TestBank for Human Physiology from Cells to Systems, 2ce Sherwood TB _Human Physiology from Cells to Systems, 2ce Sherwood TB

Document Content and Description Below

TestBank for Human Physiology from Cells to Systems, 2ce Sherwood TB _Human Physiology from Cells to Systems, 2ce Sherwood TB TestBank for Human Physiology from Cells to Systems, 2ce Sherwood TB... _Human Physiologyfrom Cells to Systems, 2ce Sherwood TBNETA ASSESSMENT Test Bank to accompany Second Canadian Edition prepared by Dr. Alice Khin University of Alberta.ii NETA Assessment: Test Bank to accompany Human Physiology, Second Canadian Edition By Sherwood, Kell, and Ward Test Bank prepared by Dr.Alice Khin, University of Alberta. NETA copy editor: Karen Rolfe Available on Instructor’s Resource CD ISBN 0176629025and at www.HumanPhysiology2Ce.nelson.com COPYRIGHT ©2013 by Nelson Education Ltd. Nelson is a registered trademark used herein under licence. All rights reserved. For more information contact Nelson, 1120 Birchmount Road, Toronto, Ontario M1K 5G4. Or you can visit our Internet site at www.nelson.com. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED. No part of this work covered by the copyright hereon may be reproduced or used in any form or by any means—graphic, electronic, or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, taping, web distribution or information storage and retrieval systems—without the written permission of the publisheriii TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1 The Foundation of Physiology .......................................................................... 1-1 Chapter 2 Cell Physiology ................................................................................................. 2-1 Chapter 3 The Central Nervous System ............................................................................. 3-1 Chapter 4 The Peripheral Nervous System: Sensory, Autonomic, Somatic ...................... 4-1 Chapter 5 Principles of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands ........................... 5-1 Chapter 6 Muscle Physiology ............................................................................................ 6-1 Chapter 7 Cardiac Physiology ........................................................................................... 7-1 Chapter 8 Vascular Physiology .......................................................................................... 8-1 Chapter 9 The Blood .......................................................................................................... 9-1 Chapter 10 Body Defences ................................................................................................ 10-1 Chapter 11 The Respiratory System .................................................................................. 11-1 Chapter 12 The Urinary System ........................................................................................ 12-1 Chapter 13 Fluid and Acid–Base Balance ......................................................................... 13-1 Chapter 14 The Digestive System ...................................................................................... 14-1 Chapter 15 Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation ................................................. 15-1 Chapter 16 The Endocrine Glands ..................................................................................... 16-1 Chapter 17 The Reproductive System ............................................................................... 17-1iv PREFACE In most post-secondary courses, a large percentage of student assessment is based on multiplechoice testing. Many instructors use multiple-choice reluctantly, believing that it is a methodology best used for testing what a student remembers rather than what she or he has learned. Nelson Education Ltd. understands that a good quality multiple-choice test bank can provide the means to measure higher-level thinking skills as well as recall. Recognizing the importance of multiple-choice testing in today’s classroom, we have created NETA—the Nelson Education Teaching Advantage program—to ensure the value of our high quality test banks. The NETA program was created in partnership with David DiBattista, a 3M National Teaching Fellow, professor of psychology at Brock University, and researcher in the area of multiplechoice testing. NETA ensures that subject-matter experts who author test banks have had training in two areas: avoiding common errors in test construction, and developing multiplechoice test questions that ―get beyond remembering‖ to assess higher-level thinking. All NETA test banks include David DiBattista’s guide for instructors, ―Multiple Choice Tests: Getting Beyond Remembering.‖ This guide has been designed to assist you in using Nelson test banks to achieve your desired outcomes in your course. The Test Bank for Sherwood, Kell, Ward, Human Physiology, Second Canadian Edition] has been revised for Canadian students by Dr. Alice Khin, University of Alberta. The multiplechoice questions were written and edited to conform to NETA guidelines, which emphasize the development of higher-order thinking and the effective construction of questions. NETA principles of question construction help eliminate ambiguity, arguable answers, guesswork, and unconscious cues to test-savvy students, resulting in a test that accurately reflects student understanding. The Test Bank offers over 3678 questions, including 1264 multiple choice, 990 true/false, 5 short answer, 10 problems, 67essay questions, and 809 individual matching items. In addition to providing a variety of questions related to each chapter objective, this test bank also employs a series of tags that can help design effective, balanced tests by the measure of course outcomes. All of the tags are included with the question in the test bank. These tags include:  ANS: The correct answer.  PTS: The number of points an instructor can assign for each question. The default is 1 point.v  BLM: The category from Bloom’s taxonomy for learning (Remember or Higher Order). This category is included to assist instructors in assessing student’s higher-order cognitive skills.  REF: The text page that the question relates to. The Computerized Test Bank All items from this Test Bank are also available in ExamView®, a computerized testing package with online capabilities. ExamView® helps you create, customize and deliver both print and online tests in minutes. Its ―what you see is what you get‖ interface and easy-to-use test wizard guide you step-by-step through the test creation process. The ExamView® Test Bank files and software are included on the Instructor’s Resource CD in Windows PC and Macintosh platforms (ISBN 0176629025).Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-1 Chapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is correctly matched? a. anatomy/body function b. bacteria/multicellular c. organs/one primary tissue d. physiology/body function ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 3 BLM: Remember 2. Which of the following is a mechanistic rather than a teleological explanation of a physiological phenomenon? a. A person breathes to obtain oxygen. b. A person sweats to cool off. c. A person’s stomach secretes digestive juices because it is stimulated by the nervous system. d. A person’s heart beats to pump blood. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 3 BLM: Higher Order 3. When a blood capillary is cut, a clot forms under which feedback control system? a. negative feedback b. positive feedback c. extrinsic control d. feedforward ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 16 BLM: Higher Order 4. Which of the following type of tissues uses the terminology “smooth”? a. connective tissue b. epithelial tissue c. glandular tissue d. muscle tissue ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 6 BLM: Remember 5. Which of the following is an example of a positive feedback system? a. body temperature regulation b. birth of a baby c. room temperature regulation d. blood pH regulation ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 16 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-2 6. Which of the following tissues can be found on the outer layer of the skin? a. connective tissue b. endocrine tissue c. epithelial tissue d. muscle tissue ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 6 BLM: Remember 7. Which statement is correct for the respiratory system? a. It eliminates unwanted substances from the body. b. It consists of the heart, blood vessels, and lungs. c. It plays an important role in maintaining the proper pH of the internal environment by adjusting the rate of removal of acid-forming carbon dioxide. d. It is responsible for taking up nutrients for the body. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 12 BLM: Higher Order 8. Which of the following statements is NOT true for connective tissue? a. Bone is a connective tissue. b. Blood is a connective tissue. c. Elastin can be found in the extracellular material of connective tissue. d. Connective tissue forms coverings and linings of the body cavities. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 6 BLM: Remember 9. Which sequence represents the correct hierarchy of biological organization? a. cell, organ, tissue, system, organism b. cell, tissue, organ, system, organism c. tissue, cell, system, organism, organ d. organ, tissue, cell, organism, system ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 4 BLM: Remember 10. Which statement is correct for extracellular fluid? a. It is the external environment of the body. b. It is inside each cell. c. It consists of the plasma and interstitial fluid. d. It consists of plasma only. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 10 BLM: RememberChapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-3 11. Which of the following systems mainly distributes nutrients and oxygen through the body? a. circulatory system b. digestive system c. endocrine system d. integumentary system ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 12 BLM: Remember 12. Which statement concerning negative feedback is FALSE? a. Negative feedback exists when a change in a regulated variable triggers a response that opposes the change. b. Negative feedback exists when the input to a system increases the output and the output limits its own production by inhibiting the input. c. With negative feedback, a control system’s input and output continue to enhance each other. d. Most of the body’s homeostatic control mechanisms operate on the principle of negative feedback. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 16 BLM: Higher Order 13. Which statement regarding endocrine glands is correct? a. They consist of ducts. b. They secrete hormones internally into the blood. c. They are derived from connective tissue. d. They include the salivary glands. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 6 BLM: Remember 14. Which of the following is/are a type of connective tissue? a. exocrine glands b. bone c. blood d. both bone and blood. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 6 BLM: RememberChapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-4 15. The hormone insulin enhances the transport of glucose (sugar) from the blood into most of the body’s cells. Its secretion is controlled by a negative-feedback system between the concentration of glucose in the blood and the insulin-secreting cells. Therefore, which of the following statements is correct? a. A decrease in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn further lowers the blood glucose concentration. b. An increase in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn lowers the blood glucose concentration. c. A decrease in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn increases the blood glucose concentration. d. An increase in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which further increases the blood glucose concentration. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 16 BLM: Higher Order 16. Sweating is initiated in response to a rise in body temperature that occurs on exposure to a hot environment. Evaporation of the sweat cools the body. What kind of example is this? a. negative feedback b. positive feedback c. feedforward mechanism d. intrinsic (local) control mechanism ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 16 BLM: Higher Order 17. What are the two systems concerned with the control of body functioning by extrinsic controls? a. nervous and respiratory b. nervous and endocrine c. endocrine and respiratory d. endocrine and lymphatic ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 16 BLM: Higher Order 18. In which of the body systems is calcium mainly stored? a. endocrine system b. integumentary system c. muscular system d. skeletal system ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 12 BLM: Remember 19. Which statements regarding stem cells is correct? a. They are well differentiated embryonic cells. b. They may reproduce just one time. c. Their daughter cells may differentiate into a number of different specialized cell types. d. They cannot be readily grown. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 10 BLM: RememberChapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-5 20. Platelets, which have negatively charged cell membranes, adhere to the positively charged surface of a torn blood vessel. As they do so, they release substances that attract more platelets to the damaged area and change the charge on their cell membranes to positive. More platelets adhere to the damaged area. The cycle repeats until the damaged area is sealed. What sort of feedback loop is formed? a. This is a positive feedback loop because the response reinforces the initial change. b. This is a negative feedback loop because the response opposes the initial stimulus. c. This is a negative feedback loop because having too many platelets in one area blocks blood flow. d. This is a positive feedback loop because the response prevents a person from hemorrhaging to death. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 16 BLM: Higher Order 21. In a negative feedback loop, which component produces a response that changes a controlled condition? a. receptor b. control centre c. effector d. set point ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 16 BLM: Remember 22. Which statement does NOT describe the study of physiology? a. identifying the location of the stomach and how it is related to the location of pancreas b. describing the factors that affect cardiac output c. describing the process by which nerve impulses are transmitted d. explaining how the hormone thyroxin is synthesized in the thyroid glands ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 3 BLM: Higher order TRUE/FALSE 1. Cells eliminate carbon dioxide as a waste product. ANS: T PTS: 1 2. All cells are capable of reproducing. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-6 3. Highly differentiated tissues such as nervous and cardiac muscle are incapable of new cell production. ANS: F PTS: 1 4. Enzymes are carbohydrates. ANS: F PTS: 1 5. A mechanistic explanation of why a person breathes is to obtain oxygen. ANS: F PTS: 1 6. A mechanistic explanation of why a person sweats is to cool off. ANS: F PTS: 1 7. Tissues are composed of two or more types of cells organized to perform a particular function or functions. ANS: F PTS: 1 8. Muscle cells produce movement by expanding. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. Blood is a type of connective tissue. ANS: T PTS: 1 10. Glands are formed during embryonic development by pockets of epithelial tissue that dip inward from the surface. ANS: T PTS: 1 11. Endocrine glands secrete hormones through ducts into the blood. ANS: F PTS: 1 12. A lumen is a cavity within a hollow organ or tube. ANS: T PTS: 1 13. Organs are composed of two or more kinds of primary tissues. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-7 14. The external environment is found outside cells but inside the body. ANS: F PTS: 1 15. Factors that are homeostatically regulated are maintained at a constant, fixed level unless disease is present. ANS: F PTS: 1 16. The lungs remove carbon dioxide from the blood plasma. ANS: T PTS: 1 17. To sustain life, the internal environment must be maintained in an absolutely unchanging state. ANS: F PTS: 1 18. Not all activities performed by the muscular and nervous systems are directed toward maintaining homeostasis. ANS: T PTS: 1 19. The plasma surrounds and bathes all of the body’s cells. ANS: F PTS: 1 20. The concentration of salt in the extracellular fluid influences how water enters and leaves cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 21. Exocrine glands are the only structures in the body capable of secretion. ANS: F PTS: 1 22. Secretion refers to the release from a cell, in response to appropriate stimulation, of specific products that have in large part been synthesized by the cell. ANS: T PTS: 1 23. The endocrine system functions with the circulatory system for the transport of hormones. ANS: T PTS: 1 24. Some organs, such as the heart, skin, and intestine, belong to more than one body system. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-8 25. The skin is part of the integumentary system. ANS: T PTS: 1 26. Negative feedback operates to maintain a controlled factor in a relatively steady state, whereas positive feedback moves a controlled variable even further from a steady state. ANS: T PTS: 1 27. With positive feedback, a control system’s input and output continue to enhance each other. ANS: T PTS: 1 28. Feedforward mechanisms bring about a response in reaction to a change in a regulated variable. ANS: F PTS: 1 29. Most homeostatic mechanisms operate on the principle of positive feedback. ANS: F PTS: 1 30. All proteins are enzymes. ANS: F PTS: 1 31. All stem cells are found in the umbilical cord. ANS: F PTS: 1 32. Intestine, heart, and skin do not consist of hormone-secreting cells. ANS: F PTS: 1 COMPLETION 1. The smallest unit capable of carrying out the processes associated with life is the ____________________. ANS: cell PTS: 1 2. ____________________ cells are specialized to send electrical signals. ANS: Nerve PTS: 1Chapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-9 3. ____________________ muscle tissue composes the heart. ANS: Cardiac PTS: 1 4. ____________________ are composed of two or more types of primary tissue organized to perform a particular function or functions. ANS: Organs PTS: 1 5. ____________________ glands secrete through ducts in the skin. ANS: Exocrine PTS: 1 6. A ____________________ is a collection of organs that perform related functions and interact to accomplish a common activity that is essential for survival of the whole body. ANS: body system PTS: 1 7. The internal environment consists of the ____________________, which is made up of ____________________, the fluid portion of the blood, and ____________________, which surrounds and bathes all cells. ANS: extracellular fluid, plasma, interstitial fluid PTS: 1 8. The ____________________ is the liquid part of the blood. ANS: plasma PTS: 1 9. The body cells are in direct contact with and make life-sustaining exchanges with the ____________________. ANS: internal environment extracellular fluid PTS: 1Chapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-10 10. ____________________ refers to maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment. ANS: Homeostasis PTS: 1 11. ____________________ tissue is composed of cells specialized for contraction and force generation. ANS: Muscle PTS: 1 12. The ____________________ system consists of all hormone-secreting tissues. ANS: endocrine PTS: 1 13. The two major control systems of the body are the ____________________ and the ____________________. ANS: nervous system, endocrine system endocrine system, nervous system PTS: 1 14. ____________________ are the blood vessels in which materials are mixed between the blood plasma and the interstitial fluid. ANS: Capillaries PTS: 1 15. The ____________________ system is the transport system of the body. ANS: circulatory PTS: 1 16. The ____________________ system eliminates waste products other than carbon dioxide and plays a key role in regulating the volume, electrolyte composition, and acidity of the extracellular fluid. ANS: urinary PTS: 1Chapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-11 17. The ____________________ system controls and coordinates bodily activities that require swift responses, especially to changes in the external environment. ANS: nervous PTS: 1 18. ____________________ refers to the abnormal functioning of the body associated with disease. ANS: Pathophysiology PTS: 1 19. Homeostasis is primarily operated by ____________________ mechanisms. ANS: negative feedback PTS: 1Chapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-12 MATCHING Indicate which tissue is being identified by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. nervous tissue b. epithelial tissue c. muscle tissue d. connective tissue 1. This tissue type is composed of cells specialized for contraction. 2. This tissue type is made up of cells specialized in the exchange of materials between the cell and its environment. 3. This tissue type connects, supports, and anchors various body parts. 4. The heart is made of this type of tissue. 5. Bone is this tissue type. 6. Glands are a derivative of this tissue type. 7. The digestive tract is lined with this tissue. 8. The brain is primarily made of this tissue. 9. The blood is this tissue type. 10. This tissue is distinguished by relatively few cells within an extracellular material. 1. ANS: C PTS: 1 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 4. ANS: C PTS: 1 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 6. ANS: B PTS: 1 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 8. ANS: A PTS: 1 9. ANS: D PTS: 1 10. ANS: D PTS: 1Chapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 1-13 Indicate the roles served by each component of this control system by using the answer code. Temperature-sensitive nerve cells monitor the body temperature and provide information about its status to a temperature-control centre in the hypothalamus, a part of the brain. The hypothalamus can bring about adjustments in body temperature by inducing shivering or sweating, among other things. a. controlled variable b. integrator c. sensor d. effector 11. body temperature 12. temperature-sensitive nerve cells 13. skeletal muscles and sweat glands 14. hypothalamus 11. ANS: A PTS: 1 12. ANS: C PTS: 1 13. ANS: D PTS: 1 14. ANS: B PTS: 1 By using the following answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all), indicate whether the following physiological event represents a. intrinsic control b. negative feedback control c. positive feedback control d. feedforward control 15. increased blood flow into muscle tissue in response to a localized increase in carbon dioxide 16. the release of a hormone to lower blood calcium level when it gets too high 17. increased cardiac activity to elevate blood pressure when systemic pressure is low 18. rapid clotting of blood due to increasing levels of platelet activity at a site of vessel damage 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 16. ANS: B PTS: 1 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 18. ANS: C PTS: 1Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-1 Chapter 2: Cell Physiology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which component is NOT always found in a typical human cell? a. cytosol b. DNA c. flagellum d. plasma membrane ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 24 BLM: Remember 2. Which structure is NOT located in the cytosol of the cell? a. ER b. lysosome c. mitochondrion d. nucleolus ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 3. Which organelle is NOT covered by a membrane? a. Golgi body b. lysosome c. mitochondrion d. ribosome ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 4. Which statement concerning cells is NOT correct? a. Cells serve as the living building blocks of the body. b. The average human cell is about 100 times smaller than the smallest particle visible by the unaided eye. c. Inanimate chemical molecules are organized within each cell into a living entity. d. Cells are generally colourless and transparent so they must be stained for visualization under a microscope. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 23 BLM: Remember 5. Which statement regarding the plasma membrane is NOT correct? a. It serves as a mechanical barrier to hold in the contents of the cell. b. It selectively controls movement of molecules between the ECF and the ICF. c. It contains proteins that provide receptor sites for membrane functions. d. It has cholesterol to determine the fluidity of the membrane. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 32 BLM: RememberChapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-2 6. Which statement is correct for the rough endoplasmic reticulum? a. It does not contain ribosomes. b. It synthesizes proteins for export from the cell or for use in construction of a new cellular membrane. c. It is abundant in cells that specialize in lipid metabolism. d. It is abundant in liver cells. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 7. The rough ER is a membranous system. With what is it associated? a. chromosomes b. lysosomes c. microfilaments d. ribosomes ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 8. Of the organelles below, which occurs in the lowest numbers within a typical human cell? a. mitochondria b. vaults c. peroxisomes d. nuclei ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 24 BLM: Remember 9. What can be found within the nucleus? a. deoxyribonucleic acid b. cytosol c. plasma membrane d. endoplasmic reticulum ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 24 BLM: Remember 10. Which statement is NOT correct regarding ribosomes? a. They are composed of RNA. b. They assemble polypeptides. c. They may be bound to endoplasmic reticulum. d. They are covered by a membrane. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 11. Which statement is correct for smooth endoplasmic reticulum? a. It is most abundant in cells specialized for protein secretion. b. It gives rise to transport vesicles containing newly synthesized molecules wrapped in a layer of smooth ER membrane. c. It consists of stacks of relatively flattened sacs called cisternae. d. It has many ribosomes. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: RememberChapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-3 12. Which structure is NOT associated with the secretion of proteins produced by ER? a. Golgi complex b. smooth ER c. transport vesicles d. lysosomal membrane ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 13. Which statement is NOT correct regarding the Golgi complex? a. It sorts and directs products to their final destination. b. It modifies proteins chemically. c. It produces secretory vesicles. d. It is responsible for protein synthesis. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 53 BLM: Remember 14. Which of the following does NOT apply to lysosomes? a. They contain powerful hydrolytic enzymes. b. They generate hydrogen peroxide. c. They remove useless parts of the cell. d. They attack foreign materials engulfed by the cell by means of endocytosis. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 15. Which of the following refers to extrusion of materials to the exterior of the cell through the plasma membrane? a. endocytosis b. exocytosis c. phagocytosis d. pinocytosis ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 53 BLM: Remember 16. Which of the following refers to the form of endocytosis in which whole cells such as bacteria are brought in? a. exocytosis b. pinocytosis c. receptor-mediated endocytosis d. phagocytosis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 51 BLM: Remember 17. What does the SNARE complex provide? a. recognition of foreign proteins in the cell b. binding of correct enzyme with correct substrate c. means to deliver vesicles to an appropriate site d. receptor-mediated endocytosis ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 53 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-4 18. Which statement does NOT correctly characterize mitochondria? a. They have an inner fluid filled space called the cristae. b. They possess their own DNA. c. They are the site for cell respiration. d. Their inner membranes possess electron carriers. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 19. Where do the citric acid cycle reactions occur? a. cytoplasm b. cytosol c. inner-mitochondrial membrane d. mitochondrial matrix ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 27 BLM: Remember 20. What accounts for the most ATP production? a. Kreb’s cycle b. citric acid cycle c. NADH d. electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 26 BLM: Higher Order 21. In aerobic respiration process of the cells, where is CO2 released? a. during glycolysis b. in the electron transport chain c. during Kreb’s cycle d. during fermentation ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 31 BLM: Higher Order 22. What might happen if you did NOT get enough niacin in your diet? a. Glucose would not be able to be cleaved. b. Available FAD would decrease. c. When the 3-carbon chain is oxidized in glycolysis, electrons would not be able to be captured. d. Only fermentation would be possible. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 27 BLM: Higher Order 23. What is the carbon-based end product (chain) of glycolysis? a. NADH b. ATP c. pyruvic acid d. FADH2 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 27 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-5 24. Why does anaerobic respiration take place when O2 is unavailable? a. to continue releasing at least some energy from molecules and generate ATP b. to prevent cell death c. to make use of available glucose d. to prevent protein breakdown ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 31 BLM: Higher Order 25. What does chemiosmosis do? a. releases CO2 b. extracts energy from an H+ concentration gradient c. reduces NAD d. ferments pyruvic acid to lactic acid ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 30 BLM: Higher Order 26. Which statement is correct for the electron transport chains? a. They are “circuits” for small amounts of electricity to pass through. b. They are made of proteins. c. They deliver energy to cytochrome to pump H+ into the intermembrane space. d. They do not need oxygen to be available. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 29 BLM: Higher Order 27. Where are cristae found? a. lysosome b. mitochondrion c. nucleolus d. nucleus ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 28. Which of the following is NOT a correct association? a. ATP/high-energy bonds b. electron transport chain/mitochondrion c. glycolysis/anaerobic d. pyruvic acid/five-carbon molecule ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 26 BLM: Higher Order 29. Which statement is correct for an anaerobic condition? a. Oxygen is plenty. b. The degradation of glucose cannot proceed beyond glycolysis. c. Mitochondrial processing of nutrient molecules takes place. d. It produces a high yield of oxygen molecules. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 31 BLM: RememberChapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-6 30. What is the universal energy currency in cells? a. ATP b. glucose c. glycogen d. insulin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 24 BLM: Remember 31. Which statement regarding the citric acid cycle is NOT correct? a. It occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. b. Carbon dioxide is released. c. Several ATP molecules are produced for each cycle. d. Acetyl CoA and oxaloacetic CoA acid initially react to form citric acid. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 27 BLM: Remember 32. Which molecule directly enters the citric acid cycle? a. acetyl CoA b. adenosine diphosphate c. citric acid d. oxaloacetic acid ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 27 BLM: Remember 33. What is the function of ATP synthase? a. to act enzymatically b. to build membranes c. to carry hydrogen d. to synthesize ATP ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 29 BLM: Remember 34. Which statement is correct for NADH? a. It is an energy carrier. b. It plays a role in cellular respiration. c. It is used in glycolysis. d. It is used in the citric acid cycle. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 29 BLM: Higher Order 35. What is the purpose of glycolysis? a. to produce citric acid b. to liberate energy from glucose c. to produce large numbers of ATP d. to trap energy in FADH2 ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 26 BLM: RememberChapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-7 36. What is the definition of aerobic? a. in the blood b. with carbon dioxide c. with oxygen d. without carbon dioxide ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 26 BLM: Remember 37. Which statement is NOT correct about vaults? a. They may play a role in drug resistance. b. Their shape resembles octagonal barrels. c. They are smaller than ribosomes. d. They are a type of organelle. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 38. Which element is NOT a part of the cytoskeleton? a. inclusions b. intermediate filaments c. microfilaments d. microtubular lattice ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 39. Which statement is correct regarding the bending movements of cilia and flagella? a. They are accomplished by alternate solation and gelation of the cytosol. b. They involve the alternate assembly and disassembly of actin filaments. c. They are produced by the sliding of adjacent microtubule doublets past one another. d. They are important in providing motility for many organisms but are not of any use in humans. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 40. Which organelles contain oxidative enzymes? a. peroxisomes and lysosomes b. mitochondria and nucleus c. lysosomes and vaults d. ribosomes and microtublues ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 41. Which statement is correct for glycolysis? a. It yields two molecules of ATP for each molecule of glucose processed. b. It always requires oxygen. c. It takes place in the mitochondrial matrix. d. It takes place in the mitochondrial inner membrane cristae. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 26 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-8 42. Which statement is correct for ATP synthase? a. It transports hydrogen ions from the matrix to the intermembrane space of the mitochondrion. b. It is activated by the flow of hydrogen ions from the intermembrane space to the matrix. c. It enzymatically converts ATP to ADP. d. It yields two molecules of ATP. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 29 BLM: Remember 43. Which statement is correct for Nicotimamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)? a. It converts ADP + Pi to ATP. b. It is found in the cytosol. c. It is a hydrogen carrier molecule. d. It is found in the cytosol and is a hydrogen carrier molecule. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 27 BLM: Remember 44. Which of the following is NOT an action of the cytosol? a. duplication of chromosomes b. enzymatic regulation of intermediary metabolism c. storage of fat and glycogen d. synthesis of proteins for use in the cytosol ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 45. What is the function of the microtrabecular lattice? a. to maintain asymmetrical cell shapes b. to suspend and functionally link the largest cytoskeletal elements and organelles c. to provide cellular contractile systems d. to serve as mechanical stiffeners ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 46. Which of the following is NOT true of the cytoskeleton? a. It supports the plasma membrane and is responsible for the particular shape, rigidity, and spatial geometry of each different cell type. b. It probably plays a role in regulating cell growth and division. c. Its elements are all rigid and permanent structures. d. It is responsible for cell contraction and cell movements. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 34 BLM: Remember 47. In which cells are actin and myosin filaments commonly found? a. epithelial cells b. muscle cells c. nerve cells d. red blood cells ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 24 BLM: RememberChapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-9 48. Which statement regarding microfilaments is NOT correct? a. They serve as mechanical stiffeners for microvilli. b. They are composed of actin subunits. c. They are the smallest elements of the cytoskeleton. d. They form mitotic spindles. