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ATP CTP - Airline Transport Pilot Certification Training Course 2022-2023 / ATP CTP Course - Final Test

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Airline Transport Pilot Certification Training Program: ATP CTP Course - Final Test. 1. Which of the following statements regarding energy is true? 2. The objective in maneuvering the airplane ... is to manage energy so that: 3. What is the effect on total drag if airspeed slows below L/D Max? 4. A jet pilot flying at L/D Max will obtain best: 5. When a jet aircraft is flown at the appropriate airspeed for maximum range, which type of drag predominates? 6. While already at high speed, what happens if Mach is allowed to increase? 7. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? 8. The speed of sound generally decreases with increasing altitude. This occurs because: 9. Critical Mach number can be defined as: 10. Stability in the vertical axis tends to drive the sideslip angle toward zero. The most dynamic stability about the vertical axis on modern jet transports is from: - 11. Swept wings cause a significant: 12. Why is convergence of Stall AOA and Mmo hazardous? 13. To maintain altitude in a banked turn, the lift produced by the airplane must be: - 14. Excessive bank angles at high altitudes can be hazardous because: 15. When operating at constant speed with constant thrust setting at high altitude (typically above FL250) in slow flight below L/D Max airspeed, any disturbance causing a decrease in airspeed will result in a further decrease in airspeed unless thrust in increased. High altitude recovery from slow flight while turning is best accomplished by: 16. Maximum Altitude is the highest altitude at which an airplane can be operated. Maximum Altitude for an airplane is: 17. Exceed the critical angle of attack and the surface will stall, and lift will decrease instead of increasing. This is true: 18. Which of the following statements is true? 19. The airplane angle of attack is the angle between the wing chord and the oncoming air or relative wind. 20. Airplane stall speeds are published in the Approved Flight Manual for each airplane model. These speeds are presented as a function of aircraft weight. Therefor if the pilot maintains airspeed above the appropriate speed listed for the aircraft weight, the aircraft will not stall. 21. The stall speed of an airplane: - b. Is affected by weight and bank angle. 22. Large downward aileron deflections: 23. Place the following steps from the stall recovery template in the correct order: - 24. The predominant number of airplane upsets are caused by: 25. Most of the multi-engine turbojet loss-of-control incidents that are caused by environmental factors because of: 26. When initiating recommended airplane upset recovery techniques, the first two techniques are: 27. In a nose high, wings level airplane upset, after accomplishing the first two recommended techniques: 28. During recovery from a nose-low, high-bank-angle airplane upset: 29. When should an upset recovery be initiated? 30. During recovery from an airplane upset: 31. Why do de-icing methods typically require the airplane to be sprayed twice? 32. Why is clear air turbulence difficult to avoid? 33. Radar attenuation occurs when: 34. To determine whether they may conduct a particular low-visibility operation, an airline pilot primarily must consult: 35. If an autoland system is designated sich that it can continue to a safe landing ever after the failure of one component, that system is: 36. Fill in the blanks: Category I ILS approaches have decision height as low as ___ feet. Category II approaches have DHs as low as ___ feet. Category III approaches have DHs as low as ___ feet. 37. You come off duty at 9 am after working an overnight flight, and are scheduled to report at 9 p, to work another flight. When you arrive at your hotel, you find the room is not available until 2 pm. Will you be legal to fly as scheduled tonight? 38. Symptoms of fatigue include: 39. FAR 91.17 states that pilots cannot fly with a BAC of 0.04 percent or greater, or within 8 hours after consuming alcohol. As long as these requirements are met, is an airline pilot guaranteed to be safe to fly? 40. Which type of hypoxia could result if your aircraft depressurizes at altitude? 41. You are a regional airline first officer, and your captain steps out of the cockpit to use the lavatory. Do you need to put on your oxygen mask? 42. Which of the following are consider violations of the sterile cockpit rule? 43. At some airports, pilots can receive pre-departure clearance (PDC) via: 44. HF radio is useful for some flight operations because it: 45. When learning a flow, you should use the order or sequence that: 46. If interrupted while performing a checklist, which is the best course of action? 