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SAT Biology E/M Subject Test. MCQ and Answer Key

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1 SAT Biology E/M Subject Test Nov. 2010 Questions 1-3 refer to the following. A. Respiration B. Photosynthesis C. Decomposition D. Nitrogen fixation E. Fermentation 1. This process converts ... electromagnetic energy to chemical potential energy. 2. This process breaks a triple bond. 3. This process produces ammonia. Questions 4-6 refer to the following phases of meiosis. A. Anaphase I B. Prophase I C. Anaphase II D. Prophase II E. Metaphase I 4. Crossing over occurs in this phase. 5. Homologous chromosomes separate in this phase. 6. Sister chromatids separate in this phase. Questions 7-9 refer to the following leaf diagram. 7. Photosynthesis primarily occurs in this tissue. 8. These cells regulate gas exchange in the leaf. 9. This tissue is composed of xylem. 10. In the food chain illustrated below, which trophic level is represented by the2 earthworm? sunflower — caterpillar —bluejay— tom cat — earthworm (A) primary consumer (B) secondary consumer (C) tertiary consumer (D) quaternary consumer (E) decomposer 11. What defines the Sahara Desert as a desert? (A) It is characterized by very hot temperatures. (B) The growing season is very short. (C) Cacti make up the dominant form of vegetation. (D) It is very dry. (E) The average temperature fluctuates very little between winter and summer. 12. The plasmids were separated according to (A) their size. (B) their charge. (C) their A-T: G-C composition. (D) both (A) and (B). (E) all of the above. Questions 13-14 refer to the following diagram. 13. All the arrows are associated with the process of (A) carbon fixation. (B) photochemical reactions. (C) anaerobic respiration. (D) aerobic respiration. (E) oxygen fixation. 14. Letter X most likely represents (A) the stroma. (B) the matrix. (C) the thylakoid space. (D) the grana. (E) none of the above. 15. Which of the following RNA sequences would be transcribed from the DNA3 sequence ATOCCTAGOAC? (A) TACGGATCCTG (B) UAGCGAUCCUG (C) AUGCCUAGGAC (D) UACGGAUCCUG (E) GCAUUCGAAGU 16. Arthropods can be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT (A) a hard exoskeleton (B) a water vascular system (C) jointed appendages (D) molting (E) a segmented body 17. Which biome contains maples, squirrels, and black bears? (A) Tundra (B) Tropical rain forest (C) Temperate grasslands (D) Taiga (E) Deciduous forest 18. Farmers have successfully bred Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cauliflower from the mustard plant. This demonstrates (A) convergent evolution (B) coevolution (C) adaptive radiation (D) natural selection (E) artificial selection Questions 19-22 (A) Marine biome (B) Desert (C) Taiga (D) Temperate grasslands (E) Tundra 19. Has the most stable temperatures 20. Northern Canada—characterized by coniferous trees, such as spruce and fir 21. Plains and prairies of the midwestern United States 22. Permafrost4 23. Which of the following are most closely related? I. Acer rubrum II. Acer sucre III. Pseudotritonrubrum (A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) All are closely related. (E) It cannot be determined using only scientific names. 24. A researcher has a black guinea pig and wishes to determine if it carries a recessive allele for white hair. Both of the guinea pig’s parents are black. Which of the following would be the best method for the researcher to use? (A) Mate the guinea pig with another blackguinea pig and look for white offspring (B) Look for white hairs on the guinea pig (C) Mate the guinea pig with a white guinea pigand look for white offspring (D) Observe the chromosomes of a hair cell from a black hair (E) See if the guinea pig has any white siblings 25. A bird that feeds on both insects and berries would be classified as a I. primary consumer II. secondary consumer III. tertiary consumer (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II only (E) II and III only Questions 26-27 refer to the drawing below. 26. Which letter represents the process of transpiration? (A) A (B) B (C) C5 (D) D (E) none of the above 27. Over time, according to the theories of succession, (A) the lake will get deeper and the trees more numerous. (B) the lake will get shallower and the trees will be replaced by grass. (C) the lake will dry up. (D) the trees will become coniferous types. (E) there is no fixed order to the replacement of species. Questions 28-32 relate to various tissue types found in the human body. For each question, choose the term that corresponds to the definition given and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet. 28. A special form of loose connective tissue that pads and insulates the body and stores fuel reserves is known as (A) epithelial tissue. (B) adipose tissue. (C) fibrous connective tissue. (D) nervous tissue. (E) muscle tissue. 