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 49. Which of the following is correct about intermediate filaments? a. They comprise mitotic spindles. b. They are important in cell regions subject to mechanical stress. c. They comprise cilia. d. They comprise flagella. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Remember 50. Which statement is FALSE? a. The number of mitochondria per cell varies depending on the energy needs of each particular cell type. b. DNA is enclosed within the cell nucleus and mitochondria. c. The mitochondria DNA in our cells are copies of our parent’s. d. Mitochondria DNA has a limited ability to repair. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 25 BLM: Higher Order 51. Which of the following organelles is NOT membrane-bound? a. lysosome b. ribosome c. mitochondrion d. perioxisomes ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 25 OBJ: Remember BLM: Remember TRUE/FALSE 1. Electron microscopes are about 100 times more powerful than light microscopes. ANS: T PTS: 1 2. DNA’s genetic code is transcribed into messenger RNA. ANS: T PTS: 1 3. The cytosol is the gel-like mass of the cytoplasm. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-10 4. DNA in the nucleus has the genetic instructions to make enzymatic proteins. ANS: T PTS: 1 5. The nucleus indirectly governs most cellular activities by directing the kinds and amounts of various enzymes and other proteins that are produced by the cell. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is most abundant in cells specialized for protein secretion, whereas smooth endoplasmic reticulum is abundant in cells that specialize in lipid metabolism. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. Proteins synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum become permanently separated from the cytosol as soon as they have been synthesized. ANS: T PTS: 1 8. RER is most abundant in cells specialized for steroid production. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. The Golgi complex is functionally connected to the ER. ANS: T PTS: 1 10. The endoplasmic reticulum is one continuous organelle consisting of many tubules and cisternae. ANS: T PTS: 1 11. The lysosomes are one site of protein synthesis. ANS: F PTS: 1 12. The smooth ER specializes in protein metabolism. ANS: F PTS: 1 13. Secretory vesicles are released to the exterior of the cell by means of the process of phagocytosis. ANS: F PTS: 1 14. Secretory vesicles are about 200 times larger than transport vesicles. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-11 15. Coated vesicles enclose a representative mixture of proteins present in the Golgi sac before budding off. ANS: F PTS: 1 16. All cell organelles are renewable. ANS: T PTS: 1 17. Mitochondria are presumably descendants of primitive bacterial cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 18. Endocytosis can be accomplished by phagocytosis and pinocytosis. ANS: T PTS: 1 19. Phagocytosis is a specialized form of endocytosis used for bringing in extracellular fluids. ANS: F PTS: 1 20. The peroxisomes mainly generate hydrogen peroxide. ANS: T PTS: 1 21. Glycolysis generates ATP from glucose with high efficiency. ANS: F PTS: 1 22. ATP synthase is located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. ANS: T PTS: 1 23. Most intermediary metabolism is accomplished in the cytosol. ANS: T PTS: 1 24. Oxidative phosphorylation generates the most ATP per glucose molecule. ANS: T PTS: 1 25. Dynein is a mitochondrial enzyme. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. Cytokinesis is the division of the nucleus during mitosis. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-12 27. Amoeboid movement is accomplished by transitions of the cytosol between a gel and a solid state as a result of alternate assembly and disassembly respectively of actin filaments. ANS: T PTS: 1 28. The protective, waterproof outer layer of skin is formed by the tough skeleton of the micro trabecular lattice that persists after the surface skin cells die. ANS: F PTS: 1 29. Cilia in the respiratory tract beat in the same direction to sweep inspired particles up and out of the airways. ANS: T PTS: 1 30. Hockey is a winter sport that uses only aerobic energy supply. ANS: F PTS: 1 31. Lack of aerobic exercise can have negative health implications, such as heart disease and high blood pressure. ANS: T PTS: 1 COMPLETION 1. The three major subdivisions of a cell are the ____________________, the ____________________, and the ____________________. ANS: plasma membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm nucleus, cytoplasm, plasma membrane cytoplasm, plasma membrane, nucleus PTS: 1 2. The fluid contained within all of the cells of the body is known collectively as ____________________, and the fluid outside the cells is referred to as ____________________. ANS: intracellular fluid, extracellular fluid PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-13 3. The two major parts of the cell’s interior are the ____________________ and the ____________________. ANS: nucleus, cytoplasm cytoplasm, nucleus PTS: 1 4. ____________________ RNA carries amino acids to the sites of protein synthesis in the cell. ANS: Messenger PTS: 1 5. The ____________________ ER is the central packaging and discharge site for molecules to be transported from the ER. ANS: smooth PTS: 1 6. The signal-recognition protein recognizes both the ____________________ on the ribosome and the ____________________ on the ER then delivers the proper ribosome to the proper site on the rough ER for binding. ANS: leader sequence, ribophorin PTS: 1 7. Insulin is a long ____________________ chain. ANS: polypeptide PTS: 1 8. The ribosomes of the rough ER synthesize ____________________, whereas its membranous walls contain enzymes essential for the synthesis of ____________________. ANS: proteins, lipids PTS: 1 9. The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores ____________________ions. ANS: calcium PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-14 10. Products destined for intracellular transport are packaged in ____________________, whereas products for export are packaged in ____________________. ANS: coated vesicles, secretory vesicles PTS: 1 11. ____________________ refers to the process of an intracellular vesicle fusing with the plasma membrane, then opening and emptying its contents to the exterior. ANS: exocytosis PTS: 1 12. ____________________ is a protein responsible for pinching off an endocytic vesicle. ANS: Dynamin PTS: 1 13. Foreign material to be attacked by lysosomal enzymes is brought into the cell by the process of ____________________. ANS: endocytosis PTS: 1 14. Lysosomes contain ____________________ enzymes that are capable of digesting and removing unwanted debris from the cell. ANS: hydrolytic PTS: 1 15. Lysosomes that have completed their digestive activities are known as ____________________. ANS: residual bodies PTS: 1 16. ____________________, an enzyme found in peroxisomes, decomposes potentially toxic hydrogen peroxide. ANS: Catalase PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-15 17. ADP and Pi are formed from the breakdown of the molecule ____________________. ANS: adenosine triphosphate ATP PTS: 1 18. ____________________ refers collectively to the large set of intracellular chemical reactions that involve the degradation, synthesis, and transformation of small organic molecules. ANS: Intermediary metabolism PTS: 1 19. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide produces ____________________ and ____________________ molecules. ANS: water, oxygen oxygen, water PTS: 1 20. ____________________ is a peroxisomal enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide. ANS: Catalase PTS: 1 21. One glucose molecule is converted into two molecules of ____________________ by the end of glycolysis. ANS: pyruvic acid PTS: 1 22. The metabolism of acetyl CoA into the citric acid cycle depends on the availability of ____________________ for the cell. ANS: oxygen PTS: 1 23. The chemiosmotic mechanism involves the transport of hydrogen across the membrane of the ____________________. ANS: mitochondrion PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-16 24. Adipose tissue stores ____________________. ANS: fat PTS: 1 25. ____________________ are the dominant structural and functional components of cilia and flagella. ANS: Microtubules PTS: 1 26. Microfilaments are composed of the protein ____________________. ANS: actin PTS: 1 27. One of the diseases caused by neurofilament abnormalities is ____________________. ANS: amyotropic lateral sclerosis PTS: 1 28. A cilium or flagellum originates from the ____________________, a structure in the cell. ANS: basal body PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-17 MATCHING Indicate which of the characteristics applies to each item by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. glycolysis b. citric acid cycle c. oxidative phosphorylation 1. directly uses inspired oxygen 2. does not directly use inspired oxygen 3. takes place in the cytosol 4. takes place in the mitochondrial matrix 5. takes place on the inner mitochondrial membrane 6. low yield of ATP 7. high yield of ATP 1. ANS: C PTS: 1 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 7. ANS: C PTS: 1 Complete the sentences by matching the appropriate vesicle(s) by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. transport vesicles b. coated vesicles c. secretory vesicles 8. originate from the Golgi complex 9. originate from the endoplasmic reticulum 10. contain newly synthesized molecules 11. contents emptied to the exterior by exocytosis 12. enclosed in a clathrin framework 13. fuse with and enter the Golgi complex 14. contents become concentrated over time 15. contents are unloaded at a specific intracellular compartment 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 10. ANS: A PTS: 1 11. ANS: C PTS: 1 12. ANS: B PTS: 1 13. ANS: A PTS: 1 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 15. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-18 Match the term to its description by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. plasma membrane b. nucleus c. cytoplasm d. cytosol e. organelles f. cytoskeleton 16. houses the cell’s DNA 17. responsible for cell shape and movement 18. highly organized membrane-bound intracellular structures 19. selectively controls movement of molecules between the intracellular fluid and the extracellular fluid 20. consists of organelles and cytosol 21. site of intermediary metabolism 22. permit incompatible chemical reactions to occur simultaneously in the cell 23. separates contents of the cell from its surroundings 24. site of fat and glycogen storage 16. ANS: B PTS: 1 17. ANS: F PTS: 1 18. ANS: E PTS: 1 19. ANS: A PTS: 1 20. ANS: C PTS: 1 21. ANS: D PTS: 1 22. ANS: E PTS: 1 23. ANS: A PTS: 1 24. ANS: D PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-19 Match the term to its description by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. ER b. Golgi complex c. lysosome d. peroxisome e. mitochondrion f. vault g. free ribosome h. microtubule i. microfilament 25. contains powerful oxidative enzymes important in detoxifying various wastes 26. an important component of cilia and flagella 27. one continuous extensive organelle consisting of a network of tubules and flattened filament 28. removes unwanted cellular debris and foreign material 29. the powerhouse of the cell 30. acts as a mechanical stiffener 31. synthesizes proteins for use in the cytosol 32. consists of stacks of flattened sacs 33. shaped like an octagonal barrel 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 26. ANS: H PTS: 1 27. ANS: A PTS: 1 28. ANS: C PTS: 1 29. ANS: E PTS: 1 30. ANS: I PTS: 1 31. ANS: G PTS: 1 32. ANS: B PTS: 1 33. ANS: F PTS: 1 Match the term to its description by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. flagella b. cilia c. microvilli 34. hair-like motile protrusions 35. increase the surface area of the small intestine epithelium 36. sweep mucus and debris out of respiratory airways 37. increase the surface area of the kidney tubules 38. enable sperm to move 39. whip-like appendages 40. guide egg to oviductChapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-20 34. ANS: B PTS: 1 35. ANS: C PTS: 1 36. ANS: B PTS: 1 37. ANS: C PTS: 1 38. ANS: A PTS: 1 39. ANS: A PTS: 1 40. ANS: B PTS: 1 Match the term to its description by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. microtubules b. microfilaments c. intermediate filaments d. microtrabecular lattice 41. the largest of the cytoskeletal elements 42. present in parts of the cell subject to mechanical stress 43. smallest element visible with a conventional electron microscope 44. consist of actin 45. organizes the glycolytic enzymes in a sequential alignment 46. form the mitotic spindle 47. essential for creating and maintaining an asymmetrical cell shape 48. composed of tubulin 49. provide a pathway for axonal transport 50. visible only with a high-voltage electron microscope 51. play(s) a key role in muscle contraction 52. slide past each other to cause ciliary bending 41. ANS: A PTS: 1 42. ANS: C PTS: 1 43. ANS: B PTS: 1 44. ANS: B PTS: 1 45. ANS: D PTS: 1 46. ANS: A PTS: 1 47. ANS: A PTS: 1 48. ANS: A PTS: 1 49. ANS: A PTS: 1 50. ANS: D PTS: 1 51. ANS: B PTS: 1 52. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-21 Match the cellular protein with the correct characteristic by using the answer code. a. dynamin b. tubulin c. kinesin d. actin e. ribophorin 53. causes pinching off of endocytic vesicles 54. serve as binding sites for ribosomes 55. comprises intermediate filaments 56. comprises microtubules 57. provides for transport of vesicles 53. ANS: A PTS: 1 54. ANS: E PTS: 1 55. ANS: D PTS: 1 56. ANS: B PTS: 1 57. ANS: C PTS: 1 ESSAY 1. Describe the pathway that newly synthesized polypeptides take en route for secretion. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1 2. Describe aerobic cellular respiration from a mechanistic point of view. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1 3. How is ATP synthesized via electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation? ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1 4. Describe the major aspects of the cytoskeleton. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 2: Cell Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 2-22 5. Describe the structure and function of cilia and flagella. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1 PROBLEM 1. Michael is using the electron microscope at the hospital to review the structures of skeletal muscle cells. He notices that the skeletal muscle cells have many nuclei and are loaded with mitochondria. Why is this so? ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1 SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the differences between rough ER and smooth ER. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-1 Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which characteristic is relevant to the endocrine system rather than the nervous system? a. It releases chemicals into synaptic clefts. b. Its chemical signals operate at very short distances. c. Its speed of response is very rapid. d. Signalling may target many diverse cells. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 62 BLM: Remember 2. What is the normal sequence of structures activated for signal transmission and response in the body? a. effector, afferent neuron, interneuron, efferent neuron, receptor b. effector, efferent neuron, interneuron, afferent neuron, receptor c. receptor, afferent neuron, interneuron, efferent neuron, effector d. receptor, efferent neuron, interneuron, afferent neuron, effector ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 96 BLM: Remember 3. Which statement is/are NOT part of the peripheral nervous system? a. motor neurons b. sympathetic nervous system c. spinal cord d. autonomic nervous system ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 98 BLM: Remember 4. What is the most abundant type of neurons in the body? a. motor neurons b. efferent neurons c. afferent neurons d. interneurons ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 97 BLM: Remember 5. What is the purpose of afferent neurons? a. They transmit information to effector organs. b. They have a motor function. c. They transmit messages from receptors to the brain and spinal cord. d. They are found in the cerebrum. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 96 BLM: Remember 6. Which statement is correct for efferent neurons? a. They carry information to the CNS. b. They have cell bodies that originate in the CNS. c. They lie entirely within the CNS. d. They have cell bodies in the posterior gray horn ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 96 BLM: RememberChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-2 7. Which component of the nervous system comprises sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions? a. central nervous system b. somatic nervous system c. autonomic nervous system d. afferent division ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 97 BLM: Remember 8. What are the vast majority of cells in the nervous tissues? a. fibroblasts b. glial cells c. neurons d. plexus cells ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 99 BLM: Remember 9. What is the function of astrocytes? a. They induce formation of the cerebro-spinal fluid. b. They are important in the repair of brain injuries and in neural scar formation. c. They take up excess H+ from the brain ECF. d. They line the fluid-filled cavities of the CNS. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 100 BLM: Remember 10. Which statement is NOT a function of astrocytes? a. holding the neurons together in proper spatial relationship b. lining the internal cavities of the brain and spinal cord c. inducing the formation of the blood–brain barrier d. taking up excess K+ to help maintain proper brain ECF ion concentration ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 104 BLM: Remember 11. Which statement is an imaging technology in which images are reconstructed from differences in X-ray absorption? a. computerized axial tomography b. magnetic resonance imaging c. positron emission tomography d. radioactive tracing imaging ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 108 BLM: Higher Order 12. Which type of glial cell lines the ventricles of the brain? a. astrocytes b. neurons c. oligodendrocytes d. ependymal cells ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 102 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-3 13. What is the outermost layer of meninges? a. arachnoid mater b. dura mater c. dural sinus d. pia mater ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 102 BLM: Remember 14. Which statement is correct for cerebrospinal fluid? a. It is formed by the choroid plexuses. b. It is formed by the arachnoid villi. c. It separates the blood and brain to form the blood–brain barrier. d. It separates the dura mater from the skull bone. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 102 BLM: Higher Order 15. Which statement concerning cerebrospinal fluid is NOT correct? a. It is formed by the choroid plexuses and is reabsorbed across the arachnoid villi into the blood within the dural sinuses. b. It serves as a shock-absorbing fluid to cushion the brain against jarring movements. c. It comes into direct contact with the neuronal and glial cells. d. It fills the subarachnoid space. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 102-103 BLM: Higher Order 16. Which statement regarding CSF production and flow is correct? a. CSF is produced along the spinal cord. b. CSF is produced by meningeal cells. c. CSF enters the meningeal layer through the cerebral aqueduct. d. CSF flows inferiorly along the dorsal subarachnoid space of the spinal cord. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 102-104 BLM: Higher Order 17. Which statement concerning the blood–brain barrier is correct? a. It limits the direct exchange of materials between the cerebrospinal fluid and brain. b. It is formed in part by the tight junctions between the brain capillary cells. c. It consists of the astrocyte processes that encircle the brain capillaries. d. It is a barrier between the meninges. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 104 BLM: Higher Order 18. Which glial cells possess phagocytic abilities? a. astrocytes b. ependymal cells c. neurons d. microglia ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 99|100-102 BLM: RememberChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-4 19. In addition to producing cerebral spinal fluid, what else may ependymal cells do? a. contribute to the formation of the blood–brain barrier b. act as immune cells c. function as neural stem cells d. conduct neural impulses ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 102 BLM: Remember 20. What causes neural damage following a cerebrovascular accident? a. reduced CO2 and increased glucose delivery to the region of the brain deprived of its blood supply b. toxic release from damaged brain cells of glutamate, which overexcites and subsequently destroys surrounding brain cells c. a loss of the blood–brain barrier in the affected area of the brain as a result of rupture or occlusion of a cerebral vessel d. production of ATP in the absence of oxygen ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 105 BLM: Higher Order 21. During cerebrovascular accidents, what type of receptors of neighbouring, healthy neurons does glutamate released by damage neurons bind to, thus initiating apotosis? a. acetylcholine b. calcium c. epinephrine d. NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartic acid) ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 105 BLM: Remember 22. Which statement best describes the arachnoid mater? a. It is the innermost meningeal layer. b. It is a delicate, richly vascularized meningeal layer that is “cobwebby” in appearance. c. It is a tough, inelastic membrane that covers the central nervous system. d. It is involved with the formation of cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 102 BLM: Higher Order 23. Which statement is correct for the brain cells? a. They consist of glial cells only. b. They can perform anaerobic metabolism when oxygen supplies are low. c. They use only glucose as a fuel for energy production. d. About 10 percent of the cells within the CNS are glial cells. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 105 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-5 24. Which region of the brain is smallest and oldest in evolutionary development? a. cerebellum b. brain stem c. hypothalamus d. forebrain ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 126 BLM: Remember 25. Where is consciousness created? a. cerebellum b. cerebral cortex c. frontal lobe d. hypothalamus ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 99 BLM: Remember 26. Which is NOT accomplished by the cerebral cortex? a. voluntary initiation of movement b. control of breathing, circulation, and digestion c. final sensory perception d. language ability ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 107-108 BLM: Higher Order 27. Damage to which area would result in the inability to perform accurate motor actions? a. Brocas area b. somatosensory cortex c. premotor cortex d. Wernicke’s area ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 108-109 BLM: Higher Order 28. Which statement best describes the primary motor cortex? a. It is located in the parietal lobes. b. It is in the left cerebral hemisphere and controls the skeletal muscles on the right side of the body. c. It is the only region of the brain involved in motor control. d. It develops motor programs for specific voluntary tasks. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 108-109 BLM: Higher Order 29. Which of the following does NOT participate in control of skeletal muscle activity? a. limbic system b. cerebellum c. supplementary motor area d. premotor cortex ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 117-118 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-6 30. With what is language ability usually associated? a. right cerebral hemisphere b. left cerebral hemisphere c. limbic system d. prefrontal association cortex ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 117-118 BLM: Higher Order 31. Which of the following does NOT apply to Wernicke’s area? a. It is usually developed in the left cerebral hemisphere. b. It is responsible for controlling the muscles necessary for speaking ability. c. It is concerned with language comprehension. d. It plays a critical role in understanding both spoken and written messages. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 112-113 BLM: Higher Order 32. Which describes the sense of body position? a. somatosensory b. kinesthetic c. proprioception d. integrated in the occipital lobe ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 125 BLM: Remember 33. Where is the primary motor cortex located? a. posterior to the central sulcus b. anterior to the central sulcus c. in the temporal lobe d. in the parietal lobe ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 108-109 BLM: Remember 34. Somesthetic sensation ________________. a. is initially processed by the frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex b. is the awareness of body position c. is equally sensitive for all regions of the body surface d. from the surface of the body is projected to the parietal lobe ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 107 BLM: Remember 35. What is the function of the prefrontal association cortex? a. It is concerned primarily with motivation and emotion. b. It integrates somatic, auditory, and visual sensations. c. It plays an important role in personality traits. d. It localizes the source of sensory input and perceives the level of intensity of the stimulus. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 107|108-109 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-7 36. What does the corpus callosum interconnect? a. brain stem and cerebellum b. brain stem and diencephalon c. hypothalamus and thalamus d. two cerebral hemispheres ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 105 BLM: Remember 37. If a person suffers a severe blow to the side of the head slightly above the ear, it is closest to which lobe of the cerebral cortex? a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 108-109|110 BLM: Higher Order 38. Which of the following does the left cerebral hemisphere NOT normally excel in? a. musical ability b. verbal tasks c. math skills d. logical and analytical tasks ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 113-115 BLM: Remember 39. Which of the following associations is NOT correct? a. frontal lobe/understanding language b. occipital lobe/visual input c. parietal lobe/proprioception d. parietal lobe/somesthetic sensations ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 109-110 BLM: Higher Order 40. What is the function of an electroencephalogram? a. It is a record of action potential activity in the cerebral cortex. b. It represents the momentary collective postsynaptic activity in the cerebral cortex. c. It displays smaller brain waves when the eyes are open than when the eyes are closed. d. It displays smaller brain waves in brain death. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 114 BLM: Higher Order 41. Broca’s area is located on the cerebral cortex of which lobe? a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 112 BLM: RememberChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-8 42. Which statement best describes Parkinson’s disease? a. It is associated with a deficiency of serotonin. b. It is characterized by an intention tremor. c. It is characterized by a resting tremor. d. It is caused by cerebellar disorder. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 92 BLM: Higher Order 43. Which statement concerning the thalamus is correct? a. It performs preliminary processing of almost all sensory input on its way to the cortex. b. It inhibits muscle tone throughout the body. c. It controls thirst, urine output, and food intake. d. It plays a role in emotional and behavioural patterns. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 116-117 BLM: Higher Order 44. Which function is NOT associated with the hypothalamus? a. control of respiration and circulatory function b. control of thirst and urine output c. control of body temperature d. control of food intake ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 116-117 BLM: Higher Order 45. Which part of the brain controls thirst and urine output, food intake, and body temperature, among other things? a. cerebral cortex b. hypothalamus c. basal nuclei d. thalamus ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 117 BLM: Remember 46. The limbic system ______________________. a. is a ring of structures surrounding the cerebellum b. plays a key role in sensory perception c. contains regions designated as reward and punishment centres ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 117-118 BLM: Remember 47. Which of the following is the main function of Wernicke’s area? a. control of limb movements b. hand–eye coordination c. language comprehension d. memory ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 112 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-9 48. What does a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the basal nuclei cause? a. schizophrenia b. epilepsy c. Parkinson’s disease d. depression ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 92 BLM: Remember 49. Which statement is correct for procedural memories? a. They are associated with the temporal lobes and are closely associated limbic structures. b. They are associated with the cerebrum. c. They involve acquisition of motor skills gained via repetitive training. d. They are associated with the hippocampus. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 121 BLM: Higher Order 50. Which of the following function is NOT characteristic of the hypothalamus? a. control of body temperature b. centre for coordination with the autonomic nervous system c. production of hormones for posterior pituitary gland d. reception of sensory inputs from skeletal muscles ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 116-117 BLM: Higher Order 51. Short-term memory ___________________________. a. has a larger storage capacity than long-term memory b. takes longer to retrieve than long-term memory c. involves transient modifications in the function of pre-existing synapses, such as channel modification d. has relatively stable memory trace ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 120-121 BLM: Remember 52. These memories are memories of facts that often result after only one experience, whereas another type of memories involve motor skills gained via repetitive training. a. declarative; procedural b. procedural; declarative c. short-term; long-term d. long-term; short-term ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 121-122 BLM: Higher Order 53. What part of the brain plays a vital role in short-term memory, involving the integration of various related stimuli, and is also crucial for consolidation into long-term memory? a. hippocampus b. basal nuclei c. cerebellum d. cerebral cortex ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 120-121 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-10 54. Which neurotransmitter is required for long-term potentiation? a. epinephrine b. acetylcholine c. glycine d. glutamate ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 123-124 BLM: Remember 55. Which statement is correct for long-term potentiation? a. It refers to increased responsiveness to mild stimuli following a strong or noxious stimulus. b. It refers to an increase in strength of existing synaptic connections in pathways involved in initial storage of declarative information following brief periods of stimulation. c. It involves decreased neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic cells d. It involves transient strengthening of pre-existing synapses. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 123-124 BLM: Higher Order 56. Which of the following is NOT a function of the basal nuclei? a. inhibition of muscle tone b. coordination of impulses related to posture c. suppression of unnecessary motor activity d. autonomic control activity ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 115 BLM: Higher Order 57. Which of the following structures is NOT subcortical? a. basal nuclei b. thalamus c. Wernicke’s area d. cerebellum ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 112 BLM: Remember 58. Which of the following is NOT a structural component of the limbic system? a. amygdala b. cingulate gyrus c. mammillary body d. medulla ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 117 BLM: Remember 59. Which of the following is NOT a function of the limbic system? a. provide emotional overtones b. coordinate aspects of learning c. provide “reward” stimulation d. provide conscious perceptions ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 117 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-11 60. Where do most of the cranial nerves originate? a. brain stem b. cerebellum c. cerebral cortex d. hypothalamus ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 126 BLM: Remember 61. Which statement concerning the cerebellum is correct? a. It is concerned primarily with motor activity yet does not have any direct influence on efferent motor neurons. b. It is part of the subcortical region of the brain. c. It gives rise to resting tremors when diseased. d. It is associated with declarative memories. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 125 BLM: Higher Order 62. What is the function of the cerebellum? a. It is important for language function. b. It is involved in coordination and planning of skilled voluntary muscle activity. c. It inhibits muscle tone. d. It is for sensory perception. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 125 BLM: Higher Order 63. Which of the following characteristics does NOT describe short-term memory? a. immediate storage b. large capacity c. permanently forgotten d. transient modifications in functions ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 120 BLM: Higher Order 64. Which statement concerning the brain stem is NOT correct? a. The medulla is part of the brain stem. b. The brain stem is a critical connecting link through which all fibres traversing between the periphery and higher brain centres must pass. c. The brain stem is an important link between nervous and endocrine systems. d. The brain stem contains centres that control respiration, blood vessel and heart function, and digestive activities. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 126 BLM: Higher Order 65. Which of the following cranial nerves primarily innervates visceral organs? a. facial b. trochlear c. vagus d. accessory ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 127 BLM: RememberChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-12 66. Which statement concerning paradoxical sleep is NOT correct? a. Paradoxical sleep is characterized by rapid eye movements. b. A person normally passes through paradoxical sleep before entering slow-wave sleep. c. Dreaming occurs only during paradoxical sleep. d. The EEG pattern during paradoxical sleep is similar to that of an alert, awake person. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 129-130 BLM: Higher Order 67. Which of the following can activate the arousal system? a. sensory activity b. afferent sensory input c. basal ganglion d. frontal lobe ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 130 BLM: Higher Order 68. Which neuromodulator is implicated as a neural sleep factor? a. adenosine b. ATP c. norepinephrine d. enkephalin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 130-131 BLM: Higher Order 69. What region of the brain houses the centre that controls the sleep–wake cycle? a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. brain stem d. cerebral cortex ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 130 BLM: Remember 70. Which statement is correct for slow-wave sleep? a. It occupies a greater percentage of sleeping time than paradoxical sleep. b. It is harder to arouse sleepers from than paradoxical sleep. c. It is characterized by infrequent shifts in body position. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 130 BLM: Higher Order 71. Which statement concerning ascending tracts is correct? a. They relay messages down the spinal cord from the brain to efferent neurons. b. They carry impulses from the brain to the spinal cord. c. They carry impulses from the CNS to the periphery. d. They transmit signals derived from afferent input up the spinal cord to the brain. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 133-134 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-13 72. Which statement concerning descending tracts is correct? a. They relay messages from the brain to the efferent neurons. b. They involve the lateral spinothalamic tract. c. They are part of the peripheral nervous system. d. They are a bundle of neuronal axons, some afferent and some efferent. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 133-134 BLM: Higher Order 73. Nerves ________________________. a. contain both afferent and efferent fibres traversing between a particular region of the body and the central nervous system. b. do not contain complete nerve cells. c. are not present within the central nervous system. d. are not present within the peripheral nervous system ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 76|135 BLM: Higher Order 74. Which statement is correct for the peripheral nervous system? a. It consists of the 33 pairs of spinal nerves and the 12 pairs of cranial nerves. b. It consists of nerve fibres that carry information between the CNS and other parts of the body. c. Its fibres are myelinated by oligodendrocytes. d. It consists of motor nerve fibres only. ANS: B PTS: 1 PTS: 1 REF: 135-136 BLM: Higher Order 75. How does information travel up the spinal cord to the brain? a. via the ventral root ganglion b. via efferent pathways c. via ascending tracts d. via descending tracts ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 134 BLM: Remember 76. Which component of the reflex arc directly sends an impulse to an organ making a response? a. receptor b. afferent pathway c. integrating centre d. efferent pathway ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 136-137 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-14 77. Which of the following tracts transmits conscious sensory impulse regarding touch? a. dorsal cerebellar b. fasciculus gracilis c. lateral spinothalamic d. lateral corticospinal ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 133 BLM: Remember 78. Which of the following is a monosynaptic reflex? a. stretch reflex b. withdrawal reflex c. brain stem reflexes d. crossed extensor reflex ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 136 BLM: Remember 79. Which statement concerning the spinal cord is NOT correct? a. Afferent fibres enter the spinal cord through the ventral root. b. The dorsal and ventral roots at each level of the spinal cord join to form a spinal nerve. c. The spinal cord is not as long as the vertebral column. d. The ventral horn contains cell bodies of the efferent motor neurons that supply skeletal muscles. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 131-133 BLM: Higher Order 80. Which of the following is NOT accomplished by the cerebral cortex? a. personality traits b. language ability c. final sensory perception d. control of circulation and digestion ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 105-107 BLM: Higher Order 81. Which of the following CNS structure influences the autonomic activity? a. medulla b. hypothalamus c. cerebral cortex d. spinal cord ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 117 BLM: Remember 82. Why do myelinated axons conduct impulses much faster? a. The myelin sheath insulates the axon. b. Voltage is gradually lost through myelinated areas. c. The distance between the nodes is short enough. d. The fibre diameters are small. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 80 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-15 83. Which statement is NOT correct for subarachnoid space? a. It is the space between the arachnoid layer and the underlying pia mater. b. It is filled with CSF. c. Venous blood draining from the brain empties into this space. d. Both brain and spinal cord have subarachnoid space. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 102 BLM: Higher Order 84. What is the most correct sequence of activation of brain areas when one responds in writing to a verbal command? a. primary auditory cortex, Wernicke’s area, Broca’s area, supplementary motor cortex, primary motor cortex b. primary auditory cortex, Broca’s area, supplementary motor cortex, Wernicke’s area, primary motor cortex c. primary auditory cortex, Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, supplementary motor cortex, primary motor cortex d. primary visual area, Wernicke’s area, Broca’s area, supplementary motor cortex, primary motor cortex ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 112 BLM: Higher Order TRUE/FALSE 1. Nerves of the autonomic nervous system control skeletal muscle responses. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. Efferent neurons are motor neurons. ANS: T PTS: 1 3. If neuronal pathways present at birth are not used during sensitive developmental periods, they may be eliminated. ANS: T PTS: 1 4. Interneurons lie entirely within the central nervous system. ANS: T PTS: 1 5. Afferent neurons have a long peripheral axon and a short central axon. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. The cell bodies of afferent and efferent neurons both originate in the CNS. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-16 7. Efferent neurons are the most abundant type of neuron. ANS: F PTS: 1 8. Astrocytes take up the neurotransmitter GABA. ANS: T PTS: 1 9. Oligodendrocytes form myelin around the axons of the CNS. ANS: F PTS: 1 10. The blood–brain barrier prevents an increase in the concentration of potassium ions in the ECF surrounding brain cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 11. Hydrocephalus is caused by insufficient cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: F PTS: 1 12. Ninety percent of the cells within the CNS are neurons. ANS: F PTS: 1 13. Microglia are phagocytic cells delivered by the blood to the central nervous system. ANS: T PTS: 1 14. Most brain tumours of neural origin consist of glial cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 15. The brain lacks plasticity of functions. ANS: F PTS: 1 16. The cerebral cortex is an inner core of white matter. ANS: F PTS: 1 17. The dura mater is the fragile, innermost meningeal layer that closely adheres to the surfaces of the brain and spinal cord. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-17 18. The cerebrospinal fluid comes into direct contact with the neuronal and glial cells. ANS: F PTS: 1 19. Transport across the brain capillary walls is anatomically prevented between the cells and is physiologically restricted through the cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 20. Cells forming the brain capillaries are joined by tight junctions that completely seal the capillary wall. ANS: T PTS: 1 21. The cells that form the walls of the brain capillaries have the inherent ability to form tight junctions. ANS: F PTS: 1 22. The brain cannot produce ATP in the absence of oxygen. ANS: T PTS: 1 23. Gray matter refers to regions of the central nervous system composed primarily of densely packed cell bodies, whereas white matter consists of bundles of myelinated nerve fibres. ANS: T PTS: 1 24. An electroencephalogram is a record of action potential activity in the cerebral cortex. ANS: F PTS: 1 25. The gray matter in the CNS consists of parts of neurons not covered with myelin. ANS: T PTS: 1 26. The occipital lobe is in the anterior region of the brain. ANS: F PTS: 1 27. Different parts of the body are not represented by equal areas of the sensory homunculus of the parietal lobe. ANS: T PTS: 1 28. The two regions of gray matter within the cerebrum are the cerebral cortex and the basal nuclei. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-18 29. Different parts of the body are not equally represented in the somatosensory cortex and in the primary motor cortex. ANS: T PTS: 1 30. White matter consists primarily of myelinated nerve fibres. ANS: T PTS: 1 31. Gray matter consists predominantly of neuron cell bodies and dendrites. ANS: T PTS: 1 32. Sound sensation is initially received by the parietal lobes. ANS: F PTS: 1 33. The amount of cortical space in the primary motor cortex devoted to a given body part is proportional to the size of the part. ANS: F PTS: 1 34. The right hemisphere is usually dominant in right-handed persons. ANS: F PTS: 1 35. Stimulation of the frontal lobe produces changes in personality and social behaviour. ANS: F PTS: 1 36. Complex thought is a function of the frontal lobe. ANS: T PTS: 1 37. The right and left cerebral hemispheres perform identical functions except for controlling opposite sides of the body. ANS: F PTS: 1 38. A flat EEG always signifies brain death. ANS: F PTS: 1 39. The basal nuclei are part of the cerebrum. ANS: T PTS: 1 40. Resting tremors are associated with diseases of the basal nuclei. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-19 41. Centres for the control of respiration and circulatory function are located in the hypothalamus. ANS: F PTS: 1 42. The motor cortex on the frontal lobe is not the only brain region involved in motor control. ANS: T PTS: 1 43. Anterograde amnesia is the inability to recall recent past events. ANS: F PTS: 1 44. Working memory involves comparing current sensory data with relevant stored knowledge and manipulating that information. ANS: T PTS: 1 45. The recycling of newly acquired information through short-term memory increases the likelihood of long-term memory consolidation. ANS: T PTS: 1 46. Somatotopic maps of the cerebral cortex are static through the life of the organism. ANS: F PTS: 1 47. A retrograde chemical messenger from the postsynaptic neuron can influence neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic neuron at a synapse during long-term potentiation. ANS: T PTS: 1 48. Disorders of the cerebellum are characterized by an intention tremor. ANS: T PTS: 1 49. The cerebellum is important in coordinating voluntary movements. ANS: T PTS: 1 50. The majority of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain stem. ANS: T PTS: 1 51. Consciousness refers to subjective awareness of the external world and self. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-20 52. Sleep is accompanied by a reduction in neural activity. ANS: F PTS: 1 53. The outer layer of the brain is gray matter but the outer layer of the spinal cord is white matter. ANS: T PTS: 1 54. There are no nerves in the CNS. ANS: T PTS: 1 55. The cell bodies in the spinal cord are located primarily in the white matter. ANS: F PTS: 1 56. Ascending tracts carry information from the periphery to the CNS. ANS: F PTS: 1 57. Reciprocal innervation refers to the dual innervation of organs by the autonomic nervous system. ANS: F PTS: 1 58. Aphasia is a language disorder. ANS: T PTS: 1 59. Efferent neurons leave the spinal cord through the dorsal root. ANS: F PTS: 1 60. A central bundle of interneuronal axons is known as a tract, whereas a peripheral bundle of afferent and efferent neuronal axons is called a nerve. ANS: T PTS: 1 61. Information as to whether a finger was touching an ice cube or being hit by a hammer would be carried to the brain in different ascending tracts within the spinal cord. ANS: T PTS: 1 62. The withdrawal reflex is a monosynaptic reflex. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-21 63. The stretch reflex is a polysynaptic reflex. ANS: F PTS: 1 64. The limbic association cortex is involved with motivation and emotion. ANS: T PTS: 1 65. CREB is a brain neurotransmitter. ANS: F PTS: 1 66. There are 15 pairs of cranial nerves. ANS: F PTS: 1 COMPLETION 1. The CNS comprises the brain and ____________________. ANS: spinal cord PTS: 1 2. The nervous system is organized into the ____________________, consisting of the brain and ____________________, and the ____________________, consisting of nerve fibres that carry information between the CNS and other parts of the body. ANS: central nervous system, spinal cord, peripheral nervous system PTS: 1 3. The ____________________ system coordinates rapid responses of the body, whereas the ____________________ system is responsible for regulating metabolic functions and activities that require duration rather than speed. ANS: nervous, endocrine PTS: 1 4. The ____________________ division of the peripheral nervous system carries information to the CNS. Instructions from the CNS are transmitted via the ____________________ division of the peripheral nervous system to the ____________________ organs. ANS: afferent, efferent, effector PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-22 5. The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system is divided into the ____________________, which consists of ____________________ that supply the skeletal muscles, and the ____________________, which innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands. ANS: somatic nervous system, motor neurons, autonomic nervous system PTS: 1 6. The two subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system are the ____________________ and the ____________________. ANS: sympathetic nervous system, parasympathetic nervous system parasympathetic nervous system, sympathetic nervous system PTS: 1 7. A(n) ____________________ organ is a muscle or gland carrying out a response. ANS: effector PTS: 1 8. A sensory receptor generates action potentials if disturbed by an environmental change or ____________________. ANS: stimulus PTS: 1 9. About 90 percent of the cells in the CNS are ____________________ cells. ANS: glial PTS: 1 10. The four major types of glial cells are ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. ANS: -astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, microglia -oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, microglia, astrocytes -ependymal cells, microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes -microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-23 11. ____________________ are the glial cells that induce anatomical changes in blood vessels. ANS: Astrocytes PTS: 1 12. The ____________________ are protective and nourishing membranes that lie between the central nervous system and its bony covering. ANS: meninges PTS: 1 13. The ____________________ is a special cushioning fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord. ANS: cerebrospinal fluid PTS: 1 14. The meninges from the outermost to the innermost layer are the ____________________, the ____________________, and the ____________________. ANS: -dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater -arachnoid mater, pia mater, dura mater -dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater PTS: 1 15. ____________________ are tumours of the meninges. ANS: Meningiomas PTS: 1 16. The ____________________ contains CSF, which is reabsorbed in the arachnoid villi. ANS: subarachnoid space PTS: 1 17. The brain normally uses only ____________________ as a source of fuel for energy production, yet it does not store any of this nutrient. ANS: glucose PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-24 18. The largest portion of the human brain is the ____________________, which is divided into two halves. ANS: cerebrum PTS: 1 19. Hydrocephalus results from the accumulation of ____________________ in regions of the brain. ANS: CSF PTS: 1 20. ____________________ matter consists predominantly of densely packaged cell bodies and dendrites, whereas ____________________ matter consists of bundles of myelinated nerve fibres. ANS: Gray, white PTS: 1 21. The ____________________ lobes of the cerebral cortex are responsible for initial processing of visual input. ANS: occipital PTS: 1 22. The ____________________ cortex, the site for initial cortical processing of somesthetic and proprioceptive input, is located in the ____________________ lobes. ANS: somatosensory, parietal PTS: 1 23. Brain capillaries are joined by ____________________ junctions. ANS: tight PTS: 1 24. ____________________ area is responsible for speaking ability, whereas ____________________ area is concerned with language comprehension. ANS: Broca’s, Wernicke’s PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-25 25. ____________________ refers to the ability of the brain to be functionally remodelled in response to the demands placed on it. ANS: Plasticity PTS: 1 26. The ____________________ and ____________________ compose the diencephalon of the brain. ANS: -thalamus, hypothalamus -hypothalmus, thalamus PTS: 1 27. The ____________________ hemisphere excels in performance of logical, analytical, sequential, and verbal tasks, whereas the ____________________ hemisphere excels in nonlanguage skills such as spatial perception and artistic and musical endeavours. ANS: left, right PTS: 1 28. The ____________________ of the brain maintains upright posture. ANS: cerebellum PTS: 1 29. The ____________________ consist of several masses of gray matter located deep within the cerebral white matter. ANS: basal nuclei PTS: 1 30. The ____________________ serves as a relay station and synaptic integrating centre for preliminary processing of all sensory input on its way to the cortex. ANS: thalamus PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-26 31. The central sulcus separates the ____________________ and ____________________ lobes. ANS: frontal, parietal parietal, frontal PTS: 1 32. Voluntary motor activity is mainly a function of the ____________________ lobe. ANS: frontal PTS: 1 33. ____________________ refers to the ability to direct behaviour toward specific goals. ANS: Motivation PTS: 1 34. ____________________ is the acquisition of knowledge as a consequence of experience. ANS: Learning PTS: 1 35. ____________________ represent the subjective urges associated with specific bodily needs that motivate appropriate behaviour to satisfy those needs. ANS: Homeostatic drives PTS: 1 36. The motor cortex is activated by the ____________________ potential, a widespread pattern of neural discharge. ANS: readiness PTS: 1 37. The neural change responsible for retention or storage of knowledge is known as the ____________________. ANS: memory trace PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-27 38. By ____________________ competition, somatotropic mapping can be altered. ANS: use-dependent PTS: 1 39. The inability to recall recent past events following a traumatic event is known as ____________________, whereas the inability to store new memories for later retrieval is called ____________________. ANS: retrograde amnesia, anterograde amnesia PTS: 1 40. In the condition ____________________, letters of words are formed in reverse image. ANS: dyslexia PTS: 1 41. ____________________ is a decreased responsiveness to an indifferent stimulus that is repeatedly presented. ANS: Habituation PTS: 1 42. The ____________________ cortex is located at the interface of three lobes. ANS: parietal-temporal-occipital PTS: 1 43. ____________________ refers to increased responsiveness to mild stimuli following a strong or noxious stimulus. ANS: Sensitization PTS: 1 44. Logic performance is more the function of the ____________________ cerebral hemisphere. ANS: left PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-28 45. A(n) ____________________ is a functional aggregation of neuronal cell bodies. ANS: nucleus PTS: 1 46. ____________________ refers to subjective awareness of surroundings and self. ANS: Consciousness PTS: 1 47. ____________________ disease is associated with a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine. ANS: Parkinson’s PTS: 1 48. A(n) ____________________ is a bundle of peripheral neuronal axons, some afferent and some efferent, that are enclosed by a connective tissue covering and following the same pathway. ANS: nerve PTS: 1 49. A(n) ____________________ is a bundle of neuronal axons of similar function within the CNS. ANS: tract PTS: 1 50. The lobes of the cerebral cortex, basal nuclei, thalamus, and hypothalamus compose the ____________________ system. ANS: limbic PTS: 1 51. Stimulation of the nerve supply to one muscle and simultaneous inhibition of the nerves to its antagonistic muscle is known as ____________________. ANS: reciprocal innervation PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-29 52. A collection of neuronal cell bodies located outside the CNS is called a(n) ____________________, whereas a functional collection of cell bodies within the CNS is referred to as a(n) ____________________ or a(n) ____________________. ANS: -ganglion, centre, nucleus -ganglion, nucleus, centre PTS: 1 53. Schizophrenia probably results from excess production of the neurotransmitter ____________________. ANS: dopamine PTS: 1 54. The cell bodies of afferent neurons synapsing in the spinal cord are located in the ____________________. ANS: dorsal root ganglion PTS: 1 55. A(n) ____________________ is any response that occurs automatically without conscious effort. ANS: involuntary response PTS: 1 56. ____________________ memories involve specific facts and events. ANS: Declarative PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-30 ESSAY 1. Compare and contrast the nervous and endocrine systems. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1 2. Describe the organization of the nervous system. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1 3. Describe the structure and function of the cerebral cortex. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1 4. Describe the structural aspects of the limbic system and its functions. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1 5. Describe how memories are created. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1 6. Describe the structure and functions of the spinal cord. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1 7. Describe points of decussation of spinal tracts. ANS: Student responses will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-31 MATCHING Indicate which brain structure is associated with each function by writing the appropriate letter in the blank by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. cerebellum b. hypothalamus c. brain stem d. basal nuclei e. cerebral cortex 1. controls anterior pituitary hormone secretion 2. initiates all voluntary movement 3. inhibits muscle tone throughout the body 4. damage to this structure is associated with a resting tremor 5. controls thirst, urine output, food intake, and body temperature 6. contains centres for respiration, heart and blood vessel function, and many digestive activities 7. helps monitor and coordinate slow, sustained contractions, especially those related to balance and posture 8. contains the autonomic nervous system coordinating centre 9. disorder of this structure is characterized by an intention tremor 10. plays a role in emotion and behavioural patterns 11. is concerned with the coordination of motor activity initiated by higher brain centres; compares the “intentions” of the higher centres with the “performance” of the muscles, and corrects any “errors” 12. accomplishes final sensory perception 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 2. ANS: E PTS: 1 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 4. ANS: D PTS: 1 5. ANS: B PTS: 1 6. ANS: C PTS: 1 7. ANS: D PTS: 1 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 10. ANS: B PTS: 1 11. ANS: A PTS: 1 12. ANS: E PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-32 Indicate whether the characteristics below pertain to the nervous system or endocrine system by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. applies to the nervous system b. applies to the endocrine system c. applies to both the nervous system and the endocrine system 13. coordinates rapid activities of the body 14. secretes hormones 15. primarily controls metabolic activities and other activities that require duration rather than speed 16. alters target cells by release of chemical messengers that interact with specific receptors of the target cells 17. chemical messengers travel long distances 18. chemical messengers travel short distances 19. chemical messengers released only in response to an action potential 13. ANS: A PTS: 1 14. ANS: B PTS: 1 15. ANS: B PTS: 1 16. ANS: C PTS: 1 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 18. ANS: A PTS: 1 19. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-33 Match the lobes to their descriptions by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. occipital lobes b. temporal lobes c. parietal lobes d. frontal lobes 20. initially process sound input 21. initially process visual input 22. initially process somesthetic sensation and proprioception 23. contain primary motor cortex 24. contain the region responsible for personality traits 25. contain the limbic association cortex 26. located on the sides of the head 27. located at the back of the head 28. located in front of the central sulcus 29. located to the rear of the central sulcus 20. ANS: B PTS: 1 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 22. ANS: C PTS: 1 23. ANS: D PTS: 1 24. ANS: D PTS: 1 25. ANS: B PTS: 1 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 27. ANS: A PTS: 1 28. ANS: D PTS: 1 29. ANS: C PTS: 1 Indicate which nervous pathway is being described by writing the appropriate letter in the blanks by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. ascending tracts b. descending tracts c. afferent neurons d. efferent neurons 30. carry information from the periphery to the CNS 31. carry information up the spinal cord to the brain 32. carry information from the brain down the spinal cord 33. carry information from the CNS to the effector organs 30. ANS: C PTS: 1 31. ANS: A PTS: 1 32. ANS: B PTS: 1 33. ANS: D PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-34 Match the following structures to their descriptions by using the answer code. a. dorsal horn b. dorsal root c. dorsal root ganglion d. ventral horn e. ventral root f. lateral horn 34. afferent fibres enter the spinal cord through this structure 35. efferent fibres leave the spinal cord through this structure 36. contains cell bodies of interneurons upon which afferent neurons terminate 37. contains cell bodies of afferent neurons 38. contains cell bodies of the efferent motor neurons supplying skeletal muscles 39. the cell bodies of autonomic nerve fibres originate here 34. ANS: B PTS: 1 35. ANS: E PTS: 1 36. ANS: A PTS: 1 37. ANS: C PTS: 1 38. ANS: D PTS: 1 39. ANS: F PTS: 1 Complete the sentences by using the answer code: a. astrocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. ependymal cells d. microglia 40. are brain phagocytes 41. line the brain ventricles 42. form the insulative myelin sheaths around axons in the CNS 43. are the main brain “glue” 40. ANS: D PTS: 1 41. ANS: C PTS: 1 42. ANS: B PTS: 1 43. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-35 Match the following structures to their descriptions by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. gray matter of spinal cord b. white matter of spinal cord c. dorsal root ganglion 44. location of ascending and descending tracts 45. location of cell bodies for efferent neurons 46. location of cell bodies for afferent neurons 47. location of short interneurons involved in integration of spinal reflexes 48. outer portion of spinal cord 49. inner portion of spinal cord 44. ANS: B PTS: 1 45. ANS: A PTS: 1 46. ANS: C PTS: 1 47. ANS: A PTS: 1 48. ANS: B PTS: 1 49. ANS: A PTS: 1 Match the following structures to their descriptions by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. arachnoid villi b. subarachnoid space c. choroid plexuses d. dural sinuses e. dura mater 50. tough, inelastic outer meningeal layer 51. venous blood draining from the brain empties here 52. tissue across which CSF is reabsorbed into the blood 53. site of formation of CSF 54. location of CSF as it surrounds the brain 50. ANS: E PTS: 1 51. ANS: D PTS: 1 52. ANS: A PTS: 1 53. ANS: C PTS: 1 54. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-36 Match the following structures to their descriptions by using the following answer code. a. temporal lobe b. Wernicke’s area c. somatosensory cortex d. limbic association cortex e. corpus callosum f. primary motor cortex g. occipital lobe h. Broca’s area i. supplementary motor area j. prefrontal association cortex 55. a thick band of axons transversing between the two hemispheres 56. initial cortical processing for vision 57. initial cortical processing for hearing 58. initial cortical processing for sensations arising from the surface of the body 59. programs complex sequences of movement 60. triggers voluntary movement by activating motor neurons 61. responsible for speaking ability 62. responsible for comprehension and formulation of coherent patterns of speech 63. primarily concerned with motivation and emotion 64. lesions in this area result in changes in personality and social behaviour 55. ANS: E PTS: 1 56. ANS: G PTS: 1 57. ANS: A PTS: 1 58. ANS: C PTS: 1 59. ANS: I PTS: 1 60. ANS: F PTS: 1 61. ANS: H PTS: 1 62. ANS: B PTS: 1 63. ANS: D PTS: 1 64. ANS: J PTS: 1 Match the following structures to their descriptions by using the following answer code. a. vestibulocerebellum b. spinocerebellum c. cerebrocerebellum 65. regulates muscle tone; compares intentions of higher centres with performance of muscles and corrects any errors, especially with rapid phasic movements 66. plays a role in planning and initiation of voluntary activity; important for learning and remembering procedural motor tasks 67. is important for balance and eye movement 65. ANS: B PTS: 1 66. ANS: C PTS: 1 67. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-37 Indicate which characteristic applies to which type of memory by using the following answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. short-term memory b. long-term memory 68. very large storage capacity 69. limited storage capacity 70. site for initial deposition of new information 71. takes longer to retrieve information from this store 72. involves transient modifications in function of preexisting synapses 73. probably involves relatively permanent functional or structural changes between existing neurons 68. ANS: B PTS: 1 69. ANS: A PTS: 1 70. ANS: A PTS: 1 71. ANS: B PTS: 1 72. ANS: A PTS: 1 73. ANS: B PTS: 1 Match the following functions to their cranial nerves by using the following answer code. a. hearing, body balance b. sense of smell c. sensory, motor function to facial regions, teeth d. controls many internal organs in the ventral body cavity e. moves the eye f. sense of vision 74. oculomotor 75. olfactory 76. optic 77. trigeminal 78. vagus 79. vestibulocochlear 74. ANS: E PTS: 1 75. ANS: B PTS: 1 76. ANS: F PTS: 1 77. ANS: C PTS: 1 78. ANS: D PTS: 1 79. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 3-38 Match the spinal tract with its characteristic by using the following answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all).. a. ventral spinocerebellar b. rubrospinal c. lateral corticospinal d. fasciculus cuneatus e. lateral spinothalamic 80. tract that terminates in the cerebellum 81. tract for motor impulses providing muscle tone control 82. tract for voluntary motor actions 83. largest sensory tract 84. sensory tract for pain and temperature 80. ANS: E PTS: 1 81. ANS: D PTS: 1 82. ANS: C PTS: 1 83. ANS: B PTS: 1 84. ANS: A PTS: 1Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-1 Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System: Sensory, Autonomic, Somatic MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which afferent input does NOT reach the conscious level? a. somatic sense b. proprioceptive sense c. visceral sense d. a special sense ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 148 BLM: Remember 2. What is the conscious interpretation of external stimuli? a. proprioceptive sensation b. rising blood pressure c. sensory perception d. dilation of pupils ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 148 BLM: Higher Order 3. Destruction of which of the following can cause instant blindness in one eye? a. optic nerve b. optic tract c. right half of optic chiasm d. temporal lobe ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 159 BLM: Remember 4. Which statement concerning receptors is correct? a. They respond to various physical or chemical changes in their environment. b. They carry impulses from the CNS. c. They are found at the peripheral endings of efferent neurons. d. They are found only in the somatic nervous system. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 148 BLM: Higher Order 5. Which statement concerning receptors is correct? a. The larger the receptor potential, the greater the frequency of action potentials initiated in the afferent neuron. b. Tonic receptors often exhibit an ―off-response.‖ c. Phasic receptors are important in situations where maintained information about a stimulus is valuable. d. Receptor adaptation results from nerve fatigue. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 148-149 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-2 6. Which statement concerning receptors is correct? a. They may be either a specialized ending of an afferent neuron or a special cell closely associated with the peripheral ending of an afferent neuron. b. They are present for every modality in the environment. c. When stimulated, they bring about opening of K+ channels in the efferent neuron membrane d. Mechanical receptors are sensitive to varying amounts of heat ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 149-150 BLM: Higher Order 7. Which statement concerning receptor potentials is correct? a. They are usually repolarizations of receptors. b. They are graded potentials. c. They occur in neuronal cell bodies upon summation of presynaptic input. d. They self-propagate along the efferent fibres. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 150 BLM: Remember 8. What is astigmatism? a. the bending of light at angulated surfaces b. the nonuniform (uneven) curvature of the cornea, lens, or retina c. a disorder of accommodation in which the lens cannot bring near objects in focus d. a disorder of accommodation in which the lens cannot bring far objects in focus ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 162 BLM: Higher Order 9. Which statement concerning polymodal nociceptors is correct? a. They respond only to mechanical damage such as cutting, crushing, or pinching. b. They transmit impulses along A-delta fibres. c. They activate the slow pain pathway on stimulation. d. They release prostaglandins. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 155 BLM: Higher Order 10. Which statement concerning phasic receptors is correct? a. They respond to pain stimulus b. They signal a change in stimulus intensity. c. They are slowly adapting receptors. d. muscle stretch receptors is an example ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 151 BLM: Remember 11. Which statement concerning tonic receptors is correct? a. They adapt rapidly. b. They frequently exhibit an ―off-response. ― c. They can measure the degree of joint flexion. d. They signal a change in stimulus intensity. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 151 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-3 12. Which receptors are rapidly adapting? a. muscle stretch receptors b. tonic receptors c. phasic receptors d. Ruffini nerve ending ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 151 BLM: Higher Order 13. Which statement concerning pacinian corpuscles is correct? a. They adapt rapidly as the pressure energy is dissipated. b. They can detect temperature changes. c. They are tonic receptors. d. They do not display an ―off-response.