch: Spinach salad (dressing available on the side), roasted chicken, steamed rice • Cocktail Hour: Various beverages, fruit and cheese plate • Dinner: Spaghetti and sauce, tossed salad, garlic bread During which of these meals should Ninette be careful to bring her own food? a. Breakfast b. Lunch c. Cocktail Hour d. Dinner 20. Which of the following best provides detailed support for the claim that “seatbelts save lives”? a. A government website containing driving accident information b. A blog developed by one of the largest car companies in the world c. An encyclopedia entry on the seatbelt and its development d. An instant message sent out by a famous race car driver ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 21. Which of the answer choices presents a valid inference based on the following scenario? The latest movie by a certain director gets bad reviews before it opens in theatres. Consequently, very few people go to the movie and the director is given much less money to make his next movie, which is also unsuccessful. a. This director makes terrible movies b. The general public does not pay attention to movie reviews c. The movie reviewers were right about the first movie d. Movie reviewers exert influence on the movie quality The next three questions are based on the following table. COMPOSITION WORLD NAME (PER 100) LITERATURE TECHNICAL LINGUISTICS WRITING (PER 100) Textbook- Mania Textbook Central Bookstore Supply (PER 100) (PER 100) $4500 $5150 $6000 $6500 $4350 $5200 $6100 $6550 $4675 $5000 $5950 $6475 University $4600 $5000 $6100 $6650 Textbooks Note: Shipping is free for all schools that order 100 textbooks or more. 22. A school needs to purchase 500 composition textbooks and 500 world literature textbooks. Which of the textbook suppliers can offer the lowest price? a. Textbook Mania b. Textbook Central c. Bookstore Supply d. University Textbooks 23. A school needs to purchase 1000 composition textbooks and 300 linguistics textbooks. Which of the textbook suppliers can offer the lowest price? a. Textbook Mania b. Textbook Central c. Bookstore Supply d. University Textbooks 24. A school needs to purchase 400 world literature textbooks and 200 technical writing textbooks. Which of the textbook suppliers can offer the lowest price? a. Textbook Mania b. Textbook Central c. Bookstore Supply d. University Textbooks ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 The next four questions are based on the following graphic. 25. Which of the following expense categories decreased in the year prior to June 2009? a. Rent of primary residence b. Boys’ and men’s apparel c. Transportation d. Meats, fish, and eggs ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 26. On a seasonally adjusted basis, which of the following decreased by the greatest percentage between April and May of 2009? a. Gasoline b. Fuel oil and other fuels c. Infants’ and toddlers’ apparel d. Fruits and vegetables 27. According to the organization of the table, which of the following expense categories is not considered to be a component of the “Food at Home” category? a. Cereals and bakery products b. Fats and oils c. Other miscellaneous foods d. Alcoholic beverages 28. Which expenditure category was the most important in December of 2008? a. Housing b. Food and Beverages c. Apparel d. Transportation The next question refers to the following image. Starting Image Start with the shape pictured above. Follow the directions to alter its appearance. • Rotate section 1 90° clockwise and move it to the right side, against sections 3 and 5. • Remove section 4. • Move section 2 immediately above section 3. • Swap section 2 and section 5. • Remove section 5. • Draw a circle around the shape, enclosing it completely. ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 29. Which of the following does the shape now look like? a. b. c. d. 30. Anna is planning a trip to Bretagne, or Brittany, in the northwestern part of France. Since she knows very little about it, she is hoping to find the most up-to-date information with the widest variety of details about hiking trails, beaches, restaurants, and accommodations. Which of the following guides will be the best for her to review? a. The Top Ten Places to Visit in Brittany, published by a non-profit organization in Bretagne looking to draw tourism to the region (2015) b. Getting to Know Nantes: Eating, Staying, and Sightseeing in Brittany’s Largest City, published by the French Ministry of Tourism (2014) c. Hiking Through Bretagne: The Best Trails for Discovering Northwestern France, published by a company that specializes in travel for those wanting to experience the outdoors (2013) d. The Complete Guide to Brittany, published by a travel book company that publishes guides for travel throughout Europe (2015) ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 The next three questions are based on the following passage. An adult skeleton had 206 bones. The skeleton has two major divisions: the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton. Each bone belongs to either the axial skeleton or the appendicular skeleton. The axial skeleton, which consists of 80 bones including the skull, vertebrae, and rib, is located down the center of the body. The axial skeleton protects vital organs such as the brain and heart. The appendicular skeleton consists of 126 bones of the arms, legs, and the bones that attach these bones to the axial skeleton. The appendicular skeleton includes the scapulae (shoulder blades), clavicles (collarbones), and pelvic (hip) bones. 31. Which of the following bones is not associated with the leg? a. Femur b. Tibia c. Patella d. Radius 32. Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton? a. Skull b. Clavicle c. Scapula d. Pelvic bone ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 33. Which of the following bones are located in the hand? a. Fibula b. Metacarpals c. Metatarsals d. Ulna The next three questions are based on the following passage. As little as three years before her birth, few would have thought that the child born Princess Alexandrina Victoria would eventually become Britain’s longest reigning monarch, Queen Victoria. She was born in 1819, the only child of Edward, Duke of Kent, who was the fourth son of King George III. Ahead of Edward were three brothers, two of whom became king but none of whom produced a legitimate, surviving heir. King George’s eldest son, who was eventually crowned King George IV, secretly married a Catholic commoner, Maria Fitzherbert, in 1783. The marriage was never officially recognized, and in 1795, George was persuaded to marry a distant cousin, Caroline of Brunswick. The marriage was bitter, and the two had only one daughter, Princess Charlotte Augusta. She was popular in England where her eventual reign was welcomed, but in a tragic event that shocked the nation, the princess and her stillborn son died in childbirth in 1817. Realizing the precarious position of the British throne, the remaining sons of King George III were motivated to marry and produce an heir. The first in line was Prince Frederick, the Duke of York. Frederick married Princess Frederica Charlotte of Prussia, but the two had no children. After Prince Frederick was Prince William, the Duke of Clarence. William