29. The tissue that consists of long contractile cells (fibers) that are packed with microfilaments of actin and myosin is known as (A) epithelial tissue. (B) adipose tissue. (C) fibrous connective tissue. (D) nervous tissue. (E) muscle tissue. 30. Tissue that lilies the outer and inner surfaces of the body in protective sheets of tightly packed cells is known as (A) epithelial tissue. (B) adipose tissue. (C) fibrous connective tissue. (D) nervous tissue. (E) muscle tissue. 31. The tissue that senses stimuli and transmits electrical signals to the brain and other parts of the body is known as (A) epithelial tissue. (B) adipose tissue. (C) fibrous connective tissue. (D) nervous tissue.6 (E) muscle tissue. 32. Tissue consisting of a dense arrangement of parallel collagenous fibers found in tendons and ligaments is known as (A) epithelial tissue. (B) adipose tissue. (C) fibrous connective tissue. (D) nervous tissue. (E) muscle tissue. 33. Which of the following terms best encompasses all of the populations of organisms living together and potentially interacting in an area? (A) carrying capacity (B) biome (C) ecosystem (D) biological community (E) geographical community 34. Which of the following leads to a replacement of the plant community in an ecosystem undergoing succession? A. Pollution B. Herbivory C. Parasitism D. Abiotic factors E. Intraspecific competition 35. An association between two organisms in which one benefits and neither is harmed is called A. commensalism B. mutualism C. parasitism D. predation E. omnivore Questions 36-37 refer to the plant groups below. I. Angiosperms II. Gymnosperms III. Horsetails, ferns, club mosses (lycophytes and pterophytes) IV. True mosses, liverworts, and hornworts (bryophtyes) 36. Which plants contain tracheid and vessel element cells? A. I only7 B. II only C. I and II D. I, II, and III E. I, II, III, and IV 37. Which plants produce spores instead of seeds? A. I, II, and III B. II, III, and IV C. II and IV D. III and IV E. IV only 38. What would happen to a blood cell moved from an isotonic solution to a hypertonic solution? A. The cell would swell. B. The cell would shrivel up. C. The cell would immediately lyse. D. The cell membrane would be reinforced. E. Nothing; the cell would be in equilibrium. 39. Identify the organism shown using the following dichotomous key. 1a Abdomen has distinct segments go to 2 1b Abdomen lacks distinct segments go to 3 2a Pedipalps (large “pincers”) in front of shorter legs go to 4 2b Long and slender legs, no pedipalps Opiliones 3a Body is divided into two main parts Araneae 3b Body is not divided into two parts and is oval in shape Acari8 4a No stinger is present at the end of the abdomen Pseudoscorpiones 4b A stinger is present at the end of the abdomen Scorpiones A. Acari B. Araneae C. Opiliones D. Scorpiones E. Pseudoscorpiones Questions 40-41 refer to the following population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium: Approximately 4% of the turtle population in the local pond shows the recessive phenotype — long nose (nn). 40. What is the frequency of the dominant allele (N) in the population? (A) 0.16 (B) 0.20 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.32 (E) 0.80 41. What is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population? (A) 0.08 (B) 0.24 (C) 0.32 (D) 0.48 (E) 0.64 Questions 42-47 refer to the following pairs of organisms: (A) cyanobacteria and algae (B) algae and fungi (C) mosses and ferns (D) ferns and gymnosperms (E) gymnosperms and angiosperms 42. One produces seeds, whereas the other docs not. 43. One produces fruits, whereas the other does not. 44. One has vascular tissue, whereas the other docs not. 45. One is a prokaryote, whereas the other is a eukaryote. 46. One photosynthesizes, whereas the other docs not. 47. One produces naked seeds, whereas the ocher produces seeds enclosed in maternally derived tissue.9 48. Which of the following statements about succession is correct? (A) All farm ponds will eventually fill in and dry up. (B) Secondary succession involves the formation of dirt and soil. (C) Climax communities are not subject to change. (D) Random events play little, if any, part in succession. (E) In temperate deciduous forests, oaks and hickories are replaced by pines and furs. 49. The undershoot during an action potential is the result of (A) the sodium gates being closed and the potassium gate open. (B) the sodium gates being closed and the potassium gate closed. (C) the sodium gates being open and the potassium gate closed. (D) the sodium gales being