47. Most normal checklist are: 48. Operational control of a flight refers to: 49. In schedule Part 121 operations, pre-flight planning is the responsibility of the: - 50. In schedule Part 121 operations, the pilot in command and dispatcher certify that the appropriate planning is complete by signing the: 51. An item on an MEL has a remark labeled (M). This indicates that: 52. A piece of equipment on your aircraft malfunctions while in flight. Which documents should you consult to determine how to continue? 53. While reviewing the maintenance log for your aircraft, you discover that a category B item was reported inoperative at 9:15 am on march 17. The aircraft becomes un-airworthy at the stroke of midnight at the end of: 54. A pilot accidentally taxies across a runway that ATC did not clear them to cross. However, that runway is not currently in use, and so no aircraft were attempting to takeoff or land on that runway. Has the pilot committed a runway incursion? 55. You are taxiing in low visibility at an unfamiliar airport, and you and your captain realize you have become disoriented. Your immediate next step should be: 56. The center-line is yellow, so fortunately you are not on a runway. How should you proceed? 57. You are back on track now, and you see a runway hold-short sign coming up. You remember that ATC cleared you to cross this runway; that's good, because it doesn't look like your captain plans to stop. What should you do next? 58. You reach your assigned takeoff runway, and ATC advises you to line up and wait. Which lights should you turn on? Select all that apply. 59. ATC didn't tell you why you are waiting on the runway. How long should you wait before reminding ATC you are still holding? 60. Which on the following is NOT a stage in a high-bypass turbofan engine? 61. Pilots of general aviation aircraft commonly make approaches and landings with throttle settings near idle. Why is this technique inappropriate for turbine-powered aircraft? 62. Including the allowance for carry-on baggage and personal items, what is the standard average passenger weight currently recommended by the FAA? Assume it is summer. 63. A plane's LEMAC is 500 inches aft of datum and its MAC is 100 inches. You calculate that its center of gravity is located 522 inches aft of datum. What is that CG expressed in %MAC? 64. To minimize the length of runway required (or equivalently, maximize the weight at which we can take off from a given runway), we select V1 so that: 65. When following the one-engine inoperative climb profile, what is the only configuration change allowed bellow 400 feet? 66. To maximize efficiency, a transport jet should gradually do what throughout a flight? 67. Cyclic abrupt rudder pedal inputs can: 68. Technology in modern airplanes reduces the flight crew workload. Therefore, while initiating the recovery from an airplane upset, the pilot should: 69. Where should a pilot look to determine which automation modes are currently active? 70. What is the difference between the flight director and the autopilot? 71. It is impossible to stall an airplane with "hard" envelope protections. 72. ATC instructs you to climb immediately at the same time as a TCAS resolution advisory says "Descend, Descend." You should: 73. While at 15,000 feet, ATC asks you to fly at 280 knots. They then clear you to descend to 8,000 feet. You should: 74. The distinguishing feature of RNAV is that it: 75. While flying a standard RNAV (GPS) approach (special approval not required), how accurate must the navigation system be during the final approach segment? 76. Numerous NTSB investigations have revealed a trend that indicates many accidents are caused by: 77. In addition to the other pilot(s) on the flight-deck, which of the following groups of people should be included in good CRM? 78. You are a first officer for a regional airline. You notice that your captain, the pilot flying on this leg, has not slowed to 250 knots before descending through 10,000 feet. Which is the most effective way to raise your concern? 79. Human error is a contributing factor in what percent of air carrier incidents / accidents? 80. Social conversation in the cockpit is appropiate: 81. Which is more important to the conduct of safe flight? 82. Which of the following is NOT one of the four pillars of a safety management system? 83. Which of the following voluntary safety programs involves the collection and analysis of routine operational data from flight data recorders or quick access recorders? 84. What is the main difference between a LOSA and a line check? [Show More]

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