married Princess Adelaide of Saxe-Meiningen, and they had two sickly daughters, neither of whom survived infancy. Finally, Prince Edward, the Duke of Kent, threw his hat into the ring with his marriage to Princess Victoria of Saxe-Coburg-Saalfeld. The Duke of Kent died less than a year after his daughter’s birth, but the surviving Duchess of Kent was not unaware of the future possibilities for her daughter. She took every precaution to ensure that the young Princess Victoria was healthy and safe throughout her childhood. Princess Victoria’s uncle, William, succeeded his brother George IV to become King William IV. The new king recognized his niece as his future heir, but he did not necessarily trust her mother. As a result, he was determined to survive until Victoria’s eighteenth birthday to ensure that she could rule in her own right without the regency of the Duchess of Kent. The king’s fervent prayers were answered: he died June 20, 1837, less than one month after Victoria turned eighteen. Though young and inexperienced, the young queen recognized the importance of her position and determined to rule fairly and wisely. The improbable princess who became queen ruled for more than sixty-three years, and her reign is considered to be one of the most important in British history. ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 34. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the information in the passage above? a. Victoria’s long reign provided the opportunity for her to bring balance to England and right the wrongs that had occurred during the reigns of her uncles. b. It was the death of Princess Charlotte Augusta that motivated the remaining princes to marry and start families. c. The Duke of Kent had hoped for a son but was delighted with his good fortune in producing the surviving heir that his brothers had failed to produce. d. King William IV was unreasonably suspicious of the Duchess of Kent’s motivations, as she cared only for her daughter’s well-being. 35. What is the author’s likely purpose in writing this passage about Queen Victoria? a. To persuade the reader to appreciate the accomplishments of Queen Victoria, especially when placed against the failures of her forebears. b. To introduce the historical impact of the Victorian Era by introducing to readers the queen who gave that era its name. c. To explain how small events in history placed an unlikely princess in line to become the queen of England. d. To indicate the role that King George III’s many sons played in changing the history of England. 36. Based on the context of the passage, the reader can infer that this information is likely to appear in which of the following types of works? a. A scholarly paper b. A mystery c. A fictional story d. A biography The next five questions are based on the following passage. In 1603, Queen Elizabeth I of England died. She had never married and had no heir, so the throne passed to a distant relative: James Stuart, the son of Elizabeth’s cousin and one- time rival for the throne, Mary, Queen of Scots. James was crowned King James I of England. At the time, he was also King James VI of Scotland, and the combination of roles would create a spirit of conflict that haunted the two nations for generations to come. The conflict developed as a result of rising tensions among the people within the nations, as well as between them. Scholars in the 21st century are far too hasty in dismissing the role of religion in political disputes, but religion undoubtedly played a role in the problems that faced England and Scotland. By the time of James Stuart’s succession to the English throne, the English people had firmly embraced the teachings of Protestant theology. Similarly, the Scottish Lowlands was decisively Protestant. In the Scottish Highlands, however, the clans retained their Catholic faith. James acknowledged the Church of England and still sanctioned the largely Protestant translation of the Bible that still bears his name. James’s son King Charles I proved himself to be less committed to the Protestant Church of England. Charles married the Catholic Princess Henrietta Maria of France, and there were suspicions among the English and the Lowland Scots that Charles was quietly a Catholic. Charles’s own political troubles extended beyond religion in this case, and he was beheaded ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 in 1649. Eventually, his son King Charles II would be crowned, and this Charles is believed to have converted secretly to the Catholic Church. Charles II died without a legitimate heir, and his brother James ascended to the throne as King James II. James was recognized to be a practicing Catholic, and his commitment to Catholicism would prove to be his downfall. James’s wife Mary Beatrice lost a number of children during their infancy, and when she became pregnant again in 1687 the public became concerned. If James had a son, that son would undoubtedly be raised a Catholic, and the English people would not stand for this. Mary gave birth to a son, but the story quickly circulated that the royal child had died and the child named James’s heir was a foundling smuggled in. James, his wife, and his infant son were forced to flee; and James’s Protestant daughter Mary was crowned the queen. In spite of a strong resemblance to the king, the young James was generally rejected among the English and the Lowland Scots, who referred to him as “the Pretender.” But in the Highlands the Catholic princeling was welcomed. He inspired a group known as Jacobites, to reflect the Latin version of his name. His own son Charles, known affectionately as Bonnie Prince Charlie, would eventually raise an army and attempt to recapture what he believed to be his throne. The movement was soundly defeated at the Battle of Culloden in 1746, and England and Scotland have remained ostensibly Protestant ever since. 37. Which of the following sentences contains an opinion on the part of the author? a. James was recognized to be a practicing Catholic, and his commitment to Catholicism would prove to be his downfall. b. James’ son King Charles I proved himself to be less committed to the Protestant Church of England. c. The movement was soundly defeated at the Battle of Culloden in 1746, and England and Scotland have remained ostensibly Protestant ever since. d. Scholars in the 21st century are far too hasty in dismissing the role of religion in political disputes, but religion undoubtedly played a role in the problems that faced England and Scotland. 38. Which of the following is a logical conclusion based on the information that is provided within the passage? a. Like Elizabeth I, Charles II never married and thus never had children. b. The English people were relieved each time that James II’s wife Mary lost another child, as this prevented the chance of a Catholic monarch. c. Charles I’s beheading had less to do with religion than with other political problems that England was facing. d. Unlike his son and grandsons, King James I had no Catholic leanings and was afaithful follower of the Protestant Church of England. ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 39. Based on the information that is provided within the passage, which of the following can be inferred about King James II’s son? a. Considering his resemblance to King James II, the young James was very likely the legitimate child of the king and the queen. b. Given the queen’s previous inability to produce a healthy child, the English and the Lowland Scots were right in suspecting the legitimacy of the prince. c. James “the Pretender” was not as popular among the Highland clans as his son Bonnie Prince Charlie. d. James was unable to acquire the resources needed to build the army and plan the invasion that his son succeeded in doing. 40. Which of the following best describes the organization of the information in the passage? a. Cause-effect b. Chronological sequence c. Problem-solution d. Comparison-contrast 41. Which of the following best describes the author’s intent in the passage? a. To persuade b. To entertain c. To express feeling d. To inform The next two questions are based on the following statements. Lisa Grant: “Schools should make students wear uniforms. Everyone would look the same. Students would be able to respect each other based on their ideas and character because they would no longer be judged by their appearance.” Vivian Harris: “Students should not have to wear uniforms. Clothing is an important part of self-expression. Taking away that method of expression is suppressing that student’s rights.” 42. What is one idea that the students above seem to agree on, based on their statements? a. Students should be allowed to express themselves through apparel. b. Schools should give students a certain amount of respect. c. Students should focus more on school than on appearance. d. Schools would violate students’ basic rights by enforcing a dress code. 43. Which of the following statements could NOT provide support for BOTH arguments? a. A number of local school districts have recently implemented dress codes. b. School administrators have been in talks with parents over the issue of uniforms. c. Students have reported that school uniforms are costly and typically ill-fitting. d. Several groups of students have been organized to discuss uniform dress codes. ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 The next three questions are based on the following passage. NOTE: The instructor of a history class has just finished grading the essay exams from his students, and the results are not good. The essay exam was worth 70% of the final course score. The highest score in the class was a low B, and more than half of the class of 65 students failed the exam. In view of this, the instructor reconsiders his grading plan for the semester and sends out an email message to all students. Dear Students: The scores for the essay exam have been posted in the online course grade book. By now, many of you have probably seen your grade and are a little concerned. (And if you’re not concerned, you should be—at least a bit!) At the beginning of the semester, I informed the class that I have a strict grading policy and that all scores will stand unquestioned. With each class comes a new challenge, however, and as any good instructor will tell you, sometimes the original plan has to change. As a result, I propose the following options for students to make up their score: 1. I will present the class with an extra credit project at the next course meeting. The extra credit project will be worth 150% of the point value of the essay exam that has just been completed. While I will not drop the essay exam score, I will give you more than enough of a chance to make up the difference and raise your overall score. 2. I will allow each student to develop his or her own extra credit project. This project may reflect the tenor of option number 1 (above) but will allow the student to create a project more in his or her own line of interest. Bear in mind, however, that this is more of a risk. The scoring for option number 2 will be more subjective, depending on whether or not I feel that the project is a successful alternative to the essay exam. If it is, the student will be awarded up to 150% of the point value of the essay exam. 3. I will provide the class with the option of developing a group project. Students may form groups of 3 to 4 and put together an extra credit project that reflects a stronger response to the questions in the essay exam. This extra credit project will also be worth 150% of the point value of the essay exam. Note that each student will receive an equal score for the project, so there is a risk in this as well. If you are part of a group in which you do most of the work, each member of the group will receive equal credit for it. The purpose of the group project is to allow students to work together and arrive at a stronger response than if each worked individually. If you are interested in pursuing extra credit to make up for the essay exam, please choose one of the options above. No other extra credit opportunities will be provided for the course. Good luck! Dr. Edwards 44. Which of the following describes this type of writing? a. Technical b. Narrative c. Persuasive d. Expository ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 45. Which of the following best describes the instructor’s purpose in writing this email to his students? a. To berate students for the poor scores that they made on the recent essay exam. b. To encourage students to continue working hard in spite of failure. c. To give students the opportunity to make up the bad score and avoid failing the course. d. To admit that the essay exam was likely too difficult for most students. 46. Which of the following offers the best summary for the instructor’s motive in sending the email to the students? a. By now, many of you have probably seen your grade and are a little concerned. (And if you’re not concerned, you should be—at least a bit!) b. With each class comes a new challenge, however, and as any good instructor will tell you, sometimes the original plan has to change. c. The purpose of the group project is to allow students to work together and arrive at a stronger response than if each worked individually. d. At the beginning of the semester, I informed the class that I have a strict grading policy and that all scores will stand unquestioned. The next seven questions are based on this passage. In the United States, where we have more land than people, it is not at all difficult for persons in good health to make money. In this comparatively new field there are so many avenues of success open, so many vocations which are not crowded, that any person of either sex who is willing, at least for the time being, to engage in any respectable occupation that offers, may find lucrative employment. Those who really desire to attain an independence, have only to set their minds upon it, and adopt the proper means, as they do in regard to any other object which they wish to accomplish, and the thing is easily done. But however easy it may be found to make money, I have no doubt many of my hearers will agree it is the most difficult thing in the world to keep it. The road to wealth is, as Dr. Franklin truly says, "as plain as the road to the mill." It consists simply in expending less than we earn; that seems to be a very simple problem. Mr. Micawber, one of those happy creations of the genial Dickens, puts the case in a strong light when he says that to have annual income of twenty pounds per annum, and spend twenty pounds and sixpence, is to be the most miserable of men; whereas, to have an income of only twenty pounds, and spend but nineteen pounds and sixpence is to be the happiest of mortals. Many of my readers may say, "we understand this: this is economy, and we know economy is wealth; we know we can't eat our cake and keep it also." Yet I beg to say that perhaps more cases of failure arise from mistakes on this point than almost any other. The fact is, many people think they understand economy when they really do not. 47. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage? a. Getting a job is easier now than it ever has been before. b. Earning money is much less difficult than managing it properly. c. Dr. Franklin advocated getting a job in a mill. d. Spending money is the greatest temptation in the world. ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 48. What would this author’s attitude likely be to a person unable to find employment? a. descriptive b. conciliatory c. ingenuous d. incredulous 49. According to the author, what is more difficult than making money? a. managing money b. traveling to a mill c. reading Dickens d. understanding the economy 50. Who is the most likely audience for this passage? a. economists b. general readers c. teachers d. philanthropists 51. What is the best definition of economy as it is used in this passage? a. exchange of money, goods, and services b. delegation of household affairs c. efficient money management d. less expensive 52. Which word best describes the author’s attitude towards those who believe they understand money? a. supportive b. incriminating c. excessive d. patronizing 53. This passage is most likely taken from a(n) _____. a. self-help manual b. autobiography c. epistle d. novel ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 Mathematics Number of Questions: 36 Time Limit: 54 Minutes 1. Which of the following is the percentage equivalent of 0.0016? a. 16% b. 160% c. 1.6% d. 0.16% 2. Curtis is taking a road trip through Germany, where all distance signs are in metric. He passes a sign that states the city of Dusseldorf is 45 kilometers away. Approximately how far is this in miles? a. 42 miles b. 37 miles c. 28 miles d. 16 miles 3. On a floor plan drawn at a scale of 1:100, the area of a rectangular room is 30 ???. What is the actual area of the room? a. 30,000 cm2 b. 300 m2 c. 3,000 m2 d. 30 m2 4. Mandy can buy 4 containers of yogurt and 3 boxes of crackers for $9.55. She can buy 2 containers of yogurt and 2 boxes of crackers for $5.90. How much does one box of crackers cost? a. $1.75 b. $2.00 c. $2.25 d. $2.50 The next two questions are based on the following information: Pernell’s scores on her last five chemistry exams were 81, 92, 87, 89, and 94. 5. What is the approximate average of her scores? a. 81 b. 84 c. 89 d. 91 6. What is the median of Pernell’s scores? a. 87 b. 89 c. 92 d. 94 ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 7. Gordon purchased a television when his local electronics store had a sale. The television was offered at 30% off its original price of $472. What was the sale price that Gordon paid? a. $141.60 b. $225.70 c. $305.30 d. $330.40 8. Simplify the following expression: ? ? ? a. 1 9 16 b. 1 1 4 c. 2 1 8 ÷ × ? ?? ? d. 2 9. Simplify the following expression: ?. ???? × ?.??? a. 2.0358414 b. 0.0427378 c. 0.2341695 d. 0.3483240 10. Tom needs to buy ink cartridges and printer paper. Each ink cartridge costs $30. Each ream of paper costs $5. He has $100 to spend. Which of the following inequalities may be used to find the combinations of ink cartridges and printer paper that he maypurchase? a. 30c + 5p ≤ 100 b. 30c + 5p < 100 c. 30c + 5p > 100 d. 30c + 5p ≥ 100 11. Solve for ?: ?(?? − ?) = ??? − ? a. ? = 5 b. ? = −7 c. ? = −9 d. ? = 10 12. Erma has her eye on two sweaters at her favorite clothing store, but she has been waiting for the store to offer a sale. This week, the store advertises that all clothing purchases, including sweaters, come with an incentive: 25% off a second item of equal or lesser value. One sweater is $50 and the other is $44. If Erma purchases the sweaters during the sale, what will she spend? a. $79 b. $81 c. $83 d. $85 13. Simplify the following expression: ?. ??? + ?. ??? − ?. ??? a. 0.015 b. 0.15 c. 1.5 d. –0.15 ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 14. The graph below shows the weekly church attendance among residents in the town of Ellsford, with the town having five different denominations: Episcopal, Methodist, Baptist, Catholic, and Orthodox. Approximately what percentage of church-goers in Ellsford attends Catholic churches? 500 400 300 200 100 0 a. 23% b. 28% c. 36% d. 42% Episcopal Churches Methodist Churches Baptist Churches Catholic Churches Orthodox Churches 15. Jerry needs to load four pieces of equipment on to a factory elevator that has a weight limit of 800 pounds. Jerry weighs 200 pounds. What would the average weight of each item have to be so that the elevator’s weight limit is not exceeded assuming Jerry accompanies the equipment? a. 128 pounds b. 150 pounds c. 175 pounds d. 180 pounds 16. Simplify the following expression: ? ? ÷ ?? ? ? a. 2 b. 3 1 3 c. 4 d. 4 1 2 17. Solve for ?: ?? + ? = ? − ? a. ? = −12 b. ? = 10 c. ? = −16 d. ? = −10 18. Solve for ?: ?? − ? = ? a. ? = 4 b. ? = 3 c. ? = −2 d. ? = 5 ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 19. What kind of association does the scatter plot show? a. linear, positive b. linear, negative c. quadratic d. no association 20. If Stella’s current weight is 56 kilograms, which of the following is her approximate weight in pounds? (Note: 1 kilogram is approximately equal to 2.2 pounds.) a. 123 pounds b. 110 pounds c. 156 pounds d. 137 pounds 21. Which of the following is listed in order from least to greatest? a. − 3 , −7 4 , −8, 18%, 0.25, 2.5 b. 4 3 −8, −7 , − , 0.25, 2.5, 18% 5 43 4 c. 18%, 0.25, − , 2.5, −7 , −8 4 5 d. −8, −7 4 , − 3 , 18%, 0.25, 2.5 5 4 22. Between the years 2000 and 2010, the number of births in the town of Daneville increased from 1432 to 2219. Which of the following is the approximate percent of increase in the number of births during those ten years? a. 55% b. 36% c. 64% d. 42% 23. Simplify the following expression: ? × ? ÷ ?? ? ? ? 8 15 b. 27 160 2 15 27 40 ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 24. While at the local ice skating rink, Cora went around the rink 27 times total. She slipped and fell 20 of the 27 times she skated around the rink. What approximate percentage of the times around the rink did Cora not slip and fall? a. 37% b. 74% c. 26% d. 15% 25. A can has a radius of 1.5 inches and a height of 3 inches. Which of the following best represents the volume of the can? a. 17.2 in³ b. 19.4 in³ c. 21.2 in³ d. 23.4 in³ 26. Simplify the following expression: ? ? − ? ? a. 2 1 3 b. 1 1 3 c. 2 1 d. 5 9 6 ? ? 27. Four more than a number, ?, is 2 less than ? ? of another number, ?. Which of the following algebraic equations correctly represents this sentence? a. ? + 4 = 1 ? − 2 b. 3 1 4? = 2 − ? c. 3 1 4 − ? = 2 + ? 3 d. ? + 4 = 2 − 1 ? 