open and the potassium gate open. (E) one of the sodium gates being open, one closed, and the potassium gate open. Questions 50-53 refer to the following experiment. Diuretics arc substances that help eliminate water from the body. The effects of various substances were tested on several volunteers. All volunteers had a mass of 70 kg. They drank nothing for eight hours before the test and urinated just prior to ingesting the test substance. The three substances (water, caffeine, and salt) were tested on three separate days. The results are shown in the tables below.10 50. Which of the following substances could be classified as a diuretic? I. Caffeine II. Sodium III. Water (A) I only (B) II only (C) I and II only (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III 51. Which graph best represents the change in urine volume when ingesting caffeine?11 52. The purpose of ingesting the plain water (Table 3) was to (A) rehydrate the volunteers (B) dissolve the substances (C) act as a control (D) flush out the kidneys (E) act as a positive test substance 53. Based on the results in Table 2, if a volunteer were to ingest 4.5 g sodium chloride dissolved in 100 ml water, what would be the approximate predicted urine volume collected after one hour? (A) 20 ml (B) 30 ml (C) 40 ml (D) 50 ml (E) 60 ml Questions 54-57 The following experiment was performed to test the effect of an auxin on plant growth. The auxin was dissolved in a gelatin block; gelatin docs not affect the biological activity of the auxin. Several plant seedlings were prepared as described below and growth was measured every five days.12 54. Based on the results of the experiment, one can conclude that the tip of the plant contains (A) gelatin (B) water (C) auxin (D) paste (E) nothing significant 55. Which of the following plants in the experiment acted as a control? I. Plant 1 II. Plants 2 and 3 III. Plant 5 (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II only (E) I, II, and III 56. What proves that auxin is necessary for plant growth? (A) Plant 1 grew faster than Plants 2 or 3. (B) Plant 4 grew faster than Plants 2 or 3. (C) Plant 5 grew faster than Plant 1. (D) Plant 3 grew faster than Plant 2. (E) Plant 4 grew faster than Plant 5. 57. In a separate experiment, an auxin/gelatin block applied to only half the cut edge of the tip caused the plant to grow and bend in the opposite direction. For example, if the auxin/gelatin block was applied to the left side of the cut edge, the plant grew and bent toward the right. Which of the following is the most13 likely explanation for this observation? (A) Sunlight caused the plant to bend. (B) The plant exhibited gravitropism. (C) Auxin stimulated cell division on the opposite side of the plant. (D) Auxin stimulated cell division on the same side of the plant. (E) Auxin stimulated cell growth toward a light source. 58. A fungus infection affected nearly all the oak trees in a particular forest so that the coloration of the bark turned almost black. Scientists studying the diseased trees discovered that a moth population that inhabited the forest changed from being light brown to being almost black. Which of the following would best explain that color change of the moth population? (A) The moths developed darker wings to blend in with the trees. (B) The fungus infected the moths as well as the oak trees. (C) The almost black moths within the population were the only ones to survive once the trees darkened because of the fungus infection. (D) The moths were the first to change color, which caused the trees to darken. (E) The fungus caused mutations to occur in the moths as well as in the oak trees. Questions 59-60 The following question refers to this graph that shows the rate at which relative amounts of oxygen bound to hemoglobin change as the partial pressure of oxygen changes. 59. Based on this graph, which of the following statements is true? (A) At oxygen concentration 40 mm Hg, hemoglobin A is 40% saturated with oxygen, while hemoglobin B is at 20% saturation. (B) At oxygen concentration 60 mm Hg, hemoglobin B is 100% saturated with oxygen. (C) Hemoglobin A becomes 100% saturated with oxygen at 60 mm Hg.14 (D) Hemoglobins A and B become saturated with oxygen at the same concentration of O2. (E) Neither hemoglobin A nor hemoglobin B ever becomes 100% saturated with oxygen. 60. According to the graph, what generality can be drawn about hemoglobin AorB? (A) Hemoglobin B has a greater affinity for oxygen than does hemoglobin A. (B) Hemoglobin B would more easily drop off oxygen at body ceils than hemoglobin A. (C) Hemoglobin B would more easily pick up oxygen in the lungs than hemoglobin A. (D) Hemoglobin A is structurally identical to hemoglobin B; however, they function differently. (E) Hemoglobin A is found in adults, while hemoglobin B is found in fetuses and newborns only. SAT Biology E/M Subject Test BIOLOGY-E TEST 61. The diagram represents the biomass of different trophic levels in terrestrial ecosystem. Which level represents producers? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 62. All of the following can be considered decomposers EXCEPT A. fungi B. bacteria C. hyenas D. earthworms E. dung beetles 63. Which of the following remove nitrogen from the atmosphere? I. Denitrifying bacteria II. Industrial fertilizer production III. Lightning IV. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria A. I and II only15 B. I and III only C. I, II, and III D. II, III, and IV E. I, II, III, and IV 64. A small isolated population found on a remote island is more likely to undergo speciation than a large widespread population because a small isolated population (A) is more susceptible to genetic drift. (B) inherently contains much greater genetic diversity. (C) is more readily adaptable to extreme environmental changes. (D) is more likely to migrate to other islands or the nearest mainland. (E) has a greater likelihood of containing sterile hybrid individuals. 65. The most pressing ecological problem facing the world today is (A) the greenhouse effect. (B) human population growth. (C) the ozone problem. (D) limited resources to feed, clothe, and house individuals. (E) the amount of garbage created daily. Questions 66-69 refer to the following information. An investigator went to Central America to study oropendulas, which are communal nesting birds. Another species of bird, the cowbird, sometimes lay its eggs in the nests of oropendulas. Some of the populations of oropendulas throw the cowbird eggs out of the nest, and some don't. The investigator was interested in finding out why some birds would raise other species as their own but others would toss them out. By watching the nests closely, he found that blowflies lay their eggs in the nests of oropendulas, and that the young larvae, maggots, feed on the young birds. If young cowbirds are in the nest, the precocious cowbirds cat the blowfly larvae, protecting the young oropendulas. In colonics of oropendulas that discriminate against cowbirds, throwing them from the nest, the blowflies are not eaten by cowbirds. These colonies of oropendulas build their nests close to a particular wasp colony, and the wasps cat the blowflies. 66. The relationship between the oropendulas that don't discriminate against cowbirds and the cowbirds is one of (A) commensalism. (B) predation. (C) mutualism. (D) competition. (E) annilism.16 67. The relationship between the blowfly and the cowbirds that are associated with the non-discriminating oropendulas is one of (A) commensalism. (B) predation. (C) mutualism. (D) competition. (E) annilism. 68. The relationship between the oropendulas that discriminate against cowbirds and the cowbirds is one of (A) commensalism. (B) predation. (C) mutualism. (D) competition. (E) annilism. 69. At some point in their development, chordates possess all of the following EXCEPT (A) a dorsal hollow nerve cord (B) a notochord (C) gill slits (D) postanal tail (E) an exoskeleton Questions 70-71 refer to the diagram below.17 70. Can both animals and plants obtain their nitrogen from the atmosphere? (A) Yes, both animals and plants take in nitrogen during respiration. (B) Yes, most of the nitrogen in the cycle is in the atmosphere. (C) No, only plants can take in nitrogen from the atmosphere. (D) No, they must consume it through eating or uptake from the soil. (E) No, they must obtain it through symbiotic relationships. 71. Bacteria in the soil are (A) primary producers (B) primary consumers (C) secondary consumers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers Questions 72-73 Nitrogen fertilizer has been applied yearly since 1850 to an experimental farm in the18 United States. These three graphs show the data collected over 100 years until 1950. 72. Which statement most accurately describes the information shown on these graphs? (A) There were the fewest number of species of plants in 1850. (B) There was the least biomass in 1850. (C) There was a decline in diversity over 100 years. (D) In 1875, there were more species of plant but less biomass than in 1850. (E) The number of species of plants and the biomass increased from 1850 to 1950. 73. What is the most likely cause of the change over 100 years? (A) There was less air pollution and therefore more sunlight in 1850. (B) Global warming occurred. (C) Natural ecological succession occurred. (D) Global warming was responsible for a decrease in biomass. (E) Plants that could utilize nitrogen most efficiently had the selective advantage.19 Questions 74-75 Refer to the climate graph below. 74. Which environmental condition(s) are shown on this graph? (A) Alternating wet and dry seasons; temperatures that spike in summer and dip very Jew in fiercely cold winters (B) Cold temperatures in the summer with warm temperatures in the winter, precipitation varies from month to month (C) High temperatures most of the year with dry summer months and wet winter months (D) High temperatures in the summer; fiercely cold winter with little or no rainfall most months (E) High even temperatures all year; receives about 200 mm of rain per month all year long 75. Which biome is described by this graph? (A) Tropical rain forest (B) Arctic tundra (C) Taiga (D) Desert (E) Grasslands Questions 76-78 This sketch shows the flow of energy through principal trophic levels in an ecosystem.20 76. Which level has the greatest biomass? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D 77. Which level has the fewest numbers of organisms? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D 78. Which organisms most likely occupy level D? (A) Bacteria (B) Snakes (C) Bats (D) Cows (E) Humans Questions 79-80 The following graphs show the growth of two closely related species of paramecia, both when grown alone (Figure 1) and when grown together (Figure 2). Both species consume bacteria as their food source and reproduce by binary fission as often as several times a day.21 79. The data in Figure 2 indicate that (A) P. aurelia is preying on P. caudata (B) P. aurelia is a better competitor thanP. caudata (C) P. aurelia and P. caudata are in a symbioticrelationship (D) P. aurelia is a parasite of P. caudata (E) P. aurelia grew better when combined withP. caudata than it did when grown alone 80. Paramecia are members of the kingdom (A) fungi (B) animalia (C) archaea (D) protista (E) plantae Questions 81-82 refer to the following table. 81. What would be the DNA triplet that would code for the addition of arginine to a polypeptide? (A) C-G-A (B) G-C-T (C) C-C-T (D) T-A-C (E) G-C-U22 82. Which amino acid would he attached to a polypeptide chain if the amino acid was attached to the anticodon A-A-A? (A) phenylalanine (B) lysine (C) valine (D) a stop codon (E) cannot be determined from the information given 83. The number of base pairs in a typical bacterium is about ________, while the number in human cells is around ________. (A) 3 million, 3 billion (B) 1 million, 1 billion (C) 3,000, 3 million (D) 1,000, 1 million (E) 1 billion, 12 trillion 84. The open, less compacted form of DNA that is available for transcription is known as the (A) promoter. (B) enhancer. (C) operator. (D) euchromatin. (E) heterochromatin. 85. In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place? A. G0 B. G1 C. G2 D. M E. S 86. A horse has 64 chromosomes, while a zebra has 46. In rare cases, it is possible to cause these two species to hybridize, creating offspring that are A. fertile, with 46 chromosomes B. fertile, with 55 chromosomes C. sterile, with 46 chromosomes D. sterile, with 55 chromosomes E. sterile, with 64 chromosomes 87. How does excessive heat negatively affect enzyme function? A. It alters the three-dimensional shape of die enzyme. B. It alters the amino acid sequence of the enzyme. C. It alters the composition of the active site of the enzyme. D. It alters the shape of the substrate molecule.23 E. It alters the chemical identity of the substrate. 88. This molecule would NOT be a component of (A) maltase (B) hemoglobin (C) glycogen (D) insulin (E) a plasma membrane Questions 89-93 Most bacteria can be grown in the laboratory on agar plates containing glucose as their only carbon source. Some bacteria require additional substances, such as amino acids, to be added to the growth medium. Such bacteria are termed auxotrophs. These bacteria arc denoted by the amino acid they require followed by a “-” in superscript (e.g., arg-). Bacteria that do not require that particular amino acid can be indicated by a “+” in superscript. Different strains of bacteria were grown on several plates containing a variety of nutrients. Figure 1 shows the colonies (numbered) that grew on each plate. The supplements in each plate are indicated. In a second experiment, Colony 1 was mixed with soft agar and spread over a plate so that an even lawn of bacteria grew. Bacterial lawns appear cloudy on agar plates. A single drop of an unknown organism was placed in the center of the bacterial lawn, and after 24 hours, a clear area known as a "plaque" appeared at that spot. The clear area continued to expand at a slow rate. Although new colonies could be grown from samples taken from the lawn, attempts to grow new colonies from samples taken from the plaque area were unsuccessful. 