3 28. Margery is planning a vacation, and she has added up the cost. Her round-trip airfare will cost $572. Her hotel cost is $89 per night, and she will be staying at the hotel for five nights. She has allotted a total of $150 for sightseeing during her trip, and she expects to spend about $250 on meals. As she books the hotel, she is told that she will receive a discount of 10% per night off the price of $89 after the first night she stays there. Taking this discount into consideration, what is the amount that Margery expects to spend on her vacation? a. $1328.35 b. $1373.50 c. $1381.40 d. $1417.60 ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 29. Given the double bar graph shown below, which of the following statements is true? Number of Vehicles Owned 12 10 8 6 4 2 0 1 2 3 4 5 Number of Vehicles Group A Group B a. Group A is negatively skewed, while Group B is approximatelynormal. b. Group A is positively skewed, while Group B is approximatelynormal. c. Group A is approximately normal, while Group B is negatively skewed. d. Group A is approximately normal, while Group B is positivelyskewed. 30. A gift box has a length of 14 inches, a height of 8 inches, and a width of 6 inches. How many square inches of wrapping paper are needed to wrap the box? a. 56 b. 244 c. 488 d. 672 31. After a hurricane struck a Pacific island, donations began flooding into a disaster relief organization. The organization provided the opportunity for donors to specify where they wanted the money to be used, and the organization provided four options. When the organization tallied the funds received, they allotted each to the designated need. Reviewing the chart below, what percentage of the funds was donated to support construction costs? Donations Medical relief, $650,000 Construction, $300,000 Food and clothing, $240,000 Sanitation, $130,000 a. 49% b. 23% c. 18% d. 10% ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 32. Arrange the following numbers above from least to greatest: ? , ? , ?? , ? ? ? ? ? a. 10 , 7 , 9 , 7 9 3 2 8 b. 9 , 7 , 10 , 7 2 3 9 8 7 9 10 7 c. , , , 3 2 9 8 d. 7 , 10 , 7 , 9 8 9 3 2 33. Simplify the following expression: ? ÷ ? ? ? a. 2 5 b. 35 12 5 21 12 35 34. Simplify the following expression: ? + ?? − (? + ? × ?) − ?? × ? a. −42 b. −20 c. 23 d. 20 35. The table below shows the cost of renting a bicycle for 1, 2, or 3 hours. Which answer choice shows the equation that best represents the data? Let C represent the cost of the rental and h stand for the number of hours of rental time. 1 2 3 $3.60 $7.20 $10.80 a. ? = 3.60ℎ b. ? = ℎ + 3.60 c. ? = 3.60ℎ + 10.80 d. ? = 10.80 ℎ 36. Chan receives a bonus from his job. He pays 30% in taxes, gives 30% to charity, and uses another 25% to pay off an old debt. He has $600 remaining from his bonus. What was the total amount of Chan’s bonus? a. $3000 b. $3200 c. $3600 d. $4000 ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 Science Number of Questions: 53 Time Limit: 63 Minutes 1. The first four steps of the scientific method are as follows: I. Identify the problem. II. Ask questions. III. Develop a hypothesis. IV. Collect data and experiment on that data. Which of the following is the fifth step in the scientific method? a. Observe the data. b. Analyze the results. c. Measure the data. d. Develop a conclusion. 2. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the use of qualitative and quantitative data in scientific research? a. Quantitative data is collected through numerical measurements. b. Quantitative data is more accurate than qualitative data. c. Qualitative data is focused on perspectives and behavior. d. Qualitative data is collected through observation and interviews. The next question refers to the following graphic. 35 30 25 20 15 10 5 0 November December January February March April Snowfall in inches Number of Sunny Days 3. The chart above shows the average snowfall in inches for a town on Michigan’s Upper Peninsula, during the months November through April. Which of the following can be concluded based on the information that is provided in the chart? a. April is not a good month to go skiing in the Upper Peninsula. b. Snowfall blocks the sunshine and reduces the number of sunny days. c. The fewest sunny days occur in the months with the heaviest snowfall. d. There is no connection between the amount of snowfall and the number of sunny days. ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 4. Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of the corresponding physiologic structure? a. The trachea connects the throat and the stomach, encouraging food to follow this path through contractions. b. The esophagus is the cylindrical portion of the respiratory tract that joins the larynx with the lungs. c. The diaphragm is a muscle that controls the height of the thoracic cavity, decreasing the height on contraction, and increasing the height on relaxation causing expiration. d. The epiglottis covers the trachea during swallowing, preventing food from entering the airway. 5. Which of the following is an example of the location and function of cartilage in the body? a. The dense connective tissue that comprises the better part of the structural skeleton. b. The supportive pads that provide cushion at joints, such as between the vertebrae of the spinal cord. c. The connective structure made of fibrous collagen that connects muscles and bones, such as the connection of the patella to the quadricep. d. The layer beneath the skin and on the outside of internal organs that provides cushioning and protection. 6. Two criteria for classifying epithelial tissue are: a. cell type and cell function. b. cell shape and cell type. c. cell layers and cell shape. d. cell function and cell layers. 7. Where is the parathyroid gland located? a. On the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland, on the posterior aspect. b. On the pyramidal lobe of the thyroid gland, on the posterior aspect. c. On the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland, on the anterior aspect. d. On the left lateral lobe of the thyroid gland, on the anterior aspect. 8. How many organ systems are in the human body? a. 12 b. 15 c. 9 d. 11 9. Which element or structure within the respiratory system is responsible for removing foreign matter from the lungs? a. Bronchial tubes b. Cilia c. Trachea d. Alveoli ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 10. Organized from highest to lowest, what is the hierarchy of the human body’s structures is as follows: organism, organ systems, organs, tissues. Which of the following comes next? a. Organs, cells, tissues, molecules, atoms. b. Organ system, organism, organ, cells, tissues, atoms, molecules. c. Organism, organ systems, organs, tissues, cells, molecules, atoms. d. Organism, organ, cells, tissues, molecules, atoms. The next two questions are based on the periodic table. Note: The row labeled with * is the Lanthanide Series, and the row labeled with ^ is the Actinide Series. 