89. Referring to Figure 1, what is the genotype of Colony 3?24 (A) arg+, leu+, pro+ (B) arg+, leu-, pro+ (C) arg+, leu+, pro- (D) arg-, leu-, pro+ (E) arg-, leu-, pro- 90. Is Colony 1 an auxotroph? (A) Yes, it is able to grow in the presence of the three amino acids being tested. (B) Yes, it can only grow if glucose is present. (C) No, it is able to grow in the absence of glucose. (D) No, it is able to grow in the absence of any additional amino acids. (E) The data available are insufficient to determine the answer. 91. Which structures could be observed in a sample of Colony 2? I. Nuclei II. Ribosomes III. Mitochondria (A) I only (B) II only (C) I, and III (D) II and III only (E) I, II, and III 92. If a liquid culture medium containing glucose, leucine, and proline was inoculated with Colony 4, would bacterial growth be observed? (A) No, Colony 4 is an arginine auxotroph (arg-). (B) No, Colony 4 cannot grow in the presence of leucine. (C) Yes, Colony 4’s genotype is leu-, pro-. (D) Yes, Colony 4 requires only glucose to grow. (E) The data available are insufficient to make a prediction. 93. What is the most likely reason for the clearing (the plaque) in the lawn of bacteria in the second experiment? (A) The unknown organism is bacterial Colony2, and these bacteria are eating the bacteria from Colony 1 forming the lawn. (B) The unknown organism is a virus that is infecting the bacteria and causing them to lyse (killing them). (C) The drop placed in the center of the lawn contained a strong acid that destroyed the bacteria at that spot. (D) Bacteria are very delicate, and the disturbance caused them to die. (E) The unknown organism began producing threonine, which is toxic to Colony 1.25 94. Which of the following statements about the HIV virus is NOT true? (A) The viral nucleotides contain ribose. (B) HIV contains uracil, not thymine. (C) HIV infection begins with the entrance of the virus into the host when the gp 120 and gp 41 function to pull the virus across the plasma membrane. (D) HIV makes the host cell produce reverse transcriptase. (E) Immunization against HIV has proven difficult because the vims mutates so rapidly. 95. Let X represent an atom and X* its radioactive isotope. Assume both arc taken up by living organisms. If the half-life of X* is 4,000 years, how much X* will be present in the remains of an organism that is 16,000 years old? (A) as much as a living organism (B) 4 times as much (C) 1/4 as much (D) 1/16 (E) indeterminate given the lack of climatic data 96. The pattern of DNA fragments resulting from restriction enzyme digestion of genomic DNA from two species of skunk with EcoRI show extensive similarities. This suggests that (A) the two skunks must be the same species, not different species. (B) most of the restrictions sites recognized by EcoRI are found at approximately the same distances apart in the DNA from both skunk species. (C) restriction enzyme digestion with EcoRI produces the same pattern of DNA fragments in all organisms. (D) restriction enzyme digestion with EcoRI produces the same pattern of DNA fragments in all species of skunks. (E) the genetic makeup of the two skunk species is identical. 97. How does excessive heat negatively affect enzyme function? A. It alters the three-dimensional shape of die enzyme. B. It alters the amino acid sequence of the enzyme. C. It alters the composition of the active site of the enzyme. D. It alters the shape of the substrate molecule. E. It alters the chemical identity of the substrate. Questions 98-100 refer to the following. A female chimpanzee recently gave birth to an infant while in captivity. Because the paternity of the infant is unclear, scientists tested the DNA from two male chimpanzees, along with the female and infant. The resulting electrophoresis gel is shown.26 98. Which labeled DNA fragment is largest? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 99. Which fragments must the infant have received from its father? A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 5 C. 3 and 4 D. 3 and 5 E. 4 and 5 100. Based on the gel electrophoresis result, what can be concluded? I. Male 1 could possibly be the parent. II. Male 1 can be ruled out as the parent. III. Male 2 could possibly be the parent. IV. Male 2 can be ruled out as the parent. A. II only B. I and III C. I and IV D. II and III E. II and IV271 B 26 A 51 A 76 A [Show More]

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SATPractice Test®IMPORTANT REMINDERS12A No. 2 pencil is required for the test.Sharing any questions with anyoneDo not use a mechanical pencil or pen.is a violation of Test Securityand Fairness policie...

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