11. On average, how many neutrons does one atom of bromine (Br) have? a. 35 b. 44.90 c. 45 d. 79.90 12. On average, how many protons does one atom of zinc (Zn) have? a. 30 b. 35 c. 35.39 d. 65.39 ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 13. Which statement below correctly describes the movement of molecules in the body and/or in relation to the external environment? a. Osmosis is the movement of a solution from and area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration. b. Diffusion is the process in the lungs by which oxygen is transported from the air to the blood. c. Dissipation is the transport of molecules across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low concentration to high concentration, requiring energy. d. Reverse osmosis is the movement of molecules in a solution from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration. 14. Which gland is responsible for the regulation of calcium levels? a. The parathyroid glands b. The pituitary gland c. The adrenal glands d. The pancreas 15. Which statement matches the function to the organ of the digestive system? a. The large intestine reabsorbs water into the body to form solid waste. b. The duodenum is the middle section of the small intestine in which acids, fat, and sugar are absorbed. c. The jejunum is the first part of the small intestine that receives chyme from the stomach and further digests it prior to entering the large intestine. d. The gallbladder produces insulin to assist in the transport of sugars from the blood to the organs. 16. In your garden, you noticed that the tomato plants did better on the north side of your house than the west side and you decided to figure out why. They are both planted with the same soil that provides adequate nutrients to the plant, and they are watered at the same time during the week. Over the course of a week, you begin to measure the amount of sunlight that hits each side of the house and determine that the north side gets more light because the sunlight is blocked by the house’s shadow on the west side. What is the name of the factor in your observations that affected the tomato plants growth? a. The control b. The independent variable c. The dependent variable d. The conclusion 17. Which of the following describes one responsibility of the integumentary system? a. Distributing vital substances (such as nutrients) throughout the body b. Blocking pathogens that cause disease c. Sending leaked fluids from cardiovascular system back to the blood vessels d. Storing bodily hormones that influence gender traits 18. When are the parasympathetic nerves active within the nervous system? a. When an individual experiences a strong emotion, such as fear or excitement. b. When an individual feels pain or heat. c. When an individual is either talking or walking. d. When an individual is either resting or eating. ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 19. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the circulatory system and the integumentary system? a. Removal of excess heat from body. b. Hormonal influence on blood pressure. c. Regulation of blood’s pressure and volume. d. Development of blood cells within marrow. 20. Which of the following statements describes the path of blood entering into the heart? a. Blood enters the heart through the pulmonary vein, into the right atrium, throughthe tricuspid valve to the right ventricle. b. Once the right ventricle is full, blood exits into the pulmonary artery and then empties into the left ventricle. c. After traveling through the lungs, oxygenated blood enters into the left atrium, then through the mitral valve to the left ventricle. d. Once the left ventricle is full, the left tricuspid valve shuts, the ventricle contracts, and blood exits through the aorta. 21. The part of the human excretory system most responsible for maintaining normal body temperature is the: a. kidney. b. bladder. c. liver. d. sweat glands. 22. A part of which body system controls fluid loss, protects deep tissues, and synthesizes vitamin D? a. The skeletal system. b. The muscular system. c. The lymphatic system. d. The integumentary system. 23. There are three insects that are being compared under a microscope. As a scientist, you decide that measuring them would be an important part of recording their data. Which unit of measurement would best for this situation? a. Centimeters. b. Meters. c. Micrometers. d. Kilometers. 24. The respiratory system _______ oxygen and ________ carbon dioxide. a. inhales; exhales b. delivers; expels c. creates; absorbs d. exhales; inhales ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 25. Which statement below accurately describes the function of its element? a. Collagen is a spongy fatty compound that creates a padding between bones and other structures. b. Hemoglobin is the amount of red blood cells that are present in blood, which can reflect disease states, hydration, and blood loss. c. Lymph is tissue that forms into nodes through which blood is filtered and cleaned. d. An antigen stimulates the production of antibodies. 26. Which group of major parts and organs make up the immune system? a. Lymphatic system, spleen, tonsils, thymus, and bone marrow. b. Brain, spinal cord, and nerve cells. c. Heart, veins, arteries, and capillaries. d. Nose, trachea, bronchial tubes, lungs, alveolus, and diaphragm. The next two questions are based on the following information. A student is conducting an experiment using a ball that is attached to the end of a string on a pendulum. The student pulls the ball back so that it is at an angle to its resting position. As the student releases the ball, it swings forward and backward. The student measures the time it takes the ball to make one complete period. A period is defined as the time it takes the ball to swing forward and back again to its starting position. This is repeated using different string lengths. 27. The student formed the following hypothesis: Lengthening the string of the pendulum increases the time it takes the ball to make one complete period. What correction would you have the student make to the hypothesis? a. Turn it into an “if/then” statement. b. Add the word “will” in the middle after the word “pendulum.” c. Switch the order of the sentence so that the phrase about the period comes first, and the phrase about the string’s length is last. d. No corrections are needed. 28. What would be an appropriate control variable for this experiment? a. The period b. The length of the string c. The mass of the ball d. The color of the ball 29. Which of the following does not exist in RNA? a. Uracil b. Thymine c. Cytosine d. Guanine ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 30. In which of the following muscle types are the filaments arranged in a disorderly manner? a. Cardiac. b. Smooth. c. Skeletal. d. Rough. 31. Which of the following hormones is correctly matched with the gland/organ it is produced by? a. Insulin; kidney. b. Testosterone; thyroid. c. Melatonin; pineal. d. Epinephrine; gall bladder. 32. Which of the following best describes a section that divides the body into equal right and left parts? a. Midsagittal plane. b. Coronal plane. c. Oblique plane. d. Frontal plane. 33. In the development of genetic traits, one gene must match to one ____________ for the traits to develop correctly. a. Codon b. Protein c. Amino acid d. Chromosome 34. Which of the following is not composed of striated muscle? a. Quadriceps. b. Uterus. c. Triceps. d. Gastrocnemius. 35. Which of the following is NOT found in the dorsal cavity of the body? a. Cerebellum b. Heart c. Brainstem d. Spine 36. Which of the following best describes the careful ordering of molecules within solids that have a fixed shape? a. Physical bonding b. Polar molecules c. Metalloid structure d. Crystalline order ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 37. Which of the following statement properly describes how the structure moves during inspiration? a. The lungs contract on inspiration. b. The diaphragm moves downward on inspiration. c. The ribs remain fixed during inspiration. d. The heart moves inward on inspiration. 38. Which of the following describes the transport network that is responsible for the transference of proteins throughout a cell? a. Golgi apparatus b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Mitochondria d. Nucleolus 39. What occurs during the anaphase of mitosis? a. Chromosomes, originally in pairs, separate from their daughters and move to the opposite ends (or poles) of the cell. b. The mitotic spindle fibers begin to form. c. The chromosomes align in the middle of the cell. d. Two nuclei form, surrounded each by a nuclear membrane. 40. Using the table below, what conclusions can be made about the students’ scores? a. The scores increased as the year progressed. b. The girls did better than the boys on the test each quarter. c. The test was about math. d. The scores were heavily impacted by the test reviews that were provided. ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 41. Which of the following statements is correct about normal human lung anatomy? a. The right lung has three lobes; the left lung has two lobes. b. The right lung has two lobes; the left lung has three lobes. c. Both lungs have two lobes. d. Both lungs have three lobes. 42. All of the following are parts of the cardiac system EXCEPT the: a. ventricle. b. alveoli. c. atrium. d. septum. 43. If a biologist is describing the physical and visible expression of a genetic trait, which of the following is he referring to? a. Phenotype. b. Allele. c. Gamete. d. Genotype. 44. Which of the following does NOT produce hormones? a. Pituitary gland. b. The Pons. c. Pancreas. d. Ovaries. 45. Which organ is correctly matched with the cavity in which it is found? a. Spleen; pelvic cavity. b. Brain; vertebral canal. c. Bladder; abdominal cavity. d. Heart; thoracic cavity. 46. A substance is considered acidic if it has a pH of less than which of the following? a. 12 b. 9 c. 7 d. 4 47. Which of the following choices best describes the location of the trachea in relation to the esophagus? a. Lateral b. Anterior c. Posterior d. Dorsal 48. A triple beam balance would show the units of measurement in which form? a. Liters b. Grams c. Meters d. Gallons ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 49. Which of the following best describes a section that divides the body into equal upper and lower portions? a. Coronal b. Transverse c. Oblique d. Median 50. Which of the following best describes one of the roles of RNA? a. Manufacturing the proteins needed for DNA b. Creating the bonds between the elements that compose DNA c. Sending messages about the correct sequence of proteins in DNA d. Forming the identifiable “double helix” shape of DNA 51. Which of the following do catalysts alter to control the rate of a chemical reaction? a. Substrate energy b. Activation energy c. Inhibitor energy d. Promoter energy 52. Which of the following components of the human integumentary system is the deepest? a. Stratum basale. b. Epidermis. c. Hypodermis. d. Dermis. 53. The Punnett square shown here indicates a cross between two parents, one with alleles BB and the other with alleles Bb. Select the correct entry for the upper right box in the Punnett square, which is indicated with the letter, x: B B B x b a. Bb b. bB c. BB d. bb ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 English and Language Usage Number of Questions: 28 Time Limit: 28 Minutes 1. Which of the following nouns represents the correct plural form of the word syllabus? a. Syllabus b. Syllaba c. Syllabi d. Syllabis 2. Which of the following words functions as an adjective in the sentence below? The Welsh kingdom of Gwynedd existed as an independent state from the early 5th century, when the Romans left Britain, until the late 13th century, when the king of England took control of Wales. a. Independent b. Century c. King d. Control 3. Bi, re, and un are: a. Suffixes, appearing at the beginning of base words to change their meaning b. Suffixes, appearing at the end of base words to enhance their meaning c. Prefixes, appearing at the beginning of base words to emphasize their meaning d. Prefixes, appearing at the beginning of base words to change their meanings 4. Which of the following sentences shows the correct use of quotation marks? a. Grady asked Abe, ‘Did you know that an earthquake and a tsunami hit Messina, Italy, in 1908?’ b. Grady asked Abe, “Did you know that an earthquake and a tsunami hit Messina, Italy, in 1908”? c. Grady asked Abe, “Did you know that an earthquake and a tsunami hit Messina, Italy, in 1908?” d. Grady asked Abe, “ ‘Did you know that an earthquake and a tsunami hit Messina, Italy, in 1908’?” 5. Since, whether, and accordingly are examples of which type of signal words? a. Common, or basic, signal words b. Compare/contrast words c. Cause–effect words d. Temporal sequencing words 6. Which of the answer choices identifies the misspelled word in the sentence below? Donald considered the job offer carefully, but he ultimately decided that the low salary was not acceptible given his previous experience. a. carefully b. decided c. salary d. acceptible ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 7. Which of the answer choices best combines the following four sentences into two sentences? I’m usually good about keeping track of my keys. I lost them. I spent hours looking for them. I found them in the freezer. a. I lost my keys, even though I’m usually good about keeping track of them. I found them in the freezer and spent hours looking for them. b. I spent hours looking for my keys and found them in the freezer. I had lost them, even though I’m usually good about keeping track of them. c. I’m usually good about keeping track of my keys, but I lost them. After spending hours looking for them, I found them in the freezer. d. I’m usually good about keeping track of my keys, but I lost them in the freezer. I had to spend hours looking for them. 8. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? The warning against smoking may have been tacit, but Beryl instinctively knew that her mother wanted her to avoid picking up the habit. a. complicated b. empty c. wordy d. unstated 9. Which of the answer choices shows the correct punctuation of the city and the state in the following sentence? After living in Oak Ridge Missouri all her life, Cornelia was excited about her trip to Prague. a. After living in Oak Ridge, Missouri, all her life, Cornelia was excited about her trip to Prague. b. After living in Oak Ridge, Missouri all her life, Cornelia was excited about her trip to Prague. c. After living in Oak, Ridge, Missouri all her life, Cornelia was excited about her trip toPrague. d. After living in Oak Ridge Missouri all her life, Cornelia was excited about her trip to Prague. 10. What transition should be added to the beginning of sentence 2 below? (1) I zoned out in class, turned work in late, talked out in class, and handed in assignments after the due date. (2) Mr. Shanbourne just nodded. a. Surprisingly b. Actually c. Furthermore d. Instead 11. The following words all end in the same suffix, -ism: polytheism, communism, nationalism. Considering the meaning of these three words, how does the suffix -ism apply to all of them? a. Doctrine b. Condition c. Characteristic d. State of being ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 12. What is the most effective way to rewrite the following sentence? She is saying that some of the students are wearing to school is being distracting and inappropriate. a. Some of the outfits students wear to school, she is saying, are distracting and not appropriate. b. The outfits are distracting and inappropriate, she says, that students wear to school. c. She says that some of the outfits that students wear to school are distracting and inappropriate. d. She says that it is distracting and inappropriate that students wear outfits to school. 13. Which of the following is an example of a correctly punctuated sentence? a. Beatrice is very intelligent, she just does not apply herself well enough in her classes to make good grades. b. Beatrice is very intelligent: she just does not apply herself well enough in her classes to make good grades. c. Beatrice is very intelligent she just does not apply herself well enough in her classes to make good grades d. Beatrice is very intelligent; she just does not apply herself well enough in her classes to make good grades. 14. What is the most effective way to combine the two sentences below? Some members of the Sons of Liberty constructed a paper obelisk. An obelisk is the same shape as the Washington Monument. a. Some members of the Sons of Liberty constructed a paper obelisk, which is the same shape as the Washington Monument. b. Some members of the Sons of Liberty constructed a paper obelisk which is the same shape as the Washington Monument. c. Some members of the Sons of Liberty constructed a paper obelisk, that is the same shape as the Washington Monument. d. Some members of the Sons of Liberty constructed a paper obelisk; which is the same shape as the Washington Monument. 15. Which of the following is a compound sentence? a. Tabitha and Simon started the day at the zoo and then went to the art museum for the rest of the afternoon. b. Tabitha and Simon started the day at the zoo, and then they went to the art museum for the rest of the afternoon. c. After starting the day at the zoo, Tabitha and Simon then went to the art museum for the rest of the afternoon. d. Tabitha and Simon had a busy day, because they started at the zoo, and then they went to the art museum for the rest of the afternoon. 16. Which of the following follows the rules of capitalization? a. Dashiell visited his Cousin Elaine on Tuesday. b. Juniper sent a card to Uncle Archibald who has been unwell. c. Flicka and her Mother spent the day setting up the rummage sale. d. Lowell and his twin Sister look alike but have very different personalities. ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 17. What is the most likely meaning of the underlined phrase in the sentence below? The Western perspective expects moral actions to be quid pro quo; to put it another way, a Westerner assumes that if he or she does something considered “good,” then he or she should and will be rewarded. a. “something for nothing.” b. “good merits money.” c. “to each his own.” d. “this for that.” 18. Which of the following sets of words correctly fill in the blanks in the sentence below? We cannot allow the budget cuts to __________ the plans to improve education; the futuresof __________ children are at stake. a. effect; your b. affect; you’re c. effect; you’re d. affect; your 19. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? The experience of being the survivor of a plane crash left an indelible impression on Johanna, and she suffered from nightmares for years afterwards. a. candid b. permanent c. inexpressible d. indirect 20. Which of the following sentences contains an incorrect use of capitalization? a. For Christmas, we are driving to the South to visit my grandmother in Mississippi. b. Last year, we went to East Texas to go camping in Piney Woods. c. Next month, we will visit my Aunt Darla who lives just East of us. d. When my sister-in-law Susan has her baby, I will take the train north to see her. 21. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct? a. Krista was not sure who to hold responsible for the broken window. b. Krista was not sure whom was responsible for the broken window. c. Krista was not sure whom to hold responsible for the broken window. d. Krista was not sure on who she should place responsibility for the broken window. 22. The word capacity functions as which part of speech in the following sentence? Irish politician Constance Markiewicz was the first woman elected to the British House of Commons, but she never served in that capacity due to her activity in forming the Irish Republic. a. Verb b. Noun c. Adverb d. Pronoun ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 23. Which of the following sentences represents the best style and clarity of expression? a. Without adequate preparation, the test was likely to be a failure for Zara. b. The test was likely to be a failure for Zara without adequate preparation. c. Without adequate preparation, Zara expected to fail the test. d. Zara expected to fail the test without adequate preparation. 24. Which of the following sentences contains a correct example of subject-verb agreement? a. All of the board members are in agreement on the issue. b. Each of the students were concerned about the test scores for the final exam. c. Neither of the children are at home right now. d. Any of the brownie recipes are perfect for the bake sale. 25. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? Despite the important achievement of the election of our first African American president, the need for knowledge and education about African American history is still unmet to a substantial degree. a. base b. considerable c. minor d. trivial 26. Which of the following is a simple sentence? a. Phillippa walked the dog, and Primula gave the dog a bath. b. Phillippa walked and bathed the dog, and Primula helped. c. Phillippa walked the dog, while Primula gave the dog a bath. d. Phillippa and Primula walked the dog and gave the dog a bath. 27. Which of the following sentences is most correct in terms of style, clarity, and punctuation? a. The possible side effects of the medication that the doctor had prescribed for her wasa concern for Lucinda, and she continued to take the medication. b. The medication that the doctor prescribed had side effects concerning Lucinda who continued to take it. c. Lucinda was concerned about side effects from the medication that her doctor had prescribed, so she continued to take it. d. Although Lucinda was concerned about the possible side effects, she continued to take the medication that her doctor had prescribed for her. 28. What does the prefix poly- mean in the word polygon? a. few b. several c. none d. many Show Less [Show More]
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