‖ ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 154 BLM: Higher Order 14. Coding of sensory information may result from which action? a. frequency of the stimuli b. location of the stimuli c. graded potential d. spacial pattern coding ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 153 BLM: Higher Order 15. In somatosensory pathways, where do first-order neurons usually synapse with second-order neurons? a. dorsal root ganglia b. anterior root ganglion c. cerebellum d. thalamus ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 148 BLM: Higher Order 16. The smaller the receptive fields in a region, will result in what action? a. smaller the density of receptors in the region b. greater the acuity in the region c. less cortical space allotted for sensory reception from the region d. lesser the sensitivity to stimuli ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 153 BLM: Higher Order 17. Which of the following are NOT correctly paired? a. chemoreceptor/oxygen concentration b. mechanoreceptor/skeletal muscle stretch c. nociceptor/light touch d. photoreceptor/light ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 149 BLM: RememberChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-4 18. How is the slow pain pathway activated? a. by stimulation of mechanical or thermal nociceptors b. by stimulation of polymodal nociceptors c. in the absence of tissue injury d. by large and myelinated fibres ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 155-156 BLM: Higher Order 19. Endorphins and enkephalins ______________. a. are endogenous morphine-like substances b. activate ascending pathways c. stimulate the release of substance P by binding with opiate receptors d. stimulate the release of bradykinin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 156 BLM: Higher Order 20. What is characteristic of fast pain? a. poorly localized b. occurs upon stimulation of polymodal nociceptors c. impulses carried along myelinated A-delta fibres d. produces dull aching sensation ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 155-156 BLM: Remember 21. What is the role of glutamate in the pain pathways? a. binds to AMPA receptors on dorsal horn cells b. results in numbness of damaged tissue c. causes P-substance release d. major inhibitory neurotransmitter ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 156 BLM: Higher Order 22. When does natural analgesia occur? a. when endogenous opiates bind to P-substance b. when endogenous opiates bind to receptors on afferent pain fibres c. when the anterior gray horn is stimulated d. when C fibres are stimulated ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 156 BLM: Higher Order 23. Which neuromodulator is NOT capable of binding to opiate receptors in the analgesic pathways? a. bradykinin b. dynorphin c. endogenous opiates d. endorphins ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 155 BLM: RememberChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-5 24. Which statement is NOT correct about slow pain? a. It is carried by large, myelinated A-delta fibres. b. It is poorly localized. c. It occurs by the stimulation of polymodal nociceptors. d. It occurs for a longer time than fast pain. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 155 BLM: Remember 25. What normally controls the amount of light entering the eye? a. ciliary muscle b. suspensory ligaments c. iris d. cornea ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 159 BLM: Remember 26. The circular muscle of the iris __________________. a. contracts in response to bright light to produce pupillary constriction b. is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system c. contracts to slacken the suspensory ligaments and increase the strength of the lens during accommodation d. is under voluntary control ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 159 BLM: Remember 27. Which statement concerning the retina is correct? a. It is the middle layer of the eye. b. It contains the photoreceptors. c. It becomes specialized anteriorly to form the cornea. d. It secretes the aqueous humour. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 165-166 BLM: Remember 28. What is the first structure to intercept light as it enters the eye? a. aqueous humour b. cornea c. lens d. retina ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 158 BLM: Remember 29. What helps reduce internal reflection (scattering of light within the eye)? a. sclera b. choroid c. blind spot d. lens ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 158 BLM: RememberChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-6 30. Which structure contributes the most to the total refractive ability of the eye? a. lens b. cornea c. ciliary muscle d. retina ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 158|160 BLM: Higher Order 31. What must happen for accommodation to occur? a. The shape of the cornea must be changed. b. The shape of the lens must be changed. c. The ciliary muscle is relaxed for near vision. d. The ciliary muscle is contracted for distant vision. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 162 BLM: Remember 32. Which statement concerning the lens of the eye is correct? a. It has convex surfaces. b. It is stronger when it is flatter. c. It contributes most extensively to the eye’s total refractive ability. d. Its stronger lens must be used for distant sources. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 162 BLM: Higher Order 33. What happens during accommodation for near vision? a. The ciliary muscle relaxes. b. The lens becomes more concave. c. The suspensory ligaments become less taut. d. Both ciliary muscle must relax and lens more concave ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 164 BLM: Higher Order 34. What happens when light passes from one medium to a medium of a different density? a. It is refracted and bends at specific angles. b. It travels faster. c. It changes wavelengths. d. It gradually disappears. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 160-162 BLM: Higher Order 35. Which statement is correct of hyperopia? a. The eyeball is too short or the lens is too weak. b. A near object is focused in front of the retina, even with accommodation. c. A far source of light is focused on the surface of the retina. d. The eyeball is too rounded. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 164 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-7 36. Which statement concerning myopia is correct? a. The curvature of the lens is uneven. b. A near source of light is focused on the retina without accommodation. c. A convex lens is used to correct the condition. d. The images from the two eyes are not fused within the cortex. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 164 BLM: Higher Order 37. Which statement concerning fovea is correct? a. It is located in the exact centre of the retina. b. It contains a greater abundance of rods than cones. c. It is the point on the retina at which the optic nerve leaves and blood vessels pass through. d. It has fairly high acuity. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 166 BLM: Higher Order 38. Which statement concerning the blind spot is correct? a. It is the point on the retina at which the optic nerve leaves and blood vessels pass through. b. It contains high concentrations of rods or cones. c. It is in the exact centre of the retina. d. It contains high concentration of cones but no rods. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 166 BLM: Remember 39. Which statement concerning the choroids is correct? a. It contains rods and cones. b. It is a fluid within the eye. c. It is also known as the blind spot. d. It is the middle layer of the eyeball. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 158 BLM: Higher Order 40. Which statement is correct for rhodopsin? a. It is the photopigment found in the red cones. b. It consists of an opsin and retinene. c. It is most highly concentrated in the fovea. d. It is slowly broken down in the absence of light. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 168 BLM: Higher Order 41. Which statement is correct for cones? a. They are most abundant in the periphery of the retina. b. They are more numerous than rods. c. They have high sensitivity to light. d. They are responsible for colour vision. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 158|167 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-8 42. Which activities occur in the presence of light within the phototransduction pathway? a. Ganglion cells produce action potentials. b. cGMP levels are high in receptors. c. Bipolar cells produce graded potentials. d. Sodium channels open in receptors. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 168 BLM: Higher Order 43. Which statement concerning cones is NOT correct? a. Cones are used for day vision. b. Cones are very sensitive to light. c. Cones exhibit high acuity. d. Cones are concentrated in the fovea. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 158|165 BLM: Remember 44. Which statement is correct for Rods? a. They are less sensitive to light than cones. b. They have low acuity. c. They provide vision in shades of gray. d. They have both low acuity and provide vision in shades of gray. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 158 BLM: Higher Order 45. What happens during dark adaptation? a. Photopigments are gradually regenerated. b. Rhodopsin is rapidly broken down. c. The cones for gray vision are stimulated more than the cones for colour vision. d. The sensitivity of the photoreceptors is reduced so that the image appears dim. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 168 BLM: Higher Order 46. What happens in light adaptation? a. Rhodopsin levels increase in rods. b. Rhodopsin levels decrease in rods. c. Cones become inactive. d. Rhodopsin levels increase in rods and cones become inactive. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 168 BLM: Higher Order 47. Why do cones have higher acuity than rods? a. Cones respond more to dim light. b. There are three types of cones. c. There is little convergence in the cone pathways within the retina. d. There are more cones than rods. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 166 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-9 48. What does NOT occur in a photoreceptor during exposure to light? a. membrane hyperpolarization b. closure of Na+ channels in the outer segment c. increased transmitter release from the synaptic terminal d. decrease in cyclic GMP in the outer segment ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 149|167 BLM: Higher Order 49. Which one of the following is an anterior specialization of the choroid layer? a. aqueous humour b. ciliary body c. cornea d. lens ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 159 BLM: Remember 50. Which statement concerning colour vision is correct? a. It is accomplished by rods at night and cones during the day. b. It depends on the three cone types’ various ratios of stimulation in response to different wavelengths of light. c. It is usually lost in vitamin A deficiency. d. It depends on activation of a specific cone for each visible colour. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 171 BLM: Higher Order 51. What does vitamin A deficiency cause? a. poor night vision b. astigmatism c. presbyopia d. colour blindness ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 171 BLM: Higher Order 52. What is characteristic of presbyopia? a. the lack of a cone type b. pronounced visual difficulty in the early teenage years c. a reduction in accommodative ability as a result of a loss of lens elasticity d. retinal damage ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 163 BLM: Higher Order 53. What condition is caused by uneven curvatures in the lens? a. astigmatism b. myopia c. presbyopia d. hyperopia ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 162 BLM: RememberChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-10 54. Which statement is correct for the optic tracts? a. They carry information from the lateral half of the retina on the same side and the medial half of the retina on the opposite side. b. They carry information from the lateral halves of both retinas. c. They carry information from the medial halves of both retinas. d. They carry information from the lateral half of the retina on the opposite side and the medial half of the retina on the same side. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 172 BLM: Higher Order 55. What does the middle layer of the retina contain? a. bipolar neurons b. convex cells c. ganglion cells d. rods and cones ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 158|165 BLM: Remember 56. In the visual pathway, which statement is true? ___________________________. a. The fibres from the lateral halves of both retinas cross at the optic chiasm. b. The optic nerve carries information from the lateral half of one retina and the medial half of the other retina. c. The optic nerve carries information from both the lateral half and the medial half of the retina of the same eye. d. The optic nerve carries information from the medial half of one retina and the lateral half of the other retina. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 172 BLM: Higher Order 57. What relays incoming visual information to the appropriate cortical tissue? a. colliculi b. lateral geniculate nuclei c. hypothalamus. d. thalamus and hypothalamus ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 172 BLM: Higher Order 58. What is the proper sequence of retinal processing? a. rods and cones, ganglion cells, bipolar cells b. rods and cones, bipolar cells, ganglion cells c. ganglion cells, bipolar cells, rods and cones d. ganglion cells, rods and cones, bipolar cells ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 166 BLM: Higher Order 59. What are the three types of cones? a. black, red, and white b. blue, green, and red c. blue, green, and white d. green, orange, and yellow ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 168 BLM: RememberChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-11 60. Which structure is associated with hearing? a. ampulla b. cochlea c. cupula d. cristae ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 179 BLM: Remember 61. The pitch of a sound is based on what?____________________. a. it is determined by the frequency of vibrations of air molecules b. it depends on the amplitude of the waves c. it is measured in units of decibels d. it depends on the shapes of the ossicles ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 182 BLM: Remember 62. The human ear is most sensitive to sound frequencies within which range? a. 0–20,000 cycles per second b. 10–100,000 cycles per second c. 20–20,000 cycles per second d. 1,000–4,000 cycles per second ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 175 BLM: Remember 63. Which statement about sound waves is NOT correct? a. They are produced by a disturbance pattern in air molecules. b. They gradually dissipate as they travel from the original sound source. c. The human ear can detect sound waves between 20 and 20,000 cycles per second. d. The average human ear is most sensitive to sound waves with frequencies between 5,000 and 10,000 cycles per second. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 175 BLM: Higher Order 64. Which statement concerning the tympanic membrane is correct? a. It vibrates when struck by sound waves. b. It contains the organ of Corti. c. It produces ear wax. d. It is connected to the stapes. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 178 BLM: Remember 65. In which order does the vibrational stimulus normally pass through the middle ear ossicles? a. incus to the malleus to the stapes b. incus to the stapes to the incus c. malleus to the incus to the stapes d. malleus to the stapes to the incus ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 179 BLM: RememberChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-12 66. Which statement is correct for the ossicular system of the ear? a. It serves to keep the pressure on the two sides of the tympanic membrane equal. b. It increases the pressure of vibration as it transfers the sound wave from air in the outer ear to fluid in the inner ear. c. It assists in determining whether a sound comes from the front or rear. d. It is part of the vestibular apparatus. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 179 BLM: Higher Order 67. What does transmission of sound through the middle ear result in? a. amplification of the pressure vibrations b. stimulation of middle ear receptor cells c. opening of the eustachian tube d. increased firing rate in sensory axons associated with the tympanic membrane ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 179 BLM: Higher Order 68. Where does the actual conversion of sound vibrations to nerve impulses occur? a. eardrum b. eustachian tube c. cochlea d. oval window ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 181-182 BLM: Remember 69. Which of the following is NOT involved in sending a vibrational signal to the inner ear? a. external auditory meatus b. eustachian tube c. malleus d. stapes ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 181 BLM: Remember 70. Where are the hair cells for hearing located? a. cochlea b. eustachian tube c. saccule d. utricle ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 180 BLM: Remember 71. How are high- and low-frequency sounds discriminated? a. low frequencies producing stronger vibrations b. high frequencies producing larger action potentials c. the middle ear bones vibrating more vigorously for low frequencies d. low frequencies deflecting the basilar membrane at a greater distance from the oval window ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 181 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-13 72. Which structure is NOT found inside the cochlear duct? a. basilar membrane b. endolymph c. oval window d. organ of Corti ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 181-182 BLM: Higher Order 73. Which statement concerning the oval window is correct? a. It attaches to the malleus. b. It transfers the sound wave from the external ear to the middle ear. c. It is reflexively tightened in response to loud sounds to diminish transmission of these sounds to the inner ear. d. It attaches to the stapes and transfers the sound wave from the middle ear to the inner ear. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 179 BLM: Remember 74. What happens in response to movement of the oval window? a. Pressure waves occur in the scala vestibuli. b. A portion of oval window vibrates. c. Certain hair cell receptors in the ossicles become excited. d. The eardrum vibrates. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 179 BLM: Higher Order 75. In which structure do sound waves first pass? a. cochlear duct b. scala media c. scala tympani d. scala vestibuli ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 179 BLM: Remember 76. What does fluid movement in the cochlea cause? a. displacement of the oval window, which dissipates pressure b. deflection of the tympanic membrane c. the hairs of the receptor cells of the organ of Corti to be bent as they are moved in relation to the tectorial membrane d. displacement of the ear tube ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 179 BLM: Remember 77. What happens when there is deflection of the basilar membrane? a. it activates the receptors of the organ of Corti b. it occurs in response to movements of ossicles c. it results from displacement of the round window d. it results from displacement of tympanic membrane ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 182 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-14 78. Which type of sensory input is NOT integrated into the sense of equilibrium? a. cutaneous b. proprioceptive c. vestibular d. visual ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 184 BLM: Remember 79. Which abnormality could give rise to sensorineural deafness? a. rupture of the tympanic membrane b. disease or injury in the organ of Corti c. restriction of ossicular movement because of adhesions between the bones d. damage to the occipital lobes of the cortex ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 183-184 BLM: Higher Order 80. Which statement is correct for the semicircular canals? a. They detect the position of the head relative to gravity. b. They detect rotational or angular acceleration or deceleration of the head. c. They contain otoliths. d. They are responsible for static equilibrium. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 184 BLM: Higher Order 81. Which association is NOT correct? a. cochlear duct/endolymph b. malleus/inner ear c. organ of Corti/hair cells d. scala tympani/perilymph ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 179-180 BLM: Remember 82. Which statement concerning the utricle is correct? a. It is part of the middle ear cavity. b. It is activated when a person bends his or her head to look down at the ground. c. It is activated when a person starts to listen to music. d. It is activated when sound waves strike the hair cells. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 184 BLM: Higher Order 83. Which of the following is NOT important for vestibular information? a. hearing b. maintenance of balance and desired posture c. control of eye movement d. perception of motion and orientation ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 186 BLM: RememberChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-15 84. The auditory cortex is on which lobe of the cerebral cortex? a. frontal b. occipital c. parietal d. temporal ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 182 BLM: Remember 85. Which statement is correct for taste? a. Discrimination depends on the ratio of stimulation of the taste buds, which have a variation in relative sensitivity. b. Taste buds are stimulated only by touching foods. c. Discrimination does not go beyond distinguishing between the four primary tastes—sweet, sour, salty, and bitter. d. Taste buds are present only in the oral cavity, but not in the throat. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 190 BLM: Higher Order 86. Sour taste represents stimuli caused by ________________. a. acids b. salts c. bases d. sugars ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 190 BLM: Remember 87. Which statement concerning olfactory receptors is correct? a. They are specialized endings of efferent neuronsin separate cells. b. when stimulated, they send impulses both to the limbic system for coordination between smell and behaviour, and to the thalamus and cortex for perception of smell. c. synapse in the thalamus . d. a substance must be fat soluble in order to be smelled. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 191 BLM: Higher Order 88. Which structure associated is with pheromonal reception? a. nasal organ b. olfactory mucosa c. papillae d. vomeronasal organ ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 193 BLM: Remember 89. Which statement with regards to hearing is NOT correct? a. Mechanical deformation of the hairs of hair cells in the inner ear always results in depolarization of the hair cell synaptic terminal. b. Pitch discrimination depends on the region of the basilar membrane that vibrates. c. The stapes is the ossicle attached to the oval window. d. The hair cells for hearing are located in the cochlea ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 182 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-16 90. Which statement regarding vision is NOT correct? a. Axons from the temporal half of each retina decussate in the optic chiasm. b. Axons from the nasal half of each retina decussate in the optic chiasm. c. Optic tracts consist of both crossed and uncrossed axons. d. Some retinal ganglionic axon collaterals terminate in the midbrain and hypothalamus. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 173 BLM: Higher Order 91. What is a cause of conductive hearing loss? a. a lesion of the auditory nerve b. disease of the inner ear c. impacted ear wax or inflammation of the middle ear d. effect of ototoxic drugs ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 183 BLM: Higher Order 92. Which statement regarding hearing is correct? a. The pitch of sounds is conveyed by the intensity of the vibration of the oval window. b. Conduction deafness is a result of damage to the hair cells of the inner ear. c. Low-pitched tones selectively cause vibration of the basilar membrane at a point closer to the oval window than high-pitched ones do. d. The loudness of a sound is conveyed by the frequency of action potentials generated in the cochlear nerve. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 182 BLM: Higher Order TRUE/FALSE 1. Sensory information from the skeletal muscles enters the central nervous system by visceral efferent neurons. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. Receptors transduce one form of energy into electrical energy. ANS: T PTS: 1 3. Any stimulus can excite any excitable tissue. ANS: F PTS: 1 4. The term adequate stimulus refers to the intensity of a stimulus developing above a threshold value. ANS: F PTS: 1 5. Receptor potentials can be graded, with a stronger stimulus resulting in a larger receptor potential. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. Osmoreceptors are sensitive to changing solute concentrations. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-17 7. Receptors can respond only to electrical stimulation. ANS: F PTS: 1 8. Proprioception is the awareness of the body’s position in space. ANS: T PTS: 1 9. A receptor cell initially develops a generator potential by the influx of potassium. ANS: F PTS: 1 10. The stronger the stimulus, the greater the frequency of action potentials generated and propagated in the afferent neuron. ANS: T PTS: 1 11. The identical nerve pathway conveys information regarding pressure and temperature sensation of the thumb. ANS: F PTS: 1 12. Pain may be elicited by thermal or chemical stimuli. ANS: T PTS: 1 13. Phasic receptors are rapidly adapting receptors. ANS: T PTS: 1 14. Activation of a sensory pathway at any point gives rise to the same sensation that would be produced by stimulation of the receptors in the body part itself. ANS: T PTS: 1 15. Through lateral inhibition, a more intensely activated receptor pathway halts transmission of impulses in surrounding, less intensely stimulated pathways. ANS: T PTS: 1 16. Nociceptors are naked (free) nerve endings. ANS: T PTS: 1 17. The brain contains naturally occurring morphine-like substances. ANS: T PTS: 1 18. Prostaglandins suppress the sensitivity of nociceptors. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-18 19. Descending analgesic pathways are believed to suppress transmission in the pain pathways as they enter the spinal cord by blocking the release of substance P. ANS: T PTS: 1 20. The Pacinian corpuscle is mainly sensitive to temperature changes. ANS: F PTS: 1 21. Second- and third-order sensory neurons synapse in the thalamus. ANS: T PTS: 1 22. Short-wave lengths of light within the visible spectrum are sensed as violet or blue. ANS: T PTS: 1 23. Light rays travel faster through water or glass than through air. ANS: F PTS: 1 24. Unmyelinated C fibres send impulses for slow pain pathways. ANS: T PTS: 1 25. Light is the only stimulus capable of stimulating the photoreceptors of the eye. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. The circular muscle of the iris contracts in response to dim light. ANS: F PTS: 1 27. Contraction of the radial muscle of the iris produces a dilation of the iris. ANS: T PTS: 1 28. The sclera is the most internal layer of the eye. ANS: F PTS: 1 29. A convex lens converges light rays or brings them closer together. ANS: T PTS: 1 30. The greater the curvature of a lens, the greater its ability to refract light rays. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-19 31. The fovea is the point on the retina where the optic nerve leaves. ANS: F PTS: 1 32. The curvature of the lens must be adjusted to enable the eye to focus both near and far sources on the retina. ANS: T PTS: 1 33. Light rays passing through a concave lens undergo convergence. ANS: F PTS: 1 34. The term cataract refers to the condition in which the lens becomes stiff and loses its elasticity. ANS: F PTS: 1 35. Relaxation of the ciliary muscle changes the cornea into a flattened shape. ANS: F PTS: 1 36. The image on the retina is reversed upside down and backward because of bending of light rays. ANS: T PTS: 1 37. A concave lens is used to correct for a myopic eye. ANS: T PTS: 1 38. Retinene is found in the rods but not the cones. ANS: F PTS: 1 39. Rods produce vision in shades of gray. ANS: T PTS: 1 40. Vision in bright light is chiefly due to cone activation. ANS: T PTS: 1 41. Cone photoreceptors provide high visual acuity. ANS: T PTS: 1 42. When an individual sees pure red, only the red cones are stimulated. ANS: F PTS: 1 43. In the retina, photoreceptor cells do not synapse with bipolar cells. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-20 44. Light must pass through several layers of retinal cells before reaching rods and cones. ANS: T PTS: 1 45. Colour blindness may be caused by vitamin A deficiency. ANS: F PTS: 1 46. Night blindness is due to a deficiency of vitamin C. ANS: F PTS: 1 47. Each cone contains three different photopigments for selectively responding to red, blue, or green wavelengths of light. ANS: F PTS: 1 48. Cones are more abundant than rods through the entire retina. ANS: F PTS: 1 49. A photoreceptor generates action potentials when its photopigment is activated. ANS: F PTS: 1 50. Depth perception comes about in large part because of binocular vision. ANS: T PTS: 1 51. At the optic chiasm, the fibres in the lateral half of each optic nerve cross over. ANS: F PTS: 1 52. Axons from retinal ganglion cells form the optic nerve. ANS: T PTS: 1 53. Diplopia is another name for double vision. ANS: T PTS: 1 54. Each region of the auditory cortex becomes excited only in response to a specific tone detected by a selected portion of the basilar membrane. ANS: T PTS: 1 55. Photoreceptors are depolarized in the absence of stimulation (i.e., in the dark) and hyperpolarized when stimulated (i.e., when exposed to light). ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-21 56. The greatest density of rods is found in the fovea of the macula lutea. ANS: F PTS: 1 57. Accommodation permits near vision. ANS: T PTS: 1 58. In hyperopia the far source is focused on the retina with accommodation and the near source is focused behind the retina. ANS: T PTS: 1 59. Short wavelengths of light are perceived in the red-orange colour range. ANS: F PTS: 1 60. The external eye muscles contract to change the shape of the lens. ANS: F PTS: 1 61. Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, and ganglion cells all display action potentials. ANS: F PTS: 1 62. Each half of the visual cortex receives information from the opposite half of the visual field as detected by both eyes. ANS: T PTS: 1 63. Binocular vision enhances depth perception. ANS: T PTS: 1 64. The visual message detected by the retina is transmitted intact to the visual cortex. ANS: F PTS: 1 65. Unlike the visual pathways, auditory signals from each ear are transmitted to both hemispheres. ANS: T PTS: 1 66. The amplitude of sound waves is interpreted as the pitch of the sound. ANS: F PTS: 1 67. The inner ear is involved only with hearing. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-22 68. The incus is a structure of the middle ear. ANS: T PTS: 1 69. The cochlea is primarily concerned with equilibrium. ANS: F PTS: 1 70. The stapes is attached to the round window. ANS: F PTS: 1 71. The function of the eustachian tube is to provide a drainage path for the fluid in the middle ear. ANS: F PTS: 1 72. The helicotrema is located beyond the tip of the cochlear duct. ANS: T PTS: 1 73. The ossicular system transmits the vibrations of the tympanic membrane to the oval window, the movement of which sets up pressure waves in the cochlear fluid. ANS: T PTS: 1 74. In response to high-frequency sounds, the segment of the basilar membrane closer to the oval window vibrates maximally. ANS: T PTS: 1 75. Exposure to very loud noises can result in partial conductive deafness. ANS: F PTS: 1 76. Hearing aids are more beneficial in conductive deafness than in sensorineural deafness. ANS: T PTS: 1 77. The semicircular canals are activated as the head starts to rotate, but cease responding if the head movement continues at the same rate in the same direction. ANS: T PTS: 1 78. The utricle detects changes in head position away from horizontally and vertically directed linear acceleration and deceleration. ANS: T PTS: 1 79. The vestibular nuclei provide output important in maintaining balance and posture. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-23 80. Mechanical deformation of the hairs of hair cells in the inner ear always results in depolarization of the hair cell synaptic terminal. ANS: F PTS: 1 81. Taste buds are chemoreceptors. ANS: T PTS: 1 82. The cortical gustatory area is located adjacent to the ―tongue‖ region of the somatosensory cortex. ANS: T PTS: 1 83. Sour taste is caused by the hydrogen ions from acids. ANS: T PTS: 1 84. Normal breathing patterns directly bring odoriferous molecules in contact with the olfactory mucosa. ANS: F PTS: 1 85. The receptors for smell are located in the upper nasal cavity out of the normal path of air currents. ANS: T PTS: 1 86. Visual and hearing receptors are irreplaceable, but taste and olfactory receptors are continuously renewed. ANS: T PTS: 1 87. Rapid reduction in sensitivity to a new odour results from rapid adaptation of the olfactory receptors. ANS: F PTS: 1 88. The olfactory mucosa contains enzymes that remove odoriferous molecules so that the sensation of smell doesn’t linger after the source of the odour is removed. ANS: T PTS: 1 89. The primary olfactory cortex is on the temporal lobe. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-24 COMPLETION 1. __________ is our conscious interpretation of the external world as created by the brain from a pattern of nerve impulses delivered to it from sensory receptors. ANS: Perception PTS: 1 2. An incoming pathway for subconscious information derived from the internal viscera is called a(n) __________, whereas an incoming pathway for information propagated to the conscious levels of the brain is called a(n) __________. ANS: visceral afferent, sensory afferent PTS: 1 3. A generator potential in a receptor begins with the influx of ________ ions into the cell. ANS: sodium PTS: 1 4. By ________, a stimulus of the same intensity does not elicit a receptor potential of the same magnitude. ANS: adaptation PTS: 1 5. Each sensory neuron responds to stimulus information within its __________, which is a circumscribed region of the skin surface surrounding it. ANS: receptive field PTS: 1 6. __________ are the receptors that display the least amount of adaptation. ANS: Nociceptors PTS: 1 7. __________, a neurotransmitter unique to pain fibres, is released from afferent pain terminals. ANS: Substance P PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-25 8. The intensity of a stimulus is coded by the _________ of the action potentials sent along the related afferent neuron. ANS: frequency PTS: 1 9. _________ attach the lens to the ciliary body. ANS: Suspensory ligaments PTS: 1 10. Light is a form of electromagnetic radiation composed of particle-like individual packets of energy called _________ that travel in wavelike fashion. ANS: photons PTS: 1 11. The __________ is the layer of the eye that contains the photoreceptor cells. ANS: retina PTS: 1 12. The iris consists of layers of________ and ________ smooth muscle fibres. ANS: circular, radial PTS: 1 13. The two major components of the ciliary body are the __________, which regulates the strength of the lens, and a capillary network that produces __________. ANS: ciliary muscle, aqueous humour PTS: 1 14. The point of the retina with the most distinct vision is the __________. ANS: fovea PTS: 1 15. __________ is the bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another. ANS: Refraction PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-26 16. The eye structure with the greatest refractive ability is the __________. ANS: cornea PTS: 1 17. The refractive structure of the eye that has the ability to change its strength is the __________. ANS: lens PTS: 1 18. Myopia is another name for ________. ANS: nearsightedness PTS: 1 19. The ________ is the region of the retina where rods and cones are absent. ANS: blind spot or optic disk PTS: 1 20. Rods and cones have a G protein called ________. ANS: transducin PTS: 1 21. __________ are travelling vibrations of air that consist of alternating with regions of low pressure caused by rarefaction of the molecules. ANS: Sound waves PTS: 1 22. Night blindness develops from a deficiency of vitamin ________. ANS: A PTS: 1 23. The left cerebral cortex receives information from the ________ half of each visual field. ANS: right PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-27 24. The lateral geniculate nucleus is located in the ________ of the brain. ANS: thalamus PTS: 1 25. The ______ is the ossicle attached to the oval window. ANS: stapes PTS: 1 26. ______ discrimination depends on the region of the basilar membrane that vibrates. ANS: Pitch PTS: 1 27. Moving air through the eustachian tube equalizes air pressure on the ________. ANS: tympanum PTS: 1 28. Glucose interacts with ________ receptor binding sites on the surface of the tongue. ANS: sweet PTS: 1 29. Rods and cones synapse with __________ cells that, in turn, synapse with ganglion cells before entering the optic nerve. ANS: bipolar PTS: 1 ESSAY 1. Describe how sensory adaptation occurs. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. Describe the phototransduction process. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-28 3. What are the various roles of secondary messenger systems in sensory pathways? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4. Describe the conduction of sound energy and its subsequent transduction into neural stimuli. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. Compare and contrast the senses of taste and olfaction. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 PROBLEM 1. For near vision, the ciliary muscle (contracts or relaxes) so that the suspensory ligaments become (taut or slack). This allows the lens to (flatten or round up), which (increases or decreases) the strength of the lens. ANS: contracts, slack, round up, increases PTS: 1 2. When light of suitable wavelength strikes a photoreceptor, the photopigment (absorbs or reflects) the light, causing the photopigment to (dissociate or regenerate). This photopigment transformation acts through a second messenger system to cause Na+ channels in the outer segment to (open or close). Subsequently, the photoreceptor (depolarizes or hyperpolarizes), which results in a(n) (increase or decrease) in release of an (excitatory or inhibitory) transmitter from its synaptic terminal. ANS: absorbs, dissociate, close, hyperpolarizes, decrease, inhibitory PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-29 MATCHING Match the receptor below to its function by using the answer code. a. tonic receptor b. phasic receptor c. specialized receptor ending of afferent neuron d. separate cell serving as a receptor 1. generates action potentials in afferent neuron by opening voltage-gated Na+ channels 2. generates action potentials in afferent neuron by opening messenger-gated channels 3. provides continuous information about the stimuli being monitored 4. provides information about changes in the energy form being monitored 1. ANS: D PTS: 1 2. ANS: C PTS: 1 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 Indicate the properties associated with each type of nociceptor by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. mechanical nociceptor b. thermal nociceptor c. polymodal nociceptor 5. responds to cutting, crushing, pinching 6. responds to irritating chemicals 7. responds to temperature extremes 8. transmits its signals via A-delta fibres 9. transmits its signals via C fibres 10. activates slow pain pathway 11. activates fast pain pathway 5. ANS: A PTS: 1 6. ANS: C PTS: 1 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 8. ANS: A PTS: 1 9. ANS: C PTS: 1 10. ANS: C PTS: 1 11. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-30 Indicate which of the following regions are part of ascending pain pathways, descending analgesic pathways, or both by using the answer code. a. part of ascending pain pathway b. part of descending analgesic pathway c. participates in both pain and analgesic pathways 12. periaqueaductal gray area 13. thalamus 14. reticular formation 12. ANS: B PTS: 1 13. ANS: A PTS: 1 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 Indicate the properties of rods and cones by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. rods b. cones c. both rods and cones 15. used for day vision 16. used for night vision 17. confer colour vision 18. confer vision in shades of gray 19. high acuity 20. low acuity 21. contain opsin and retinene 22. much convergence in pathway 23. little convergence in pathways 24. three different types as a result of difference in photopigment content 15. ANS: B PTS: 1 16. ANS: A PTS: 1 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 18. ANS: A PTS: 1 19. ANS: B PTS: 1 20. ANS: A PTS: 1 21. ANS: C PTS: 1 22. ANS: A PTS: 1 23. ANS: B PTS: 1 24. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-31 Match the following eye disorder with its description by using the following answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. colour blindness b. night blindness c. glaucoma d. hyperopia e. diplopia f. presbyopia g. myopia lens h. cataract i. astigmatism 25. eyeball too long 26. eyeball too short 27. corrected by cylindrical lens 28. corrected by concave lens 29. corrected by convex 30. corneal surface uneven 31. images from two eyes not fused within cortex 32. increased intraocular pressure 33. opaque lens 34. stiffened lens 35. vitamin A deficiency 36. lack of a cone type 25. ANS: G PTS: 1 26. ANS: D PTS: 1 27. ANS: I PTS: 1 28. ANS: G PTS: 1 29. ANS: D PTS: 1 30. ANS: I PTS: 1 31. ANS: E PTS: 1 32. ANS: C PTS: 1 33. ANS: H PTS: 1 34. ANS: F PTS: 1 35. ANS: B PTS: 1 36. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-32 Indicate the characteristics associated with each part of the ear by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. external ear b. middle ear c. cochlea in the inner ear d. semicircular canal in the inner ear e. utricle and saccule in the inner ear 37. is air-filled 38. is fluid-filled 39. contains receptive hair cells 40. is concerned with hearing 41. is concerned with sense of equilibrium 42. contains the tympanic membrane, which vibrates in synchrony with sound waves 43. contains the ossicular system, which contributes to the amplification of the sound wave 44. contains a cupula, which sways in the direction of endolymph movement, bending the embedded hair cells 45. provides information about the position of the head relative to gravity 46. detects rotational acceleration or deceleration of the head 47. contains otoliths in gelatinous mass, movement of which bends hair cells 48. contains the organ of Corti whose hair cells are bent during vibration of the basilar membrane 49. is connected with the throat via the eustachian tube 50. provides information useful for keeping the eyes focused on a fixed object even when the head is moving 51. is part of the vestibular apparatus 52. consists of three elongated spiral compartments 53. components aligned in three different planes all perpendicular to each other 37. ANS: A PTS: 1 38. ANS: C PTS: 1 39. ANS: B PTS: 1 40. ANS: C PTS: 1 41. ANS: D PTS: 1 42. ANS: B PTS: 1 43. ANS: B PTS: 1 44. ANS: D PTS: 1 45. ANS: E PTS: 1 46. ANS: D PTS: 1 47. ANS: E PTS: 1 48. ANS: C PTS: 1 49. ANS: B PTS: 1 50. ANS: D PTS: 1 51. ANS: D PTS: 1 52. ANS: D PTS: 1 53. ANS: D PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-33 Match the following term with its description by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. timbre (quality) b. pitch (tone) c. intensity of a sound wave (loudness) 54. frequency of sound waves 55. dependent on the overtones 56. dependent on the amplitude of the sound wave 57. measured in cycles per second 58. measured in decibels 54. ANS: B PTS: 1 55. ANS: A PTS: 1 56. ANS: C PTS: 1 57. ANS: B PTS: 1 58. ANS: C PTS: 1 Match the following receptors to their locations by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. chemoreceptors b. mechanoreceptors c. photoreceptors 59. receptors in retina 60. receptors in cochlea 61. receptors in otolith organs 62. receptors in semicircular canals 63. receptors in taste buds 64. receptors in olfactory mucosa 59. ANS: C PTS: 1 60. ANS: B PTS: 1 61. ANS: B PTS: 1 62. ANS: B PTS: 1 63. ANS: A PTS: 1 64. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 4-34 Indicate the proper sequence of involvement in the visual pathway by writing the appropriate letter in the blank using the answer code. a. bipolar neurons b. optic nerve c. lateral geniculate nucleus d. rods and cones e. visual cortex f. optic tracts g. ganglion cells h. optic radiations 65. first 66. second 67. third 68. fourth 69. fifth 70. sixth 71. seventh 72. eighth 65. ANS: D PTS: 1 66. ANS: A PTS: 1 67. ANS: G PTS: 1 68. ANS: B PTS: 1 69. ANS: F PTS: 1 70. ANS: C PTS: 1 71. ANS: H PTS: 1 72. ANS: E PTS: 1Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-1 Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement regarding endocrine glands is INCORRECT? a. They produce hormones. b. They secrete their products into the blood. c. They comprise epithelial tissue. d. They are all controlled by the nervous system. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 215 BLM: Remember 2. Which statement concerning neurosecretory neurons is correct? a. They release neurotransmitters. b. They release hormones. c. They are unable to conduct action potentials, unlike ordinary neurons. d. They release neurotransmitters and are unable to conduct action potentials, unlike ordinary neurons. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 231 BLM: Higher order 3. What is the specificity of hormones due to? a. specialized hormone secretion b. molecular rearrangement at the site of action c. specific binding of hormones to plasma proteins d. specialization of target-cell receptors ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 215 BLM: Remember 4. Which statement concerning hormones is correct? a. They are all of similar chemical composition. b. They combine with specific receptors on the target cell’s surface or inside the target cell. c. They are secreted at a constant rate. d. All act by activating adenylate cyclase, which transforms ATP into cyclic AMP. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 215 BLM: Remember 5. Which statement concerning hormones is correct? a. All are regulated by the hypothalamus. b. They are secreted by endocrine glands through ducts into the blood. c. They must combine with specific receptors on the target cells in order to exert their effects. d. They are produced in a gland and act on the target cells in different tissues. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 215 BLM: RememberChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-2 6. Which statement is correct about hormones? a. They are released from exocrine glands. b. They interact with receptors at target-cell sites. c. They are synthesized in the lymph nodes. d. They interact with receptors in the blood. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 215 BLM: Remember 7. Which statement concerning hormones is INCORRECT? a. A single endocrine gland may produce multiple hormones. b. A single target cell may be influenced by more than one hormone. c. A single hormone can influence only one type of target cell. d. An endocrine organ may exert nonendocrine functions in addition to secreting hormones. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 216 BLM: Remember 8. Which statement about peptide hormones is INCORRECT? a. They include adrenal cortex hormones. b. Insulin is an example. c. They are stored within secretory granules. d. They are secreted from endocrine glands. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 219 BLM: Remember 9. Which statement regarding tropic hormones is INCORRECT? a. They may stimulate the secretion of other hormones. b. They target other glands. c. They are all produced in the anterior pituitary. d. Primary hyposecretion occurs when an endocrine gland isn’t receiving enough of its tropic hormone. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 216 BLM: Remember 10. What is NOT a function of the endocrine system? a. maintenance of blood sugar levels b. regulation of metabolic activity and H2O and electrolyte balance c. promotion of growth and development d. transduction of external stimuli ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 215 BLM: Higher order 11. Which of the following is NOT controlled at least in part by hormones? a. homeostasis b. organic metabolism c. rapid interactions with the external environment d. H2O and electrolyte balance ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 216 BLM: Higher orderChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-3 12. Which statement concerning tropic hormones is correct? a. They are produced by the posterior pituitary. b. They are secreted only by the hypothalamus. c. They primarily regulate hormone secretion by certain other endocrine glands. d. All have non-tropic functions, too. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 216 BLM: Remember 13. Hormones are classified into which three types? a. amines, peptides, and steroids b. amines, steroids, and phospholipids c. amines, phospholipids, and steroids d. amines, free fatty acids, and peptides ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: Higher order 14. Which statement concerning amines is correct? a. They consist of a chain of specific amino acids of varying length. b. They are derived from alanine. c. They include the hormones secreted by the thyroid gland and adrenal medulla. d. They are derived from tyrosine. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: Remember 15. Which class of hormones is synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi complex mechanism? a. peptides b. catecholamines c. steroids d. thyroid hormone ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: Higher order 16. Which hormone is NOT a tropic hormone? a. ACTH b. ADH c. ICSH d. LH ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 232 BLM: Higher order 17. Which class of hormones is NOT stored in the secretory cell after being synthesized? a. peptides b. catecholamines c. steroids d. thyroid hormone ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: RememberChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-4 18. Which class of hormones is released by exocytosis upon appropriate stimulation? a. peptides b. thyroxin c. steroids d. insulin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: Remember 19. What accomplishes the transport of lipid-soluble hormones in the blood? a. loose binding with iodine b. specific binding to plasma proteins c. HDLs d. glycolipids ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 222 BLM: Higher order 20. Which statement concerning peptide hormones is INCORRECT? a. Peptides are synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi complex system. b. Peptides circulate largely bound to plasma proteins. c. Peptides bind to surface receptors of their target cells. d. Peptides exert their effect largely by means of second-messenger systems. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: Higher order 21. Which statement concerning steroids is correct? a. They are hydrophilic b. They are derived from cholesterol. c. They initiate the synthesis of second messenger system within their target cells. d. Epinephrine is an example. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: Higher order 22. Which statement concerning lipophilic hormones is correct? a. They include catecholamines. b. They bind with receptors located inside their target cells. c. They activate second-messenger systems within their target cells. d. They circulate as free hormones. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: Higher order 23. Which class of hormones acts by means of a second-messenger system? a. proteins b. catecholamines c. steroids d. thyroid hormone ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: RememberChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-5 24. Which class of hormones triggers the synthesis of new intracellular proteins within the target cell? a. peptides b. steroids c. thyroid hormone d. all lipophilic hormones ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 223 BLM: Remember 25. What is the most common second messenger used by hydrophilic hormones? a. calcium b. cyclic AMP c. chromatin d. messenger RNA ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 223 BLM: Higher order 26. What is NOT associated with the post-receptor events of hydrophilic hormones? a. cyclic AMP b. protein kinase c. adenylate cyclase d. chromatin ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 223 BLM: Remember 27. Which molecular precursor is the derivative of estrogens, testosterone, cortisol, and aldosterone? a. DHEA b. cholesterol c. UDP-glucose d. epinephrine ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: Remember 28. Which statement about the post-receptor events of hydrophilic hormones is INCORRECT? a. Adenylyl cyclase forms cyclic AMP. b. Cyclic AMP is a secondary messenger. c. Some hydrophilic hormones use Ca ions as a secondary messenger. d. Steroid hormones use this kind of hormone mechanism. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 223 BLM: RememberChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-6 29. What happens in the second messenger? a. A small amount of one hormone (the second messenger) is required to release another. b. A tropic hormone (the first messenger) stimulates secretion of another hormone (the second messenger). c. The hormone first binds to a specific surface receptor, whereupon the hormone-receptor complex moves into the cell to combine with a specific intracellular receptor. d. A hormone (the first messenger) binds to surface receptors activating adenylyl cyclase, catalyzing cAMP formation. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 223 BLM: Higher order 30. Which hormone type does NOT require membrane receptors to invoke cell responses? a. catecholamines b. steroids c. peptides d. parathyroid hormone ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: Higher order 31. What can influence the effective plasma concentration of a hormone? a. the hormone’s rate of binding to receptors on target tissues b. the hormone’s extent of binding to plasma proteins c. the hormone’s rate of metabolic activity ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 217 BLM: Higher order 32. Which statement about TSH is correct? a. A buildup of the thyroid hormone stimulates its production by negative feedback. b. It is secreted by the thyroid gland. c. It is stored in the posterior pituitary. d. It stimulates the thyroid gland. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 216 BLM: Remember 33. What must lipophilic hormones interact with prior to gene activation? a. membrane receptors b. cAMP c. hormone response elements d. G proteins ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 227 BLM: RememberChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-7 34. Which characteristic is NOT shared by both lipophilic and hydrophilic hormones? a. amplification of hormone actions in the target cell b. transport via plasma proteins c. synergistic actions d. antagonistic actions ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: Higher order 35. Which situation represents negative feedback? a. Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B inhibits hormone C. b. Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B inhibits hormone A. c. Hormone A stimulates hormone B; hormone B inhibits hormone A. d. Hormone A inhibits hormone B; hormone B inhibits hormone C. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 218 BLM: Higher order 36. What occurs in the process of negative feedback? a. TSH inhibits thyroid hormone secretion by the thyroid gland. b. Thyroid hormone inhibits TSH secretion by the anterior pituitary. c. Thyroid hormone directly inhibits further thyroid hormone secretion by the thyroid gland. d. TRH inhibits TSH secretion by the anterior pituitary. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 218 BLM: Higher order 37. Which statement concerning control of hormone secretion is NOT correct? a. Normally the effective plasma concentration of a hormone is regulated by appropriate adjustments in the rate of its secretion. b. In order to maintain homeostasis, the rate of hormone secretion remains constant. c. All hormones are regulated with negative feedback controls. d. Neuroendocrine reflexes produce a sudden increase in hormone secretion in response to a specific, usually external, stimulus. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 216 BLM: Higher order 38. Which statement concerning diurnal rhythms is correct? a. They are inherent cyclical peaks and ebbs of hormone secretion that are a function of time and are entrained to the 24-hour light-dark cycle. b. They are important in maintaining hormone levels at a relatively constant set point, no matter the time of day. c. They occur only with cortisol secretion. d. They occur only with growth hormone secretion. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 218 BLM: Higher orderChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-8 39. What does permissiveness of hormones refer to? a. Hormones permit cellular processes to occur. b. Hormones permit their target organs to function at the optimal rate. c. In some instances, an adequate amount of one hormone must be present for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect, even though the first hormone itself does not directly elicit the response. d. Through numerous neuroendocrine relationships the nervous system permits the endocrine system to function. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 220 BLM: Higher order 40. With regards to circadian rhythms, which statement is true? a. The hypothalamus’s supraoptic nucleus maintains them. b. Melanin is responsible for generating them. c. They are brought about by fluctuating levels of clock proteins. d. The pituitary gland maintains them. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 245 BLM: Higher order 41. Which endocrine hypofunction disorder does NOT result from too little hormone activity? a. lack of target cell receptors b. hyposecretion c. reduced plasma protein binding d. increased removal from blood ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 219 BLM: Remember 42. When will synergism occur? a. when one hormone induces the loss of another hormone’s receptors b. when the actions of several hormones are complementary, and their combined effect is greater than the sum of their separate effects c. when one hormone must be present in adequate amounts for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect, even though the first hormone does not directly elicit the response d. when one hormone increases the number of target-tissue receptors for another hormone ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 220 BLM: Higher order 43. What can too little activity of a particular hormone arise from? a. an abnormality within the endocrine gland that produces this hormone b. overactivity of this hormone’s tropic hormone c. overstimulation by hypothalamus d. ovver stimulation of pituitary gland ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 219 BLM: Higher orderChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-9 44. Which statement concerning the posterior pituitary is correct? a. It secretes ADH. b. It stores anterior pituitary hormones. c. It stores ACTH and LH. d. It secretes vasopressin and oxytocin into the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 232 BLM: Remember 45. Which statement concerning the posterior pituitary is correct? a. It is composed of vascular tissue. b. It stores anterior pituitary hormones, which are released into the blood upon hypothalamic stimulation. c. It synthesizes and secretes vasopressin and oxytocin. d. It stimulates the adrenal gland. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 232 BLM: Remember 46. What has a direct anatomical connection to the hypothalamus? a. adrenal gland b. posterior lobe of the pituitary c. thyroid gland d. parathyroid gland ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 231 BLM: Remember 47. Which of the following is a neurohormone? a. vasopressin b. thyroid hormone c. growth hormone d. cortisol ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 231 BLM: Remember 48. Which structure secretes insulin and glucagon? a. posterior pituitary b. liver c. pancreas d. stomach ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 230 BLM: Remember 49. Which statement concerning an antioxidant melatonin is correct? a. It accelerates metabolism. b. It defends against free radicals. c. It lowers the concentration of blood sugar. d. It serves as a secondary messenger. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 245 BLM: RememberChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-10 50. Which gland produces melatonin? a. anterior pituitary b. posterior pituitary c. pineal d. hypothalamus ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 245 BLM: Remember 51. Which may be included in melatonin’s actions? a. regulation of circadian rhythms b. having permissive action with glucorticoids c. induction of calcium reabsorption d. stimulation of melanin pigment production ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 245 BLM: Remember 52. Which statement concerning melanocyte-stimulating hormones is correct? a. They are responsible for the deposition of melanin in the skin during the process of tanning. b. They are not present in significant amounts in adult humans. c. They are present in varying amounts in races of different skin colour. d. They are important for colour adaptations associated with camouflage in certain lower vertebrates. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 231 BLM: Remembe 53. Which statement concerning melanocyte-stimulating hormones is correct? a. They are secreted by the hypothalamus. b. They are known to cause skin darkening in certain lower vertebrates. c. They are believed to be responsible for the tanning phenomenon in humans. d. They are responsible for circadian rhythm. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 231 BLM: Higher order 54. Which hormone is released from the hypothalamus? a. CRH b. TSH c. FS d. LH ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 229 BLM: Remember 55. Which is an INCORRECT association? a. adrenal medulla/vasopressin b. anterior pituitary/adenohypophysis c. epinephrine/catecholamine d. insulin/polypeptide ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 221 BLM: Higher orderChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-11 56. Which statement concerning the anterior pituitary is correct? a. It is also known as the neurohypophysis. b. It is composed primarily of nervous tissue. c. It primarily secretes tropic hormones. d. It secretes vasopressin ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 216 BLM: Higher order 57. Which structure is neuroendocrine in nature? a. anterior pituitary gland b. thyroid gland c. hypothalamus d. adrenal cortex ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 231 BLM: Higher order 58. Which hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary is nontropic? a. TSH b. Prolactin c. LH d. ACTH ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 234 BLM: Remember 59. How is hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary gland controlled? a. byneuronal cell bodies from the hypothalamus b. directly by neural innervation of anterior pituitary cells c. by negative-feedback action of target-tissue hormones d. only by inhibiting hormones from hypothalamus ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 218 BLM: Higher order 60. A portal system exists between which glands? a. adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla b. hypothalamus and anterior pituitary c. hypothalamus and posterior pituitary d. large intestine and small intestine ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 235 BLM: Higher order 61. Which statement regarding vasopressin is INCORRECT? a. It is produced in the hypothalamus. b. It stimulates uterine smooth muscle contraction. c. It increases kidney reabsorption of water. d. It is a potent arteriolar vasoconstrictor. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 232 BLM: RememberChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-12 62. What is NOT a characteristic of the hormone oxytocin? a. It stimulates uterine contractions. b. It promotes milk ejection from mammary gland ducts. c. It influences bonding behaviour between mother and baby. d. It is a tropic hormone. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 232 BLM: Higher order 63. Which hormone is regulated by the anterior pituitary? a. parathyroid hormone b. Cortisol c. Aldosterone d. Insulin ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 229 BLM: Remember 64. Hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus assist which action? a. control the release of oxytocin and vasopressin from the posterior pituitary b. travel via neuron axons from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary c. are carried in the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system d. are released upon positive-feedback stimulation via the anterior pituitary tropic hormones ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 235 BLM: Higher order 65. What is stimulated by LH? a. cells that destroy the cells of Leydig b. enlargement of the follicles c. development of the hypothalamus d. formation of the corpus luteum ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 229 BLM: Higher order 66. Which statement concerning hypophysiotropic hormones is correct? a. Each hypophysiotropic hormone influences only one anterior pituitary hormone. b. All hypophysiotropic hormones stimulate the release of anterior pituitary hormones. c. Hypophysiotropic hormones are also produced outside the hypothalamus, where they serve different functions. d. Hypophysiotropic hormones are secreted into the general circulation. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 234 BLM: Remember 67. Which hormone signals the kidneys to control water balance? a. Vasopressin b. ACTH c. TRH d. somatostatin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 232 BLM: RememberChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-13 68. Which statement concerning the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system is correct? a. It carries anterior pituitary hormones from the anterior pituitary gland to the hypothalamus to regulate the release of hypophysiotropic hormones. b. It diverts blood directly to the pituitary, completely bypassing the hypothalamus. c. It carries hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary to regulate anterior pituitary hormone secretion. d. It carries the anterior pituitary hormones into the general systemic circulation. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 235 BLM: Higher order 69. Which statement concerning the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system is correct? a. It carries vasopressin and oxytocin from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary for storage. b. It carries hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary to control the release of posterior pituitary hormones. c. It carries hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary to control the release of anterior pituitary hormones. d. It carries vasopressin and oxytocin from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary to control the release of anterior pituitary hormones. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 235 BLM: Higher order 70. What happens in a short-loop negative feedback control system? a. The anterior pituitary hormone feeds back to the hypothalamus, suppressing releasing hormone. b. The target gland’s hormone feeds back to the anterior pituitary, suppressing the tropic hormone. c. The target gland’s hormone does not feed back to any other gland. d. The anterior pituitary hormone feeds back to the posterior pituitary gland, stimulating the inhibiting hormone. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 236 BLM: Higher order 71. Which of the following is correct for hormones produced in the anterior pituitary? a. They are synthesized by the hypothalamus. b. They may be only nontropic. c. They are secreted into the blood. d. They are secreted into ducts. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 232 BLM: Remember 72. Which pituitary hormone has NO role in reproductive physiology? a. follicle-stimulating hormone b. luteinizing hormone c. Oxytocin d. Vasopressin ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 232 BLM: RememberChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-14 73. Which of the following represent long-loop negative feedback in the CRH-ACTH-cortisol system? a. Cortisol inhibits CRH secretion. b. CRH inhibits ACTH secretion. c. ACTH inhibits CRH secretion. d. ACTH inhibits cortisol secretion. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 235 BLM: Remember 74. What is NOT an effect of GH? a. increased fat breakdown b. increased bone growth c. decreased glucose entry into muscle cells d. decreased protein synthesis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 237 BLM: Remember 75. Which statement concerning growth hormone is correct? a. Growth hormone levels in the blood are directly correlated with the rate of growth throughout life. b. Growth hormone stimulates the secretion of somatomedins. c. Growth hormone stimulates osteoclast activity. d. Excessive growth hormone in adults will cause the disease called gigantism. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 237 BLM: Higher order 76. Which statement concerning growth hormone is correct? a. It increases the uptake of amino acids by cells. b. It promotes lipid synthesis c. It works with insulin to lower blood sugar. d. It is secreted by the hypothalamus. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 237 BLM: Remember 77. What is NOT a function of growth hormone? a. It increases uptake of amino acids by cells. b. It stimulates the synthesis of somatomedins. c. It enhances glucose uptake by muscle cells. d. It stimulates cell division. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 238 BLM: Remember 78. Which statement concerning growth hormone is correct? a. It closes the epiphyseal plate of long bones. b. It promotes hypertrophy and hyperplasia. c. Its secretion is stimulated by an increased blood glucose level. d. It s the only factor responsible for governing the growth of an individual. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 240 BLM: RememberChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-15 79. Which statement concerning growth hormone is correct? a. It directly stimulates bone growth. b. It affects bones via somatomedin release. c. It promotes closure of the epiphyseal plate. d. It promotes low blood glucose level ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 240 BLM: Remember 80. The growth hormone signals activity of which of the following in a long bone to influence its length? a. articular cartilage b. Endosteum c. epiphyseal plate d. medullary cavity ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 238 BLM: Remember 81. What does excessive growth hormone secretion in an adult lead to? a. Gigantism b. disproportionate growth, resulting in thickened bones and coarse features c. Cushing’s syndrome d. central obesity ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 243 BLM: Remember 82. Which of the following results in somatomedins being released from the liver? a. increased plasma growth hormone levels b. increased plasma somatostatin levels c. decreased plasma growth hormone levels d. decreased plasma somatostatin levels ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 240 BLM: Higher order 83. In addition to GH, which other hormone is essential for normal growth? a. Insulin b. parathyroid hormone c. Calcitonin d. Glucagon ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 243 BLM: Remember 84. How does growth hormone exert its effects on growth? a. by stimulating production of somatomedins b. by directly invoking gene activity c. by elevating blood glucose levels d. by increasing fat metabolism ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 240 BLM: Higher orderChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-16 85. A deficiency in which of the following may result in dwarfism? a. growth-hormone inhibiting hormone b. GH c. thyroid hormone d. thyroid stimulating hormone ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 242 BLM: Higher order 86. Which statement concerning osteoblasts is correct? a. They secrete the organic matrix components of bone. b. They promote osteoclast activity. c. They dissolve bone tissue. d. They are cartilage cells ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 238 BLM: Higher order 87. Which factor does NOT increase growth hormone secretion? a. deep sleep b. Exercise c. low blood amino acid level d. Stress ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 237 BLM: Remember 88. Which of the following are masculinizing hormones produced from the adrenal gland? a. growth hormone b. Androgens c. thyroid hormone d. Cortisol ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 244 BLM: Higher order 89. Which statement concerning bone cells is correct? a. Osteoclasts are cells that make new bone cells. b. Chrondrocytes are bone cells that are affected by prolactin-inhibiting hormone. c. Osteoclasts are the bone cell types that dissolve bone. d. Osteoblasts are mature, nongrowing bone. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 238 BLM: Remember 90. The _____ is the main link between the nervous system and the endocrine system, due to its control over secretory activities of the _____ glands. a. thalamus, pituitary b. brain stem, thyroid c. hypothalamus, thyroid d. hypothalamus, pituitary ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 231 BLM: Higher orderChapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-17 91. Which disorders and hormonal imbalances are correctly matched? a. diabetes insipidus: decreased insulin response b. acromegaly: excessive growth hormone secretion after epiphyseal plates are closed c. diabetes mellitus: decreased ADH secretion d. dwarfism: excessive cortisol production ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 244 BLM: Remember 92. Which statement concerning IGF is INCORRECT? a. The concentration of IGF-1 in the blood plasma normally mimics the rate of secretion of GH. b. Fasting decreases IGF-1 levels even though it increases GH secretion. c. IGF-II, which is important during fetal development, is also influenced by GH. d. Glycogen synthesis is decreased by GH. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 240 BLM: Remember 93. A hormone can influence the activity of another hormone at a given target cell in one of three ways: permissiveness, synergism and antagonism. Which statement concerning the above concept is correct? a. With permissiveness, one hormone must be present in adequate amounts for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect. b. Synergism occurs when the action of one hormone is more dominant than another hormone. c. Antagonism occurs when hormones compete for the hormone’s receptors. d. ADH and oxytocin are a good example of antagonistic hormones. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 220 BLM: Higher order TRUE/FALSE 1. The same chemical messenger may be either a hormone or a neurotransmitter, depending on its source and mode of delivery to the target tissue. ANS: T PTS: 1 2. A single endocrine gland may produce many hormones. ANS: T PTS: 1 3. Neurohormones are hormones that specifically modify neural activity. ANS: F PTS: 1 4. Specialization of target-cell receptors explains the specificity of hormonal action. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-18 5. The nervous system exerts considerable control over the endocrine system, but hormones have no influence over the nervous system. ANS: F PTS: 1 6. Peptide hormones are often produced as prohormones. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. The hormones influence adjustments that require duration rather than speed, whereas the rapid coordinations of the body are controlled by the nervous system. ANS: T PTS: 1 8. All hormones are first formed as preprohormones then are pruned into active hormones. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. One target cell receptor may bind with more than one type of hormone. ANS: T PTS: 1 10. Cholesterol is a common precursor for polypeptide hormones. ANS: F PTS: 1 11. Endocrine responses occur more slowly and last longer than neural responses. ANS: T PTS: 1 12. Minor differences in structure between hormones within each chemical category often result in profound differences in biological response. ANS: T PTS: 1 13. Tropic hormones target only other glands. ANS: T PTS: 1 14. Metabolism of hormones always results in their inactivation. ANS: F PTS: 1 15. Once a steroid hormone binds with its intracellular receptor, the hormone-receptor complex binds with a specific hormone response element on DNA, thereby activating a particular gene. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-19 16. Peptide hormones cause changes in solute permeability or alter intracellular protein activity at their targets. ANS: T PTS: 1 17. Epinephrine produces diverse effects on the activity of smooth muscle. ANS: T PTS: 1 18. A tropic hormone acts primarily on nonendocrine tissues. ANS: F PTS: 1 19. Hormones may be steroids, peptides, or amines. ANS: T PTS: 1 20. All hormones are synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi complex system. ANS: F PTS: 1 21. Insulin is produced as a prohormone. ANS: F PTS: 1 22. Steroid hormones are first produced in an inactive form. ANS: F PTS: 1 23. Hormone activity is rapid compared to the effects of the nervous system. ANS: F PTS: 1 24. Plasma concentrations of a hormone are normally regulated by changes in secretion rate. ANS: T PTS: 1 25. Once synthesized, all hormones are stored within the endocrine cell until an appropriate signal arrives for their release. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. All amine hormones are hydrophilic. ANS: F PTS: 1 27. Secretion of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is under the effect of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-20 28. Hydrophilic hormones exert their effects primarily by activating second-messenger systems within their target cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 29. Lipophilic (hydrophobic) hormones circulate in the blood largely bound to plasma proteins. ANS: T PTS: 1 30. Peptide hormone receptors are located inside the target cell. ANS: F PTS: 1 31. Hyposecretion of an endocrine gland may have a genetic basis. ANS: T PTS: 1 32. Steroid hormones act through the second-messenger system. ANS: F PTS: 1 33. Each steroidogenic organ is capable of producing all of the steroid hormones. ANS: F PTS: 1 34. The pituitary gland produces melatonin. ANS: F PTS: 1 35. Only hormones that are not bound to plasma proteins are biologically active. ANS: T PTS: 1 36. Negative-feedback control tends to maintain hormone levels at a relatively constant set point, whereas neuroendocrine reflexes usually produce a sudden increase in hormone secretion in response to a specific stimulus. ANS: T PTS: 1 37. Clock proteins are essential for controlling circadian rhythms. ANS: T PTS: 1 38. Light is a crucial factor in regulating circadian rhythms. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-21 39. The role of MSH in humans is well understood. ANS: F PTS: 1 40. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor substance. ANS: T PTS: 1 41. The main control normally determining the plasma concentration of a particular hormone is its rate of inactivation and excretion. ANS: F PTS: 1 42. Permissiveness refers to the conversion of inactive enzymes into active enzymes by hormones, thus permitting the enzymes to perform their function. ANS: F PTS: 1 43. The cells of Leydig secrete ICSH. ANS: F PTS: 1 44. With down regulation, one hormone induces the loss of another hormone’s receptors. ANS: F PTS: 1 45. A “primary” defect in an endocrine system means that the defect is at the hypothalamus. ANS: F PTS: 1 46. An anterior pituitary gland produces inhibiting and stimulating signals that affect the hypothalamus. ANS: F PTS: 1 47. The hypothalamus synthesizes and regulates the release of hormones from the posterior pituitary. ANS: T PTS: 1 48. Oxytocin and vasopressin are carried in the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system. ANS: F PTS: 1 49. Osteoclasts are cells that make new bone cells. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-22 50. Chrondrocytes are bone cells that are affected by the growth hormone. ANS: F PTS: 1 51. All hormones secreted by the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland are peptides. ANS: T PTS: 1 52. Melanocyte-stimulating hormones play a role in determining the different amount of melanin in the skin of various human races. ANS: F PTS: 1 53. FSH has different functions in men and women. ANS: T PTS: 1 54. The somatomedins are insulin-like growth factors. ANS: T PTS: 1 55. FSH and LH are collectively known as gonadotropins. ANS: T PTS: 1 56. Prolactin is the only anterior pituitary hormone that does not exert a tropic action. ANS: T PTS: 1 57. Each anterior pituitary hormone is controlled by a single hypophysiotropic hormone from the hypothalamus. ANS: F PTS: 1 58. Acromegaly develops from a deficiency of the growth hormone. ANS: F PTS: 1 59. Growth hormone is controlled by both releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus. ANS: T PTS: 1 60. Transmission of nerve impulses from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary causes the stored hormones to be released. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-23 61. Hypophysiotropic-hormone secretion by the hypothalamus is regulated only by hormonal negative feedback. ANS: F PTS: 1 62. The thyroid hormone produces growth-promoting effects directly. ANS: F PTS: 1 63. Hypothalamic hypophysiotropic hormones cause the release of oxytocin and vasopressin from the posterior pituitary. ANS: F PTS: 1 64. The hypothalamus is the highest integrative centre in the hierarchical chain of command in endocrine control. ANS: T PTS: 1 65. TSH controls the amount of testosterone secreted by the testes. ANS: F PTS: 1 66. The anterior pituitary is involved in the regulation of reproduction. ANS: T PTS: 1 67. The posterior pituitary secretes LH. ANS: F PTS: 1 68. Hypophysiotropic hormones are secreted into the systemic circulatory system. ANS: F PTS: 1 69. Growth hormone directly stimulates bone growth. ANS: F PTS: 1 70. Growth hormone exerts metabolic effects unrelated to growth. ANS: T PTS: 1 71. Growth hormone does not directly affect bone growth, but instead stimulates the release of somatomedins from the liver, which in turn promote bone growth. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-24 72. One of the effects of the growth hormone is the control of fat metabolism. ANS: T PTS: 1 73. Insulin-like growth factors are produced in most tissues, but primarily in the liver. ANS: T PTS: 1 74. Cellular hypertrophy is accomplished by increased cell division. ANS: F PTS: 1 75. Dwarfism may be due to growth hormone deficiency in adults. ANS: F PTS: 1 76. Growth hormone is the only hormone that influences growth. ANS: F PTS: 1 77. Growth hormone secretion increases markedly about an hour after the onset of deep sleep. ANS: T PTS: 1 78. Growth hormone promotes closure of the epiphyseal plate at adolescence. ANS: F PTS: 1 79. There are no known growth-related signals that influence growth hormone secretion. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-25 COMPLETION 1. The ____________________hormones are derived from tyrosine. ANS: catacholamine PTS: 1 2. Steroid hormones are derived from ____________________. ANS: cholesterol PTS: 1 3. ____________________ are long-range chemical mediators secreted by endocrine glands into the blood, which carries them to distant target organs. ANS: Hormones PTS: 1 4. Melatonin is secreted by the ____________________. ANS: pineal gland PTS: 1 5. ____________________ are hormones released into the blood by neurosecretory neurons. ANS: Neurohormones PTS: 1 6. Unlike ____________________ hormones, steroid hormones are not stored after their formation. ANS: peptide PTS: 1 7. Most endocrine control systems involve ____________________ and hormonal components. ANS: neural PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-26 8. The specific site upon which a hormone exerts its effect is referred to as a ____________________ cell. ANS: target PTS: 1 9. The SCN is located in the ____________________ of the brain. ANS: hypothalamus PTS: 1 10. Antidiuretic hormone is also called ____________________. ANS: vasopressin PTS: 1 11. The most common site for metabolism of hormones is the ____________________. ANS: liver PTS: 1 12. With ____________________, one hormone must be present in adequate amounts for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect. ANS: permissiveness PTS: 1 13. The posterior pituitary secretes ____________________ and ____________________. ANS: oxytocin, vasopressin vasopressin, oxytocin PTS: 1 14. The primary means of eliminating hormones and their metabolites from the blood is by ____________________. ANS: excretion in the urine PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-27 15. ____________________ from the anterior pituitary stimulates cortisol secretion. ANS: ACTH PTS: 1 16. TRH controls the release of ____________________. ANS: TSH PTS: 1 17. Most hormone secretion is regulated by some form of ____________________ feedback. ANS: negative PTS: 1 18. A(n) ____________________ hormone stimulates the effect of another endocrine gland. ANS: tropic PTS: 1 19. All of the blood supply to the anterior pituitary gland must first pass through the ____________________ of the brain. ANS: hypothalamus PTS: 1 20. Vasopressin and ____________________ are produced in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. ANS: oxytocin PTS: 1 21. This releasing hormone, called ____________________, ultimately causes secretion of adrenocorticosteroids. ANS: corticotropin-releasing hormone. PTS: 1 22. FSH and LH are collectively called ____________________ because they control secretion of sex hormones. ANS: gonadotropins PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-28 23. In males, luteinizing hormone can be called ____________________, reflecting its function in stimulating the cells of Leydig. ANS: interstitial cell-stimulating hormone PTS: 1 24. The two growth spurts of children are ____________________ and ____________________. ANS: postnatal, pubertal pubertal, postnatal PTS: 1 25. ____________________ are hormones that consist of a chain of specific amino acids of varying length. ANS: Peptide hormones PTS: 1 26. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of ____________________ of a structure. ANS: cells PTS: 1 27. The majority of hormones fall into the class of ______________________. ANS: peptide hormones PTS: 1 28. The ____________________ is the cylindrical shaft of a long bone. ANS: diaphysis PTS: 1 29. ____________________ are hormones derived from cholesterol. ANS: Steroids PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-29 30. ____________________ is the process of forming bone in a long bone. ANS: Ossification PTS: 1 31. ____________________ are hormones derived from the amino acid tyrosine. ANS: Amines PTS: 1 32. ____________________ is the hormone that inhibits the effect of the growth hormone. ANS: Somatostatin PTS: 1 33. The ____________________ carries hypophysiotropic hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary. ANS: hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system PTS: 1 34. Dwarfism develops from a ____________________ of the growth hormone. ANS: deficiency PTS: 1 35. The ____________________ and ____________________ nuclei in the hypothalamus produce vasopressin and oxytocin. ANS: supraoptic, paraventricular PTS: 1 36. ____________________ are the bone cell types that form bones. ANS: Osteoblasts PTS: 1 37. ____________________ are the bone cell types that dissolve bone. ANS: Osteoclasts PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-30 MATCHING Indicate whether the characteristics below apply to the endocrine system or the nervous system by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. applies to the endocrine system b. applies to the nervous system c. applies to both the endocrine and nervous systems 1. structural continuity in the system 2. stores hormones for secretion 3. has an influence on other major control system 4. secretes chemical messengers that affect target cells 5. chemical messengers act at a long distance from their site of secretion 6. specificity is dependent on specificity of target-cell receptors 7. controls activities that require longer duration rather than speed 8. duration of action is brief (milliseconds) 9. speed of response is long (minutes to days or longer) 10. cerebral cortex can influence activities 11. releases factors such as CRF 12. pancreas has ductless cells that secrete 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 3. ANS: C PTS: 1 4. ANS: C PTS: 1 5. ANS: A PTS: 1 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 7. ANS: A PTS: 1 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 10. ANS: B PTS: 1 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 12. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-31 Indicate which characteristics apply to the hormones below by using the answer code. a. steroids b. catecholamines c. peptides d. thyroid hormone 13. synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi complex system 14. synthesized by enzymatic modification of cholesterol 15. synthesized within colloid 16. once synthesized, actively transported into preformed vesicles for storage 13. ANS: C PTS: 1 14. ANS: A PTS: 1 15. ANS: D PTS: 1 16. ANS: B PTS: 1 Indicate the solubility characteristics of each of the classes of hormones by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. lipophilic (hydrophobic) b. hydrophilic (lipophobic) 17. steroids 18. thyroid hormone 19. peptides 20. catecholamines 17. ANS: A PTS: 1 18. ANS: A PTS: 1 19. ANS: B PTS: 1 20. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-32 Indicate which of the features apply to the posterior and anterior pituitary by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. applies to the posterior pituitary b. applies to the anterior pituitary c. applies to both the posterior and anterior pituitary 21. composed of glandular tissue 22. composed of nervous tissue 23. also known as adenohypophysis 24. also known as neurohypophysis 25. secretes MSHs in humans 26. contains pituicytes 27. stores hormones synthesized by the hypothalamus 28. releases hormones into the general circulation 29. its release of hormones is directly controlled by action potentials 30. its release of hormones is directly controlled by hypothalamic hypophysiotropic hormones 31. neurally connected to the hypothalamus 32. connected to the hypothalamus by a vascular link 33. synthesizes the hormones it secretes 34. releases vasopressin and oxytocin into the blood 35. releases primarily tropic hormones into the blood 36. may be directly inhibited by negative feedback from its target organ 21. ANS: B PTS: 1 22. ANS: A PTS: 1 23. ANS: B PTS: 1 24. ANS: A PTS: 1 25. ANS: B PTS: 1 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 27. ANS: A PTS: 1 28. ANS: C PTS: 1 29. ANS: A PTS: 1 30. ANS: B PTS: 1 31. ANS: A PTS: 1 32. ANS: B PTS: 1 33. ANS: B PTS: 1 34. ANS: A PTS: 1 35. ANS: B PTS: 1 36. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-33 Indicate which hormone is responsible for each action by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. vasopressin b. oxytocin c. TSH d. ACTH e. growth hormone f. hormone not listed 37. stimulates somatomedin secretion by the liver 38. enhances H2O retention by the kidneys 39. responsible for ovulation 40. stimulates cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex 41. stimulates testosterone secretion 42. exerts a pressor effect on arterioles 43. stimulates growth of ovarian follicles and development of eggs 44. stimulates uterine contractions 45. regulates overall body growth 46. stimulates both estrogen and progesterone secretion 47. stimulates secretion of thyroid hormone 37. ANS: E PTS: 1 38. ANS: A PTS: 1 39. ANS: F PTS: 1 40. ANS: D PTS: 1 41. ANS: F PTS: 1 42. ANS: A PTS: 1 43. ANS: F PTS: 1 44. ANS: B PTS: 1 45. ANS: E PTS: 1 46. ANS: F PTS: 1 47. ANS: C PTS: 1 Match the description with the types of bone cells by using the answer code. a. osteocytes b. osteoblasts c. osteoclasts 48. bone cells that form bone 49. bone cells that are entombed in bone 50. bone cells that dissolve bone 51. stimulated by growth hormone 48. ANS: B PTS: 1 49. ANS: A PTS: 1 50. ANS: C PTS: 1 51. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 5: Principals of Endocrinology; The Central Endocrine Glands Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 5-34 ESSAY 1. Describe how the hypothalamus and pituitary interact to control many endocrine glands. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. Compare and contrast the receptor and postreceptor events for lipophilic and hydrophilic hormones. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. Describe circadian rhythms and the mechanisms thought to control them. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4. What are the various ways in which endocrine disorders can manifest themselves? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. Describe the primary factors involved in growth. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-1 Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the striated appearance of skeletal muscle due to? a. regular orderly arrangement of the T tubules b. regular orderly arrangement of the lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. regular orderly arrangement of the thick and thin filaments into A and I bands d. regular orderly arrangement of the motor units ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 252 BLM: Remember 2. What is involved in developing muscle fibres tension? a. contraction of sarcomeres b. lengthening of sarcomeres c. the pushing of myosin by actin d. elongation of myosin fibres ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 253 BLM: Higher Order 3. Which statement concerning myosin is correct? a. It is found in the A band. b. It is found in the I band. c. It is the primary protein found in the thin filaments. d. It contracts during muscle contraction because it is one of the contractile proteins. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 252 BLM: Remember 4. Which statement concerning myosin is correct? a. It is spherical in shape. b. It is the main structural component of the thin filaments. c. It is referred to as a contractile protein. d. It consists of four identical protein subunits. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 254 BLM: Higher Order 5. Which statement is correct for Actin? a. It has ATPase activity. b. It is shaped like a golf club. c. It forms a helical chain that forms the main structural component of the thin filaments. d. It is a regulatory protein. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 254 BLM: RememberChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-2 6. Which statement is correct for Actin? a. It is spherical. b. It contains a globular head that forms the cross bridges between the thick and thin filaments. c. It is referred to as a regulatory protein. d. It is inhibited by Ca2+. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 254 BLM: Higher Order 7. What composes thick filaments in skeletal muscle? a. actin b. troponin and tropomyosin c. myosin d. actin, troponin, and tropomyosin ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 254 BLM: Remember 8. How are Sarcomeres arranged end to end? a. as fascicles b. as myofibrils c. as bands d. as perimysia ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 252 BLM: Remember 9. What are in the I band of the sarcomere? a. overlapping thin and thick filaments b. only thick filaments c. only thin filaments d. 2 Z lines ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 252 BLM: Remember 10. Which statement concerning Z lines is correct? a. They are formed by the T tubules. b. They extend down the middle of the I band. c. They are formed by the cross bridges. d. They are the thin filaments. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 252 BLM: Remember 11. Which statement concerning cross bridges is INCORRECT? a. Cross bridges bind to actin during muscle contraction. b. Cross bridges are formed by the globular heads of the myosin molecules. c. Cross bridges consist of troponin and tropomyosin protruding from the actin helix. d. Cross bridges bend during muscle contraction. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 254 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-3 12. Rank muscle cell components from largest to smallest. 1 troponin 2 myofibril 3 sarcomere 4 thin filament 5 muscle fibre a. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 b. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 c. 5, 4 ,3 , 1, 2 d. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 253 BLM: Remember 13. What causes the striated appearance of skeletal muscle? a. regular arrangement of the T tubules running transversely through the muscle fibre b. presence of the Z lines extending down the middle of the I bands c. presence of gap junctions d. regular arrangement of highly organized thick and thin filaments ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 251-252 BLM: Higher Order 14. What is the term for the region between two Z lines? a. muscle fibre b. myofibril c. myofilament d. sarcomere ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 252 BLM: Remember 15. Muscle fibres are some of the longest cells in the body. How long can they be? a. 1 to 2 micrometres b. 2 to 4 micrometres c. 10 to 100 micrometres d. 500 to 1,000 micrometres ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 252 BLM: Remember 16. Which characteristics are shared by all three types of muscle tissues? a. All contain myosin and actin. b. All are neurogenic. c. All are striated. d. All are considered to be under voluntary control. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 255 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-4 17. What is the functional unit of skeletal muscle? a. largest contractile component of a muscle fibre b. area between two Z lines c. sarcoplasmic reticulum d. area between two I bands ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 252 BLM: Remember 18. Which statement is correct for troponin? a. It binds with calcium in skeletal muscle contraction b. It breaks down actin. c. It breaks down myosin. d. It forms the boundaries of a sarcomere. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 255 BLM: Remember 19. What is the smallest unit of contraction within a skeletal muscle? a. myofibril b. muscle fibre c. sarcomere d. thin filament ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 252 BLM: Remember 20. What is the function of tropomyosin? a. to bind Ca2+ b. to form attachments with myosin cross bridges c. to prevent myosin cross bridges from attaching to the thin filaments d. to serve as an ATPase ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 255 BLM: Higher Order 21. Which statement is true regarding the sliding-filament mechanism of muscle contraction? a. A bands slide in closer between the I bands b. thin filaments slide inward toward the centre of the A band c. Z lines slide in between the T tubules d. contractile proteins contract, thus shortening the sarcomere ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 256 BLM: Higher Order 22. What happens during contraction of skeletal muscle fibres? a. Contractile proteins contract. b. Thin filaments slide inward toward the A band’s centre as a result of cycles of cross-bridge binding and bending. c. Thick and thin filaments become tightly coiled, thus shortening the sarcomere. d. I bands slide in between the A bands. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 255 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-5 23. Which molecules are involved with regulation of cross-bridge attachment activity? a. calcium ions and troponin b. troponin and titin c. tropomyosin and calmodulin d. titin only ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 255 BLM: Remember 24. What happens during muscle contraction? a. The contractile proteins contract. b. The A band becomes shorter. c. The H zone becomes smaller or disappears. d. The I band remains unchanged. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 256 BLM: Higher Order 25. Which statement concerning the H zone is correct? a. It is the area within the middle of the Z lines where the thin filaments do not reach. b. It shortens or disappears during contraction. c. It contains only thin filaments. d. It is the area within the middle of the I band. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 256 BLM: Remember 26. During contraction, asynchronous cycling of crossbridges _______________ a. prevents tetany b. prevents thick filaments from slipping backwards c. prevents thin filaments from slipping backwards d. utilizes less ATP ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 257 BLM: Higher Order 27. Which of the following events happens during excitation-contraction coupling? a. The action potential travels down the thin myofilaments b. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. c. Ca2+ is taken up by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. Calcium blocks the binding sites on the actin molecules. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 257 BLM: Higher Order 28. Which statement concerning the T tubules is correct? a. They store Ca2+. b. They provide a means of rapidly transmitting the action potential from the surface into the central portions of the muscle fibre. c. They store ATP. d. They run longitudinally between the myofibrils. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 258 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-6 29. Which events involved in muscle cell contraction are sequenced in the correct order? 1. Sodium channels open, allowing sodium to flow in. 2. Impulse reaches axon’s synaptic knob. 3. ACh binds to receptors on sarcolemma. 4. Synaptic vesicles fuse with neuron’s membrane and release ACh via exocytosis. 5. If enough sodium moves into the muscle cell, an impulse (action potential) develops. a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 c. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 d. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 257 BLM: Higher Order 30. Which statement is correct for the T tubules? a. They form the Z lines. b. They store Ca2+. c. They provide a means of rapidly transmitting the action potential to the central portions of the muscle fibre. d. They allow for nutrients to be carried into the cell. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 257 BLM: Higher Order 31. How does an action potential rapidly spread to the central portions of a muscle cell? a. by means of the Z lines b. by means of the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. by means of the H zone d. by means of the T tubules ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 257 BLM: Higher Order 32. Binding of which substance to myosin permits cross bridge of which action between actin and myosin? a. Binding ATP will bind actin and myosin. b. Binding ATP will detach actin and myosin c. Binding calcium will bind actin and myosin. d. Binding calcium will detach actin and myosin. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 254 BLM: Remember 33. The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores which substance when a muscle is relaxed and releases it for binding to which substance during contraction? a. It stores calcium for binding to troponin. b. It stores calcium when binding to tropomyosin c. It stores sodium when binding to tropomyosin d. It stores potassium when binding to tropomyosin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 258 BLM: RememberChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-7 34. Which of the following is the first step in excitation-contraction coupling? a. Exposed actin sites bind with myosin cross bridges. b. Sodium channels open in the fibre’s membrane. c. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. Troponin binds calcium. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 257 BLM: Higher Order 35. Which statement is NOT characteristic of cross bridges? a. They are a component of thin filaments. b. They are composed of myosin. c. They have an actin binding site. d. They have an ATPase binding site. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 256 BLM: Higher Order 36. Which statement concerning foot proteins is correct? a. They span the gap between a lateral sac of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the cell membrane. b. They are believed to serve as Ca2+ channels. c. They project from the thick filaments, bind to the thin filaments, and subsequently bend to pull the thin filaments inward toward the A band’s centre during muscle contraction. d. Each foot protein contains two subunits arranged in a specific pattern. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 258 BLM: Remember 37. Which statement concerning cross bridges is INCORRECT? a. They are formed by the globular heads of the myosin molecules as they protrude from the thick filaments. b. They bind to actin during muscle contraction. c. They are not found in the I band. d. They bind with troponin and tropomyosin during muscle contraction to pull them away from the actin helical chain. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 254 BLM: Higher Order 38. What happens during a cross-bridge cycle in skeletal muscle? a. The cross bridge is energized as myosin ATPase activity hydrolyzes ATP. b. The myosin cross bridge is able to bind with troponin molecule when Ca2+ pulls the troponin-tropomyosin complex aside. c. The linkage between actin and the myosin cross bridge is broken at the end of the cross-bridge cycle as Mg2+ binds to the cross bridge. d. The power strokes of all cross bridges are directed toward the periphery of the thick filament. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 254 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-8 39. Which statement concerning cross bridges is correct? a. They extend between the A and I bands and bend to pull the bands together during muscle contraction. b. They are formed by the spherical actin molecules. c. They extend from the thick filaments and bind to actin, then bend to pull the thin filaments in closer together during muscle contraction. d. The A band is shorter. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 254 BLM: Higher Order 40. Which statement concerning cross bridges is INCORRECT? a. Cross bridges are the globular heads of myosin molecules. b. Cross bridges have actin binding sites that are normally covered by troponin and tropomyosin except during excitation-contraction coupling. c. Cross bridges bind with actin and then bend to pull the thin filaments inward during contraction according to the sliding filament mechanism. d. Mg2+ is necessary to bind ATP to the cross bridge. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 254 BLM: Higher Order 41. What directly blocks cross bridge interaction between actin and myosin in skeletal muscle? a. acetylcholine b. Z lines c. calcium d. tropomyosin ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 254 BLM: Higher Order 42. What provides the energy for cross-bridge cycling during muscle contraction? a. acetylcholine b. Ca2+ c. ATP d. myosin ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 260 BLM: Higher Order 43. What is NOT involved in the relaxation of muscle? a. when acetylcholine is destroyed by acetylcholinesterase b. when there is no longer a local action potential c. when the T tubules actively take up the Ca2+ was released d. when the actin and myosin molecules are no longer bound together ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 262 BLM: Higher Order 44. What would happen if ATP supplies became very low or not available in a muscle cell? a. an increase in tension development b. cross bridges detach from actin c. muscles relax d. ATP is not required for detachment from actin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 262|267 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-9 45. Why are you able to repeatedly contract and relax your muscles of respiration, allowing you to breathe in and breathe out? a. As soon as all of the Ca2+ stored in the lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum is used up, muscle relaxation occurs. b. After the muscle cell becomes excited, acetylcholinesterase maintains the action of acetylcholine. c. When there is no longer a local action potential in the muscle cell, Ca2+ is actively transported back into the lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and muscle relaxation occurs. d. because ATP is not available soon after the contraction. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 262|267 BLM: Higher Order 46. What is involved in the process of muscle relaxation? a. Acetylcholinesterase promotes the concentration of acetylcholine to allow the muscle membrane to return to resting potential. b. Ca2+ is actively taken up by the lateral sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum when there is no longer a local action potential. c. The cross bridges from the thick filaments bind to the thin filaments and bend in such a way as to return the filaments to their original resting position. d. ATP is no longer available. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 262|263 BLM: Higher Order 47. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of whole muscle tension? a. the number of muscle fibres contracting b. the tension produced by each contracting fibre c. the extent of motor-unit recruitment d. the proportion of each motor unit that is contracting at any given time ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 267 BLM: Higher Order 48. What causes muscle relaxation? a. addition of magnesium to muscle cells b. ACh hyperactivity c. return of calcium to lateral sacs d. lack of ATP ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 262 BLM: Higher Order 49. What is NOT a method of gradation of skeletal muscle contraction? a. twitch summation b. motor unit recruitment c. stimulating variable portions of each motor unit d. varying the number of motor units stimulated ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 263|265 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-10 50. What is involved in the gradation of muscle contraction? a. greater number of muscle fibres b. variation in the frequency of action potentials initiated in each muscle fibre c. variation in the size of the action potentials initiated in each muscle fibre d. variation in the distance action potentials can travel ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 262 BLM: Higher Order 51. Which statement is correct for a motor unit? a. a single motor neuron plus all of the muscle fibres it innervates b. a single muscle fibre plus all of the motor neurons that innervate i. c. all of the motor neurons supplying a single muscle d. a pair of antagonistic muscles ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 264 BLM: Remember 52. Which statement concerning in twitch summation is correct? a. The muscle fibre is stimulated again before the action potential has returned to resting potential. b. The muscle fibre is stimulated again before the filaments have completely returned to their resting position. c. Stronger muscle contractions occur with stronger action potentials. d. Weaker muscle contractions in spite of stronger action potentials. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 264 BLM: Higher Order 53. Which statement is correct for twitch summation? a. It is a means by which weak muscle contraction may be accomplished. b. It results from increasing the number of motor units that are firing within a muscle. c. It results from increasing the frequency at which motor units are firing within a muscle. d. A high level of calcium ion is not required in twitch summation. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 264 BLM: Higher Order 54. Which statement concerning summation is correct? a. It results from increases in cytosolic calcium levels. b. pumping of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. c. It can be enhanced by allowing a cell to completely relax. d. It rarely results in tetany. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 265 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-11 55. If you wanted to pick up something heavier than your pencil, you would need to have a stronger muscle contraction. In what way might you accomplish this? a. Stimulate more motor units. b. Decrease the frequency of stimulation to allow a more prolonged contraction to occur. c. Decrease the refractory period. d. Block acetylcholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction to allow acetylcholine to function longer. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 264 BLM: Higher Order 56. Which statement concerning the length-tension relationship is INCORRECT? a. It refers to the relationship between the length of the muscle before the onset of contraction and the tetanic tension that each contracting fibre can subsequently develop at that length. b. It is based on the amount of overlap of thick and thin filaments. c. It allows no tension development if the whole muscle is stretched to 30 percent longer than its optimal length. d. Within the body, it is limited to a functional range because of limitations on muscle length imposed by attachment to the skeleton. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 266 BLM: Higher Order 57. Which statement concerning the length-tension relationship of skeletal muscle is INCORRECT? a. When a muscle is maximally stretched, it can develop the most tension upon contraction because the thin filaments can slide a maximal distance. b. Maximum tension can be developed if the muscle is at its lowest at the onset of contraction. c. In the body, the relaxed length of muscle is at its optimal length. d. When the initial length of muscle prior to contraction becomes very short, tension is decreased during contraction because of thin filament overlap, because the thick filaments are compressed against the Z lines, and because not as much Ca2+ is released during excitation-contraction coupling. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 267 BLM: Higher Order 58. To pick up a book which statement is true? a. muscle tension must be lesser than the load b. the muscle must lengthen during contraction c. muscle tension remains constant as the muscle changes length d. muscle length remains constant as the muscle tension changes ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 267 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-12 59. Which statement is correct for muscle tension? a. It is created during muscle contraction as the tension generated by the contractile elements is transmitted via the connective tissue and tendons to the bones. b. It is the force exerted on a muscle by the weight of an object. c. It is greater than the load during an isometric contraction. d. It is lesser than the load during isometric contraction ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 267 BLM: Higher Order 60. Where does a muscle originate? a. main, thick part of the structure b. middle, thin part of the structure c. movable end of attachment d. stationary end of attachment ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 268 BLM: Remember 61. During an isotonic contraction of a muscle in the arm which of the following occurs? a. the muscle movement does not occur. b. the muscle does not change length. c. the tension in the muscle does not overcome a load. d. the tension in the muscle remains constant. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 268 BLM: Higher Order 62. What is a characteristic feature of isometric muscle contractions? a. They occur at constant tension. b. The muscle shortens. c. They are used for body movements. d. They occur at constant length. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 268 BLM: Higher Order 63. With eccentric muscle contractions which statement is true? a. the development of tension occurs at constant muscle length. b. the muscle lengthens while contracting. c. the muscle shortens while contracting. d. muscle length and tension vary throughout a range of motion. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 269 BLM: Higher Order 64. For which activity are submaximal isometric contractions important? a. moving large objects b. walking c. maintaining posture d. writing ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 268 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-13 65. Muscles developing tension while lengthening, are performing on what type of contractions? a. concentric b. eccentric c. isometric d. fatiguing ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 269 BLM: Higher Order 66. If the load on a muscle is increased, eventually a load will be reached at which the velocity of shortening becomes zero. At this point, what is the term for the muscle contraction? a. concentric b. eccentric c. isotonic d. isometric ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 268 BLM: Higher Order 67. What is the first means by which ATP is produced at the onset of contractile activity? a. transfer of energy and phosphate from creatine phosphate to ADP b. oxidative phosphorylation c. glycolysis d. degradation of myoglobin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 272 BLM: Higher Order 68. During aerobic exercise, what is the primary means by which ATP is produced for contractile activity? a. creatine phosphate b. fermentation c. oxidative phosphorylation d. glycolysis ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 271 BLM: Higher Order 69. Which statement concerning myoglobin is correct? a. It can store small amounts of CO2. b. It increases the rate of O2 transfer from the blood into muscle fibres. c. It is abundant in fast-glycolytic fibres. d. It is abundant in slow red fibres. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 272 BLM: Higher Order 70. Which statement is correct about the summation of simple twitches? a. They can occur from the long duration of the action potential in a muscle fibre. b. They reduce the tension in a muscle. c. They result from the slow stimulation of a muscle fibre. d. The twitches from action potentials add together. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 265|272 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-14 71. Which statement concerning the characteristics of different types of muscle fibres is INCORRECT? a. The higher the ATPase activity, the faster the speed of contraction. b. Muscles that have high glycolytic capacity and large glycogen stores are more resistant to fatigue. c. Muscles with high ATP-synthesizing ability are more resistant to fatigue. d. Oxidative types of muscle fibres contain myoglobin. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 271|272 BLM: Higher Order 72. Which of the following properties characterize fast-oxidative (type IIa) muscle fibres? a. high myosin-ATPase activity b. low myosin-ATPase activity c. low oxidative capacity d. high oxidative capacity. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 272 BLM: Higher Order 73. Which statement is correct for fast-glycolytic (type IIb) fibres? a. They contain an abundance of mitochondria. b. They can be converted into fast-oxidative fibres by regular endurance activities. c. They are most abundant in muscles specialized for maintaining low-intensity contractions for long periods of time without fatigue. d. The muscle fibre diameter is small. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 272 BLM: Remember 74. Which characteristics would NOT be exhibited in the muscle cells of a marathon runner’s legs? a. high resistance to fatigue b. low myoglobin content c. low glycogen content d. slow speed of contraction ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 264 BLM: Higher Order 75. Fatigue is the failure of a muscle fibre to maintain what as a result of previous contractile activity? a. excitability b. muscle mass c. tension d. sarcomere number ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 264 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-15 76. What causes muscular fatigue? a. lactic acid accumulation b. depletion of calcium c. depletion of sodium d. glycogenesis ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 271|272 BLM: Higher Order 77. What does NOT directly influence motor neurons? a. primary motor cortex b. cerebellum c. brain stem d. afferent neurons (through intervening interneurons) ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 264 BLM: Higher Order 78. What happens when a muscle atrophies? a. The muscle fibres split lengthwise. b. The muscle decreases in mass and becomes weaker. c. The muscle fibres increase in diameter. d. The muscle fibres undergo mitotic cell division. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 276 BLM: Higher Order 79. In the body’s lever systems, what are the fulcrums represented by? a. joints b. long bones c. tendons d. short bones ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 270 BLM: Remember 80. Which statement is characteristic of most of the body’s lever systems? a. They work at mechanical advantage. b. They work at a mechanical disadvantage. c. Muscles must exert lesser forces than the load. d. Extension of the elbow joint is the most common type of lever system. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 270 BLM: Remember 81. Why must the oxygen debt be “paid off” following rigorous muscular activity? a. Creatine phosphate must be regenerated. b. Lactic acid must be repleted. c. Glycogen stores must be depleted. d. Creatine phosphate must be depleted. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 270 BLM: RememberChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-16 82. What is the cause of enlargement of muscle due to weight lifting? a. hypotrophy b. hyperplasia c. increased production of actin and myosin d. dystrophy ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 275 BLM: Remember 83. Which statement concerning the corticospinal system is correct? a. It consists of fibres that originate within the primary motor cortex and terminate on motor neurons. b. It involves the motor regions of the cortex, the cerebellum, the basal nuclei, and the thalamus. c. It is primarily concerned with regulation of overall body posture. d. It consists of fibres that originate within the parietal lobe and terminate on posterior grey horn of the spinal cord. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 277 BLM: Higher Order 84. Which of the following is NOT a normal age-related change that occurs in muscles of older individuals? a. a reduction in the number of fibres b. a reduction in the size of the fibres c. a large reduction in the blood supply d. a reduction in adaptation to exercise ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 276 BLM: Higher Order 85. Which of the following controls the conscious initiation of muscle contraction? a. the spinal cord b. the brain stem c. the cerebral cortex d. the thalamus ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 277 BLM: Remember 86. When does spastic paralysis occur? a. when descending excitatory pathways are destroyed b. when excitatory inputs to motor neurons are unopposed because of disruption of an inhibitory system in the brain stem c. when muscle spindles are destroyed d. when the cerebellum is damaged ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 280 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-17 87. What happens during coactivation? a. All of the muscle fibres in a skeletal muscle are activated simultaneously. b. The gamma motor-neuron and alpha motor-neuron systems to a skeletal muscle are activated simultaneously. c. All of the cross bridges within a single skeletal muscle are activated simultaneously. d. The primary (annulospiral) and secondary (flower-spray) endings within a muscle spindle are activated simultaneously. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 280 BLM: Higher Order 88. Which of the following is correct about intrafusal muscle fibres? a. They are supplied by alpha motor neurons. b. They are found within muscle cell membrane. c. They contain sensory nerve endings that are activated by stretch. d. They contain contractile elements. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 280 BLM: Remember 89. What can activate the stretch receptors in the central portion of the muscle spindle? a. passive stretch of the skin overlying the muscle b. contraction of the central portions of the muscle fibre c. gamma motor neuron stimulation of the muscle spindle d. alpha motor neuron ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 280 BLM: Higher Order 90. Why are stretch reflexes important? a. for maintaining balance and posture b. for providing afferent information coordinating complex muscle activity c. for determining the level of tone d. for prevention of muscle injury ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 280 BLM: Higher Order 91. What is NOT characteristic of smooth muscle? a. It is under involuntary control. b. It does not have troponin. c. Its contraction is initiated neurogenically. d. It is found in the walls of hollow tube-like organs. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 281 BLM: Higher Order 92. What is characteristic of cardiac muscle tissue? a. well developed sarcoplasmic reticulum b. fast myosin ATPase activity c. neurogenically initiated contraction d. presence of gap junctions ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 282 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-18 93. The regulation of smooth muscle contraction is mediated by the phosphorylation of which filaments in response to calcium binding to proteins? a. myosin, calmodulin b. actin, calmodulin c. troponin, calmodulin d. myosin, troponin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 281 BLM: Remember 94. Which statement is correct regarding smooth muscle? a. It composes the walls of the heart. b. Its cells are multinucleated. c. Its cells are spindle shaped. d. Its cells lack actin and myosin. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 281 BLM: Higher Order 95. Which chemical is required for contraction of smooth muscle fibres? a. sodium b. calmodulin c. potassium d. myosin ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 281 BLM: Remember 96. Which of the following binds with calcium that enters the cell during smooth muscle excitation? a. calmodulin b. inactive myosin kinase c. troponin d. myosin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 283 BLM: Remember 97. Which muscle type is myogenic? a. skeletal muscle b. single-unit smooth muscle c. multiunit smooth muscle d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 282 BLM: Remember 98. What results from disruption of a motor system that supplies inhibitory presynaptic inputs to motor neurons? a. uncoordinated, clumsy movements b. spastic paralysis c. paraplegia d. suppression of reflex activity ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 280 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-19 99. Which of the following is correct for multiunit smooth muscle? a. It is chemically activated. b. It is under ANS control. c. It is found in the walls of the digestive system. d. Most smooth muscle is multiunit smooth muscle. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 284-285 BLM: Remember 100. Which statement about single-unit smooth muscle is correct? a. They contain no gap junctions and form functional syncytia. b. They are self-excitable. c. They are found in the walls of the ventricles. d. They are found in the iris of the eye. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 285 BLM: Remember 101. Which statement concerning a functional syncytium is correct? a. It is a pair of agonist muscles that function together to move a joint. b. It can be excited to contract as a unit because action potentials can be conducted from one cell to adjacent cells through gap junctions. c. It is a functional junction between a smooth muscle fibre and an autonomic nerve ending. d. It refers to the muscle at the base of hair follicles. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 285 BLM: Remember 102. Which statement is correct for Gap junctions? a. They allow action potentials to spread from cell to cell through these points of electric contact. b. They are the junctions between the muscle fibres within a motor unit. c. They are found only in smooth muscle. d. They are the junctions between the autonomic nervous system and smooth muscle cells. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 285 BLM: Higher Order 103. What initiates contraction of smooth muscle? a. stimulation by motor neurons b. inhibition of acetylcholinesterase c. membrane potential drifting to threshold as a result of automatic changes in ion movement across the membrane d. excitation of the gap junctions by transmitter substance ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 281 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-20 104. Which statement concerning pacemaker activity is correct? a. refers to spontaneous depolarizations of the membrane resulting from shifts in passive ionic fluxes accompanying automatic changes in channel permeability. b. refers to spontaneous depolarizations of the membrane due to cyclical changes in Na+-K+ pump activity. c. It is characteristic of single-unit smooth muscle but not found in any other muscle type. d. It is characteristic of multiunit muscle but not found in any other muscle type ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 285 BLM: Higher Order 105. Which statement concerning smooth muscle is INCORRECT? a. Smooth muscle can develop less tension per unit of cross-sectional area compared to skeletal muscle. b. Smooth muscle can maintain tension with comparatively less ATP consumption than skeletal muscle. c. Smooth muscle lacks troponin and tropomyosin. d. The range of lengths over which smooth muscle is able to develop near maximal tension is much greater than for skeletal muscle. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 281 BLM: Higher Order 106. What does a functional syncytium of cardiac muscles cells mean? a. They are striated. b. They exhibit muscle tone. c. They have a short refractory period. d. They work as a unit mechanically and electrically. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 285 BLM: Remember 107. Which statement concerning cardiac muscle is INCORRECT? a. It contains gap junctions. b. It is found only in the heart. c. It is self-excitable. d. It lacks tropomyosin. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 281 BLM: Remember 108. What happens when an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron? a. Calcium is released inside the muscle fibre. b. Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft. c. Acetylcholinesterase is released into the synaptic cleft. d. Physical contact between the motor neuron and the muscle fibre occurs. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 277 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-21 109. What is the result of a lack of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft? a. decreased acetylcholine production by the motor neuron b. relaxation of the muscle fibre c. excessive, continuous stimulation of the muscle fibre d. inability of the motor neuron to stimulate the muscle fibre ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 262 BLM: Higher Order 110. Which of these types of muscle cells are NOT capable of spontaneous depolarization? a. single-unit smooth muscle b. multiunit smooth muscle and skeletal muscle c. cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle d. single-unit smooth muscle and multiunit smooth muscle ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 284 BLM: Higher Order 111. Which of these muscles have motor units with the highest innervation ratio? a. leg muscles b. arm muscles c. muscles that move the fingers d. muscles of the trunk ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 264 BLM: Higher Order 112. Which of these muscle types is striated and contains gap junctions? a. single-unit smooth muscle b. multiunit smooth muscle c. cardiac muscle d. skeletal muscle ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 282 BLM: Remember 113. Which statement is FALSE? a. Steroids can increase muscle mass when used in large amounts. b. Anabolic steroids and their derivatives are controlled substances in Canada. c. Addiction to anabolic steroids is possible. d. In females, anabolic steroids may favour ovulation. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 275 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-22 114. Which statement regarding contraction in skeletal and smooth muscle is correct? a. In skeletal muscle, calcium ion mediates changes in thin filaments that lead to cross-bridge activity; in smooth muscle, calcium ion mediates changes in thick filaments that lead to cross-bridge activity. b. In skeletal muscle, troponin and tropomyosin are regulatory proteins; in smooth muscle, troponin is the only regulatory protein on thick filaments. c. In skeletal muscle, calcium ion binds to troponin; in smooth muscle, calcium ion binds to calmodulin. d. In skeletal muscle, calcium ion binds to calmodulin and in smooth muscle, calcium ion binds to troponin. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 283 BLM: Remember TRUE/FALSE 1. Muscle cells are the only cell types that contain intracellular contractile proteins. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. All skeletal muscles are attached to the skeleton. ANS: F PTS: 1 3. Skeletal muscle fibres are formed during embryonic development by the fusion of many smaller cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 4. A single muscle cell is known as a myofibril. ANS: F PTS: 1 5. The H zone of the sarcomere consists of myosin but does not contain actin. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. The M line is formed by a flattened disc-like cytoskeletal protein that connects the thin filaments of two adjoining sarcomeres. ANS: F PTS: 1 7. Thin and thick filaments overlap in the A band. ANS: T PTS: 1 8. The actin filaments in sarcomere contain cross bridges. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-23 9. Myosin is considered to be a regulatory protein because it plays an important role in the regulation of muscle contraction. ANS: F PTS: 1 10. Tropomyosin covers the cross-bridge binding sites on the thick filaments when a sarcomere is not contracting. ANS: F PTS: 1 11. During the power stroke, all of the cross bridges on myosin do not stroke in unison when pulling the actin filaments. ANS: T PTS: 1 12. Foot proteins link the actin molecules together within a thin filament. ANS: F PTS: 1 13. The functional unit of skeletal muscle is the myofibril. ANS: F PTS: 1 14. According to the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction, the thick filaments slide in closer together to shorten the sarcomere. ANS: F PTS: 1 15. The T tubule ranges transversely to the surface of the muscle cell membrane. ANS: T PTS: 1 16. According to the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction, the muscle fibres of one motor unit slide in closer together between the muscle fibres of adjacent motor units. ANS: F PTS: 1 17. Myosin has ATPase activity. ANS: T PTS: 1 18. Cross bridges have actin binding sites that are normally covered by troponin and tropomyosin except during excitation-contraction coupling. ANS: F PTS: 1 19. During muscle contraction, the A band becomes shorter. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-24 20. Muscle relaxation does not take place until all of the ATP is used up. ANS: F PTS: 1 21. In order for relaxation to occur, ACh must be removed from the muscle cell’s receptors. ANS: T PTS: 1 22. Acetylcholinesterase removes ACh from receptors. ANS: T PTS: 1 23. The contraction phase of a muscle cell lasts longer than the relaxation phase. ANS: F PTS: 1 24. Rigor mortis occurs when Ca2+ links actin and the myosin globular head together in a rigor complex. ANS: F PTS: 1 25. ATP expenditure is required for both contraction and relaxation of a muscle fibre. ANS: T PTS: 1 26. More tension is developed during twitch summation than during a single twitch because the duration of elevated cytosolic Ca2+ concentration increases during summation, thus increasing the availability of cross-bridge binding sites. ANS: T PTS: 1 27. Gradation of muscle contraction can be accomplished by stimulating variable portions of each motor unit. ANS: F PTS: 1 28. Summation events result from increasing amounts of cytoplasmic calcium levels. ANS: T PTS: 1 29. A motor unit is a single muscle plus all of the motor neurons that innervate it. ANS: F PTS: 1 30. Muscles that have a fine degree of control have small motor units. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-25 31. The larger the motor units within a muscle, the more precisely controlled the gradations of contraction. ANS: F PTS: 1 32. Increasing the number of recruited motor units in a muscle increases its force or strength of contraction. ANS: T PTS: 1 33. With twitch summation, the muscle fibre is stimulated so rapidly that it does not have an opportunity to return to resting potential between stimuli. ANS: F PTS: 1 34. Tetanus occurs when a muscle fibre is stimulated so rapidly that it is not allowed to relax between stimulations, resulting in a smooth, sustained contraction. ANS: T PTS: 1 35. The shorter a muscle fibre is before the onset of a contraction, the greater the force that can be developed upon the subsequent contraction because the thin filaments are already partially slid inward. ANS: F PTS: 1 36. The metabolic capability of a muscle fibre can affect the degree of tension it can develop. ANS: T PTS: 1 37. Denervated muscle fibres become progressively smaller and their content of actin and myosin decreases. ANS: T PTS: 1 38. Ligaments attach muscles to bones. ANS: F PTS: 1 39. A skeletal muscle produces motion by pulling the origin toward its insertion. ANS: F PTS: 1 40. Joints serve as fulcrums for muscle action. ANS: T PTS: 1 41. All muscle-lever systems work at a mechanical disadvantage. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-26 42. Muscle tension does not develop in isometric contractions. ANS: F PTS: 1 43. The skeletal muscle shortens during concentric, isotonic contraction. ANS: T PTS: 1 44. In an isotonic contraction, only 25 percent of the energy consumed is realized as external work and the remaining 75 percent is converted to heat. ANS: T PTS: 1 45. The work performed by a muscle is the force it develops divided by distance. ANS: F PTS: 1 46. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs within the mitochondria of muscle cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 47. Anaerobic exercise is endurance-type exercise. ANS: F PTS: 1 48. Central fatigue of a muscle directly results from the accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle. ANS: F PTS: 1 49. The oxygen debt is the oxygen a skeletal muscle produces or pays off when it carries out glycolysis. ANS: F PTS: 1 50. Slow-oxidative muscle fibres have high resistance to fatigue. ANS: T PTS: 1 51. Fast-oxidative muscle fibres have a high concentration of mitochondria. ANS: T PTS: 1 52. Fast-glycolytic muscle fibres do not require as much oxygen use as slow-oxidative fibres. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-27 53. Slow-oxidative muscle fibres would be found in high density in the leg muscles of Olympic sprinters. ANS: F PTS: 1 54. A skeletal muscle undergoes hypertrophy mainly by producing many more muscle fibres. ANS: F PTS: 1 55. Atrophy can develop in a muscle by either denervation or disuse. ANS: T PTS: 1 56. Skeletal muscles are capable of limited repair after injury. ANS: T PTS: 1 57. Single-unit smooth muscle has no innervation. ANS: F PTS: 1 58. The lever system at the elbow joint provides a mechanical advantage so that when the biceps muscle contracts to flex the elbow joint and lift an object in the hand, the force developed in the biceps can be considerably less than the actual load that is moved. ANS: F PTS: 1 59. The corticospinal system controls fine, discrete, voluntary body movements. ANS: T PTS: 1 60. The two types of fast twitch fibres are interconvertible depending on the type of conditioning they receive. ANS: T PTS: 1 61. Single-unit smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are both self-excitable. ANS: T PTS: 1 62. Both multiunit and single-unit smooth muscle are under motor control from the autonomic nervous system. ANS: T PTS: 1 63. All smooth muscle is myogenic. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-28 64. The strength and rate of contraction of the heart can be influenced by the autonomic nervous system. ANS: T PTS: 1 65. The heart initiates its own action potentials without any external influence. ANS: T PTS: 1 COMPLETION 1. The three types of muscle tissue are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. ANS: -skeletal, smooth, cardiac -smooth, cardiac, skeletal -cardiac, skeletal, smooth -skeletal, cardiac, smooth, -smooth, skeletal, cardiac -cardiac smooth, skeletal PTS: 1 2. Thick filaments are made up of the protein ____________________, whereas thin filaments are composed of the three proteins ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. ANS: -myosin, actin, tropomyosin, troponin -myosin, tropomyosin, troponin, actin -myosin, actin, troponin, tropomyosin -myosin, tropomyosin, actin, troponin -myosin, troponin tropomyosin, actin -myosin, troponin, actin, tropomyosin PTS: 1 3. ____________________ and ____________________ are referred to as contractile proteins, whereas ____________________ and ____________________ are referred to as regulatory proteins. ANS: -Myosin, actin, tropomyosin, troponin -Myosin, actin, troponin, tropomyosin -Actin, myosin, troponin, tropomyosin -Actin, myosin, tropomyosin, troponin PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-29 4. During the ____________________ stroke, cross bridges of myosin pull the actin filaments in the sarcomere. ANS: power PTS: 1 5. Skeletal muscles are stimulated to contract by release of the neurotransmitter ____________________. ANS: ACh PTS: 1 6. ____________________ refers to the series of events linking muscle excitation to muscle contraction. ANS: Excitation-contraction coupling PTS: 1 7. ____________________ proteins are calcium release channels in the muscle cell. ANS: Foot PTS: 1 8. ____________________ is the intracellular signal for contraction. ANS: Calcium ions PTS: 1 9. The ____________________ is a modified endoplasmic reticulum within muscle. ANS: sarcoplasmic reticulum PTS: 1 10. If a muscle cell is excited, ____________________ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: calcium PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-30 11. The functional unit of skeletal muscle is a(n) ____________________. ANS: sarcomere PTS: 1 12. The gradation of whole-muscle tension depends on the number of ____________________ that contract. ANS: muscle fibres motor units PTS: 1 13. The contractile response of a muscle fibre to a single action potential is called a(n) ____________________. ANS: twitch PTS: 1 14. A(n) ____________________ is a motor neuron and all the muscle fibres it recruits. ANS: motor unit PTS: 1 15. The only energy source that can be used directly by the contractile machinery of a muscle fibre is ____________________. ANS: ATP PTS: 1 16. In a state of ____________________, a muscle cannot maintain any kind of tension. ANS: fatigue PTS: 1 17. Twitch summation is similar to the ____________________ summation of EPSPs. ANS: temporal PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-31 18. The immediate source for supplying additional ATP at the onset of exercise is ____________________. ANS: creatine phosphate PTS: 1 19. For every muscle, there is an optimal length at which maximum ____________________ is achieved. ANS: force PTS: 1 20. The ____________________ component is the noncontractile tissue part of a muscle. ANS: series-elastic PTS: 1 21. For a(n) ____________________ isotonic contraction, the contraction resists the stretching of the muscle. ANS: eccentric PTS: 1 22. A(n) ____________________ develops following sustained anaerobic activity of muscles. ANS: oxygen debt PTS: 1 23. ____________________ provide the most ATP molecules for use by muscle fibres contracting over a long period of time. ANS: Oxidative phosphorylation PTS: 1 24. The immediate source of additional ATP in muscle fibres is ____________________. ANS: creatine phosphate PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-32 25. ____________________ occurs when acetylcholine is no longer available in adequate amounts to stimulate muscle fibres. ANS: Neuromuscular fatigue PTS: 1 26. ____________________ is the pigment that can store small amounts of oxygen in the skeletal muscle. ANS: Myoglobin PTS: 1 27. Slow-oxidative fibres are type ____________________ fibres in the muscle. ANS: I PTS: 1 28. The ____________________ is the descending motor pathway that mediates performance of fine, discrete voluntary movements of the hands. ANS: corticospinal (pyramidal) system PTS: 1 29. The _____________________ is the descending pathway that is primarily concerned with regulation of posture involving involuntary movements of the trunk and limbs. ANS: multineuronal (extrapyramidal) system PTS: 1 OBJ: BLM Higher Order 30. ____________________ refers to paralysis of the legs resulting from lower spinal cord injury. ANS: Paraplegia PTS: 1 31. The ____________________ is the extensor muscle found in the thigh that contracts during the patellar tendon reflex. ANS: quadriceps femoris PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-33 32. In smooth muscle, Ca2+ binds with the protein ____________________, which is structurally similar to troponin. ANS: calmodulin PTS: 1 33. The source of calcium in smooth muscle is the ____________________. ANS: extracellular fluid PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-34 MATCHING Indicate which of the muscle proteins in skeletal muscle is associated with the item in question by using the following code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. actin only b. myosin only c. actin and myosin d. troponin-tropomyosin complex e. actin, troponin, and tropomyosin f. actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin 1. found in the A band 2. found in the I band 3. contractile protein(s) 4. found in the H zone 5. regulatory protein(s) 6. found in thin filament 7. spherical 8. possess cross bridges 9. shape consists of two globular heads attached to a tail 10. found in thick filament 11. has (have) ATPase capacity 12. can bind with myosin during muscle contraction 13. lie(s) near the groove of the thin filament helix 14. found in the sarcomere 15. can bind with Ca2+ during contraction 16. form(s) a helical chain 1. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. ANS: E PTS: 1 3. ANS: C PTS: 1 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 6. ANS: E PTS: 1 7. ANS: A PTS: 1 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 9. ANS: B PTS: 1 10. ANS: B PTS: 1 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 13. ANS: D PTS: 1 14. ANS: F PTS: 1 15. ANS: D PTS: 1 16. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-35 Indicate which bands are being described in each statement by writing the appropriate letter(s) in the blank by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. A band b. I band c. H zone 17. composed of thin filaments only 18. composed of thick filaments only 19. composed of thick and thin filaments 20. shortens during muscle contraction 21. remains the same size during muscle contraction 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 19. ANS: A PTS: 1 20. ANS: C PTS: 1 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 Match the sarcomere component with the correct characteristic by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. Z line b. A band c. I band d. H zone 22. dark band 23. light band 24. contains only thick filaments 25. contains only thin filaments 26. contains partially overlapping thick and thin filaments 27. joins adjacent sarcomeres together 28. runs down the middle of the A band 29. runs down the middle of the I band 22. ANS: D PTS: 1 23. ANS: C PTS: 1 24. ANS: B PTS: 1 25. ANS: C PTS: 1 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 27. ANS: A PTS: 1 28. ANS: D PTS: 1 29. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-36 Indicate which of the characteristics in question applies to each of the muscle fibre types by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. slow-oxidative fibre b. fast-oxidative fibre c. fast-glycolytic fibre 30. has myosin ATPase activity 31. most resistant to fatigue 32. most readily fatigues 33. has numerous mitochondria 34. can be transformed into another fibre type by specific training 35. contains considerable myoglobin 36. found predominantly in muscles designed for endurance 37. has the largest diameter 38. has abundant glycolytic enzymes 39. the most powerful fibre 40. found predominantly in muscles adapted for short-duration, high-intensity activities 41. produces the most lactic acid 42. hypertrophies in response to weight training 43. uses up considerable glycogen 44. requires a constant supply of oxygen 30. ANS: C PTS: 1 31. ANS: A PTS: 1 32. ANS: A PTS: 1 33. ANS: B PTS: 1 34. ANS: A PTS: 1 35. ANS: A PTS: 1 36. ANS: C PTS: 1 37. ANS: C PTS: 1 38. ANS: C PTS: 1 39. ANS: C PTS: 1 40. ANS: C PTS: 1 41. ANS: C PTS: 1 42. ANS: C PTS: 1 43. ANS: C PTS: 1 44. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-37 Indicate which characteristic applies to which type of muscle by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. isometric contraction b. isotonic contraction 45. muscle tension exceeds the load 46. load exceeds muscle tension 47. length changes 48. length remains constant 49. tension remains constant 50. important in maintaining posture 51. used to accomplish movement 52. does not accomplish any work 45. ANS: B PTS: 1 46. ANS: A PTS: 1 47. ANS: B PTS: 1 48. ANS: A PTS: 1 49. ANS: B PTS: 1 50. ANS: A PTS: 1 51. ANS: B PTS: 1 52. ANS: A PTS: 1 Indicate the characteristics of the muscle-tension receptors by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. muscle spindle b. Golgi tendon organ c. both of these receptors 53. monitors change in muscle length 54. detects change in muscle tension 55. activated by muscle stretch 56. initiates a monosynaptic reflex 57. unless compensatory measures are taken, this receptor becomes slack 58. involved in negative feedback 59. provides information to motor regions of the brain 53. ANS: A PTS: 1 54. ANS: B PTS: 1 55. ANS: C PTS: 1 56. ANS: A PTS: 1 57. ANS: A PTS: 1 58. ANS: C PTS: 1 59. ANS: C PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-38 Indicate which type of muscle is associated with the property in question by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. skeletal muscle only b. single-unit smooth muscle only c. cardiac muscle only d. skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle e. skeletal muscle and single-unit smooth muscle f. single-unit smooth muscle and cardiac muscle g. skeletal, single-unit smooth, and cardiac muscles 60. contains actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin 61. contains gap junctions 62. innervated by motor neurons 63. self-excitable 64. maintains a constant resting membrane potential unless stimulated 65. innervated by the autonomic nervous system 66. attached to bones 67. considered to be involuntary 68. thick and thin filaments are highly organized into a banding pattern 69. found in the heart 70. can exist over a variety of lengths with little change in tension 71. striated 72. found in the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach 73. behaves as a functional syncytium 74. under voluntary control 75. has a clear-cut length-tension relationship 76. basis of contraction is cross-bridge interaction between actin and myosin 77. contraction is triggered as Ca2+ physically pulls troponin and tropomyosin from its blocking position over actin’s binding sites for the cross bridges 78. myosin must be phosphorylated before it can bind with actin 79. contains T tubules 80. displays pacemaker potentials and slow-wave potentials 60. ANS: D PTS: 1 61. ANS: F PTS: 1 62. ANS: A PTS: 1 63. ANS: F PTS: 1 64. ANS: A PTS: 1 65. ANS: F PTS: 1 66. ANS: A PTS: 1 67. ANS: F PTS: 1 68. ANS: D PTS: 1 69. ANS: C PTS: 1 70. ANS: D PTS: 1 71. ANS: B PTS: 1 72. ANS: D PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-39 73. ANS: F PTS: 1 74. ANS: A PTS: 1 75. ANS: D PTS: 1 76. ANS: B PTS: 1 77. ANS: D PTS: 1 78. ANS: B PTS: 1 79. ANS: D PTS: 1 80. ANS: A PTS: 1 ESSAY 1. Describe calcium’s role in the contraction of the sarcomere in skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. What are the means by which skeletal muscle fibres utilize energy for contraction? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. Describe how summations occur in muscle cells. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4. Compare and contrast isotonic versus isometric contractions. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. How does contraction of smooth muscle differ from that of skeletal muscle? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 6: Muscle Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 6-40 PROBLEM 1. Match the muscle type with the correct characteristics by using the answer code. ____ cardiac muscle ____ multiunit smooth muscle ____ single unit smooth muscle ____ skeletal muscle a. voluntary, neurogenic, and striated b. voluntary, neurogenic, and nonstriated c. involuntary, myogenic, and striated d. involuntary, neurogenic and nonstriated e. involuntary, myogenic, and nonstriated ANS: c, d, e, a PTS: 1 2. Match the muscle term with the correct characteristic by using the answer code. ____ creatine phosphate ____ myoglobin ____ glycogen ____ lactic acid ____ glucose a. a storage form of glucose used in muscle cells requiring rapid energy release b. a molecule that can quickly, but temporarily, make ATP c. an oxygen-storing protein making muscle tissue appear d. a fuel molecule for cell respiration or fermentation e. our fermentation product when our cells become anaerobic ANS: b, c, a, e, d PTS: 1Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-1 Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement is correct for the systemic circulation? a. It receives more blood than the pulmonary circulation does. b. It receives blood from the left ventricle. c. It is a high-pressure system compared to the pulmonary circulation. d. It receives blood from the left ventricle and is a high-pressure system compared to the pulmonary circulation. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 300|301 BLM: Higher Order 2. Which cardiac valve prevents regurgitation of blood from a right ventricle to atrium? a. tricuspid b. mitral c. bicuspid d. aortic valve ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 302 BLM: Remember 3. Which action is done by the semilunar valves? a. preventing backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria b. preventing backflow of blood from the atria to the ventricles c. preventing backflow of blood from the ventricles to the arterial trunks d. preventing backflow of blood from the arterial trunks to the ventricles ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 303 BLM: Higher Order 4. Why is the wall of the left ventricle thicker than the wall of the right ventricle? a. The left ventricle must pump much more blood than the right ventricle so it must have stronger walls. b. The right ventricle must pump much more blood than the left ventricle so it has a larger chamber to accommodate the blood and a correspondingly thinner wall. c. The left ventricle must pump the same amount of blood into the high-resistance, high-pressure systemic system as does the right ventricle into the low-resistance, low-pressure pulmonary system. d. The right ventricle must create higher tension within its walls. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 302|303 BLM: Higher Order 5. Which structures join adjacent cardiac muscle cells end-to-end in the ventricles? a. intercalated discs b. sarcomeres c. Purkinje fibres d. sinoatrial nodes ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 305 BLM: RememberChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-2 6. What is the primary function of the pericardial sac? a. to prevent excessive expansion of the heart as it fills with blood b. to secrete a fluid that reduces friction as the heart beats c. to serve as a reservoir for blood to be used during strenuous exercise d. to provide oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 305 BLM: Higher Order 7. Which of the following actions is done by the chordae tendineae? a. keeping the AV valves from closing during ventricular contraction b. holding the AV valves open during diastole c. holding the right and left ventricles together d. transmitting the electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 302 BLM: Higher Order 8. Which heart chamber has the greatest workload? a. right ventricle b. left ventricle c. left atrium d. right atrium ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 300|301 BLM: Remember 9. Which vessel carries blood with a comparatively high concentration of oxygen? a. chordae tendineae b. inferior vena cava c. pulmonary artery d. pulmonary vein ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 302 BLM: Remember 10. Which function is done by the aortic valve? a. preventing the backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular diastole b. preventing the backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole c. preventing the backflow of blood into the right ventricle during ventricular diastole d. closing when the first heart sound is heard ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 302 BLM: Higher Order 11. The right half of the heart pumps blood through the pulmonary circuit. Through which circuit does the left half pump blood? a. diastolic b. pulmonary c. pulmonary d. systemic ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 300|301 BLM: RememberChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-3 12. Which statement is INCORRECT regarding fetal circulation? a. The foramen ovale interconnects the atria. b. The ligamentum arteriosum shunts blood from the pulmonary artery directly into the aorta. c. The fetus has two lung bypasses. d. The umbilical vein carries oxygen-rich blood to the fetus. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 300 BLM: Higher Order 13. Blood returning from the lungs _________________ a. enters the right atrium. b. enters the left atrium. c. is poorly oxygenated. d. left ventricle ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 301 BLM: Remember 14. What is the proper sequence of blood flow through the circulatory system? 1) right atrium 6) pulmonary vein 2) left atrium 7) lungs 3) right ventricle 8) systemic tissues 4) left ventricle 9) aorta 5) pulmonary artery 10) venae cavae a. 1–2–3–4–5–6–7–8–9–10 b. 10–2–4–5–7–6–1–3–9–8 c. 10–1–3–5–7–6–2–4–9–8 d. 10–1–2–3–4–5–7–6–9–8 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 301 BLM: Remember 15. What is the low-resistance pathway that permits electrical activity pass from cell to cell in myocardial tissue? a. desmosome b. septum c. gap junction d. T-tubule ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 305 BLM: Higher Order 16. What component of the cardiac conduction system distributes electrical signals through the papillary muscles directly? a. AV nodes b. AV bundle c. bundle of His d. Purkinjie fibres ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 305 BLM: RememberChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-4 17. Which statement concerning action potentials in the heart is correct? a. The rising phase of the action potential in cardiac autorhythmic cells is due to a rapid Ca2+ influx. b. The rising phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is due to a rapid K+ influx. c. The plateau phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is due to a rapidCa2+ influx. d. The plateau phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is due to a rapid K+ influx. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 309 BLM: Higher Order 18. On a normal ECG, a wave for repolarization of the atria is not recorded. Why? a. The leads are not placed in a position to pick it up. b. No repolarization of the atria occurs normally. c. It occurs simultaneously with ventricular depolarization and is masked by the QRS complex. d. It does not travel through body fluids. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 311-313 BLM: Higher Order 19. Which criteria must be met for the heart to function efficiently? a. Excitation and consequently contraction of the cardiac muscle fibres of each heart chamber should be coordinated to ensure efficient pumping. b. The ventricles should be excited and contract before the onset of atrial contraction to ensure that ventricular filling is complete. c. The right side of the heart should contract first to ensure that oxygenated blood is delivered to the heart before the left side contracts. d. The fluid pressure in the pericardial cavity must be higher for the heart to function efficiently ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 307-308 BLM: Higher Order 20. Which statement concerning the AV nodal delay is correct? a. It ensures that the atria contract and empty their contents into the ventricles prior to ventricular systole. b. It ensures that the ventricles contract prior to atrial systole. c. It ensures that tetanic contraction of cardiac muscle is impossible. d. It is shortened by parasympathetic stimulation. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 306-307 BLM: Higher Order 21. Which of the following is INCORRECT about cardiac muscle cells? a. All of them contract in the heart or none of them contract. b. They are capable of graded strength of contraction. c. They are produced constantly after infancy. d. They have an abundance of mitochondria. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 300-301 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-5 22. Which of the following is the normal pacemaker of the heart? a. SA node b. AV node c. bundle of His d. Purkinje system ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 306-307 BLM: Remember 23. What is the function of the atrioventricular node? a. to excite the left and right atrium b. to control the heart rate c. to prevent the atria and ventricles from contracting simultaneously d. to repolarize the heart after systole ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 306-307 BLM: Higher Order 24. What is the normal direction of the impulse through the conduction system of the heart for each cardiac cycle? a. AV node–SA node–bundle of His–Purkinje fibres b. AV node–bundle of His–SA node–Purkinje fibres c. bundle of His–AV node–Purkinje fibres–SA node d. SA node–AV node–bundle of His–Purkinje fibres ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 306 BLM: Remember 25. What does the QRS complex represent? a. depolarization of the atria b. depolarization of the ventricles c. the AV nodal delay d. repolarization of the ventricles ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 311 BLM: Higher Order 26. What normally carries out the fastest rate of autorhythmicity? a. AV bundle b. AV node c. bundle of His d. SA node ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 308-309 BLM: Higher Order 27. When does electrical activity occur at the AV node? a. during the P wave b. between the P wave and QRS complex c. during the QRS complex d. between the QRS complex and T wave ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 306-307 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-6 28. Which of the following ECG waves represents ventricular repolarization? a. P wave b. QRS complex c. T wave d. Ventricular repolarization occurs simultaneously with atrial depolarization and consequently cannot be recorded. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 311-313 BLM: Higher Order 29. What is the normal sequence of the spread of cardiac excitation? a. SA node-atria- AV node- bundle of His -Purkinje fibres-ventricular myocardium b. Atria-SA node-AV node-Purkinje fibres-bundle of His- ventricular myocardium c. SA node-atria-AV node- Purkinje fibres- bundle of His- ventricular myocardium d. AV node- SA node- Atria- Purkinje fibres-bundle of His- ventricular myocardium ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 311-313 BLM: Remember 30. What does extrasystole of the heart mean? a. The heart beats too slowly. b. The heart fills with too much blood. c. The heart has a complete heart block. d. The heart produces a premature beat. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 313 BLM: Higher Order 31. Why is the sinoatrial node the heart’s normal pacemaker? a. It has the fastest natural rate of autorhythmicity. b. It has both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation. c. It lies in the right atrium. d. Activation of K+ channels occurs more rapidly in this region than elsewhere in the heart. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 311 BLM: Higher Order 32. Which statement is correct for cardiac fibrillation? a. backflow of blood throughout the heart b. coordinated function of nodal cells c. failure of the heart valves and blood vessels to function d. uncoordinated excitation and contraction of cardiac cells ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 311 BLM: Higher Order 33. Which statement concerning the AV node is correct? a. It is the normal pacemaker of the heart. b. It is the only electrical connection between the atria and the ventricles. c. It rapidly conducts the impulse from the atria to the ventricles so that they contract simultaneously. d. It is not innervated by the vagus. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 306-307 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-7 34. The electrocardiogram is most useful in determining which component of cardiac output? a. stroke volume b. heart rate c. ejection fraction d. end-diastolic volume ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 311 BLM: Higher Order 35. An ectopic focus is the place where __________________________ a. an abnormally excitable area of the heart initiates a premature action potential. b. all of the electrical impulses of the heart normally terminate. c. an ECG lead is attached on the outside of the chest. d. a heart valve is attached. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 307 BLM: Higher Order 36. What is the function of the ventricular conduction system of the heart? a. to spread the action potential throughout the large ventricular mass to ensure a single, coordinated contraction of the ventricles b. to spread the action potential in the absence of sympathetic stimulation c. to set the heart rate d. to spread the action potential throughout the atria and ventricles ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 313 BLM: Higher Order 37. The refractory period of cardiac muscle ________________________ a. lasts longer than the contraction period. b. is much longer than the refractory period in skeletal muscle. c. allows tetanic contraction of the heart to occur to ensure smooth, coordinated ejection of blood from the ventricles. d. lasts longer than the relaxation period. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 308 BLM: Higher Order 38. What is the membrane potential of cardiac muscle cells at rest? a. –110 mV b. –90 mV c. –60 mV d. –50 mV ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 309 BLM: Remember 39. Why can’t tetany of the heart occur in normal condition? a. There are no distinct motor units in the heart. b. There is inadequate oxygen supply via the coronary circulation to metabolically support a sustained contraction. c. The refractory period in cardiac muscle lasts almost as long as the duration of the resultant contraction. d. The heart contracts with maximal force every beat so it is impossible to increase the strength of cardiac contraction. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 309 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-8 40. On an electrocardiogram, what represents depolarization of the ventricles? a. P wave b. T wave c. S wave d. QRS complex ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 311 BLM: Remember 41. What happens during the isovolumetric phase of ventricular systole? a. The ventricles are relaxing isometrically. b. The atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed. c. Blood is ejected into the great vessels. d. Venous blood flows back to the heart. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 316 BLM: Higher Order 42. What is the term for the volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction? a. end-diastolic volume b. end-systolic volume c. stroke volume d. cardiac output ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 316 BLM: Remember 43. The cardiac output is equal to ________________________ a. the difference between the end-diastolic volume (EDV) and the end-systolic volume (ESV) ?6? HR b. the product of heart rate and EDV c. the difference between the stroke volume at rest and the stroke volume during exercise d. the stroke volume less the end-systolic volume ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 318 BLM: Higher Order 44. Which of the following factors will NOT increase cardiac output? a. increased venous return b. increased parasympathetic stimulation c. increased preload d. increased heart rate ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 318 BLM: Higher Order 45. What happens if the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked? a. The ventricles will beat faster. b. The ventricles will contract more slowly. c. The ventricular rate of contraction will not be affected. d. The stroke volume will increase. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 308 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-9 46. Which of the following occurs when an individual is sympathetically stimulated? a. The SA node depolarizes more rapidly. b. More ATP results in more sarcomere cross-bridge attachments. c. Ventricles contract harder than atria. d. The SA node repolarizes more slowly. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 305-306 BLM: Higher Order 47. Which of the following does NOT negatively influence the myocardium’s contractility, thus increasing ESV? a. acetylcholine b. preload c. afterload d. parasympathetic activity ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 316 BLM: Higher Order 48. What percentage of ventricular filling is normally accomplished before atrial contraction begins? a. 0% b. 20% c. 80% d. 50% ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 322 BLM: Remember 49. What is the result of vagal influences on the heart? a. enhanced calcium permeability at the SA node b. enhanced potassium permeability at the SA node c. more frequent depolarization of the SA node d. epinephrine stimulating the heart ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 318 BLM: Higher Order 50. A condition in which the heart is contracting in an uncontrolled, rapid and irregular manner _______________ a. is probably heart block. b. is probably fibrillation. c. can be treated with administration of an electrical current. d. is called bradycardia. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 308 BLM: Higher Order 51. Although the heart does not require the nervous system to initiate contraction events _______________ a. it is parasympathetically innervated via cardiac nerve fibres. b. it is parasympathetically innervated by vagus nerve fibres. c. it is innervated by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system only. d. it is innervated by cortical nerve fibres. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 308 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-10 52. What happens when the heart is sympathetically stimulated? a. ESV will increase. b. Norepinephrine is released from neurons. c. K2+ channels open in greater numbers. d. Cardiac output will decrease. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 316 BLM: Higher Order 53. What produces the second heart sound? a. opening of the AV valves b. closing of the AV valves c. opening of the semilunar valves d. closing of the semilunar valves ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 316 BLM: Higher Order 54. Which of the following is correct for the first heart sound? a. It occurs when the AV valves close. b. It occurs when the semilunar valves close. c. It signals the onset of ventricular systole. d. It occurs when the AV valves close and signals the onset of ventricular systole. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 316 BLM: Higher Order 55. A cardiac muscle cell contraction averages about how many msec in duration? a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d. 300 ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 322 BLM: Remember 56. When does the aortic semilunar valve open? a. when ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure b. at the start of systole c. at the maximum ventricular pressure d. immediately after atrial contraction ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 302 BLM: Higher Order 57. What happens during isovolumetric ventricular contraction? a. The ventricles rapidly fill. b. No blood enters or leaves the ventricles. c. The maximum volume of blood is ejected. d. The maximum rate of ejection occurs. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 316 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-11 58. What is the term for the period lasting from closure of the AV valve to opening of the aortic valve? a. isovolumetric ventricular contraction b. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation c. the rapid ejection phase d. the rapid filling phase ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 316 BLM: Higher Order 59. Why do the heart valves open and close? a. They are attached to the heart muscle. b. There is a pressure difference on the two sides of the valve. c. Na+ and K+ fluxes occur during ventricular depolarization. d. There is turbulent flow in the atria and ventricles. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 302 BLM: Higher Order 60. What is cardiac output? a. the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle during each contraction or beat b. the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute c. stroke volume ?6? SVR (systemic vascular resistance) d. the volume of blood pumped by each atria into ventricles ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 318 BLM: Higher Order 61. What causes the dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve? a. a disturbance set up during closure of the aortic valve b. a disturbance set up during closure of the left atrioventricular valve c. elastic recoil of the arterial walls during ventricular diastole d. turbulent flow through a stenotic valve ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 316 BLM: Remember 62. What happens in an insufficient AV valve? a. The AV valve fails to open completely. b. The AV valve fails to close completely. c. The AV valve produces a gurgling diastolic murmur. d. The AV valve fails to open completely and produces a gurgling diastolic murmur. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 317 BLM: Higher Order 63. What rhythm characterizes atrial flutter as impulses pass from the AV node to the ventricles? a. 1:1 b. 2:1 c. 3:4 d. 5:2 ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 308 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-12 64. What does a whistling murmur heard between the second and first heart sound indicate? a. a stenotic AV valve b. an insufficient AV valve c. a stenotic aortic or pulmonary semilunar valve d. an insufficient aortic or pulmonary semilunar valve ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 317 BLM: Higher Order 65. Which of the following occurs at rapid heart rates? a. The lengths of systole and diastole shorten equally. b. The length of systole stays almost constant, but the length of diastole shortens considerably. c. The length of systole increases at the expense of diastolic time shortening. d. Diastolic time lengthens, and systolic time shortens. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 314 BLM: Higher Order 66. Twelve complete ECG patterns are recorded from a subject over 10 seconds. If this pattern continues, what is the rate of the heartbeat in the subject? a. 60 beats per minute b. 72 beats per minute c. 90 beats per minute d. 108 beats per minute ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 311 BLM: Higher Order 67. If stroke volume is 80 mL and the heart rate is 70 beats per minute, what is the cardiac output? a. 150 mL/min. b. 560 mL/min. c. 5,600 mL/min. d. 8,700 mL/min. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 316 BLM: Higher Order 68. If the cardiac output is 4,800 mL/min and the heart rate is 60 beats per minute, how many millilitres does the stroke volume average? a. 60 b. 70 c. 80 d. 120 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 318 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-13 69. What does the Frank–Starling law of the heart state? a. The shorter the initial length of the cardiac muscle fibres prior to contraction, the more forceful will be the subsequent contraction because the fibres are already partially contracted. b. Increasing the venous return increases the end-diastolic volume, which leads to an increased stroke volume, so the heart normally pumps out all of the blood returned to it. c. As cardiac output is reduced, blood pools in the vasculature so that arterial blood pressure increases. d. The output of the left side of the heart must always exceed that of the right side of the heart because the right side pumps blood only to the lungs, whereas the left side must pump blood to the rest of the body. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 321 BLM: Higher Order 70. What happens during heart failure? a. The Frank–Starling curve is shifted to the left. b. The heart pumps out a smaller stroke volume than normal for a given end-diastolic volume. c. A compensatory decrease in sympathetic activity increases the relaxation of the heart to normal in the early stages of the disease. d. Blood flows faster in the arterioles. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 324 BLM: Higher Order 71. What does the term systole mean? a. closure b. conduction c. contraction d. opening ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 314 BLM: Remember 72. Which of the following is the cranial nerve of the parasympathetic nervous system that signals the heart? a. cardiac b. coronary c. trigeminal d. vagus ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 318 BLM: Remember 73. Parasympathetic innervation to the heart _______________________ a. is the spinal nerve b. decreases the rate at which spontaneous action potentials are initiated in the SA node c. decreases the strength of ventricular contraction d. increases the heart rate ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 318 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-14 74. What does sympathetic stimulation of the heart do? a. decreases the heart rate b. increases the contractile strength of the heart muscle c. shifts the Frank–Starling curve to the right d. decreases cardiac output ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 312 BLM: Higher Order 75. Which of the following is INCORRECT about rheumatic fever? a. It may cause a heart murmur. b. It is an autoimmune disease. c. It is triggered by a streptococcus bacterium. d. The heart conduction system is initially destroyed. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 317 BLM: Higher Order 76. Increased _____ permeability of nodal cells hyperpolarizes the SA node. a. chloride b. iodide c. potassium d. sodium ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 311 BLM: Higher Order 77. Which nerves to the heart alter cardiac output by increasing heart rate and increasing contractility? a. motor b. sensory c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 312 BLM: Higher Order 78. The parasympathetic nervous system has little effect on what type of activity? a. atrial b. AV node c. SA node d. ventricular muscle ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 308 BLM: Higher Order 79. If the EDV were held constant, what could accomplish increased stroke volume? a. increased sympathetic nerve activity to the heart b. increased parasympathetic nerve activity to the heart c. decreased contractility d. increased arterial blood pressure ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 314 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-15 80. Which of the following will NOT increase stroke volume? a. increased end-diastolic volume b. increased contractility of the heart c. increased end-systolic volume d. increased stretch of the cardiac muscle fibres during ventricular filling ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 316 BLM: Higher Order 81. Which molecule(s) induce vasodilation of coronary arteries? a. oxygen b. adenosine diphosphate c. nitric oxide d. carbon dioxide ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 327 BLM: Higher Order 82. Which statement is correct for the cardiac muscle? a. It extracts oxygen and nutrients from the blood within its chambers. b. It receives its blood supply primarily during ventricular systole when blood is forced into the vessels supplying the heart. c. It receives its blood supply as the blood returning to the heart from the lung passes through the cardiac circulation before being pumped to the systemic circulation. d. It receives most of its blood supply during ventricular diastole by means of the coronary circulation. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 314 BLM: Higher Order 83. When does blood flow occur through the coronary circulation? a. mainly during systole b. mainly during diastole c. almost equally during systole and diastole d. only during ventricular isovolumetric contraction ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 314 BLM: Higher Order 84. What is a metabolic predictor of heart disease that is independent of one’s cholesterol/lipid profile? a. HDL b. VLDL c. homocysteine d. methionine ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 328 BLM: Remember 85. The second heart sound occurs when the semilunar valves close. What does this mark? a. the start of the ejection period b. the start of systole c. the end of the ejection period d. the start of isovolumetric contraction ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 302 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-16 86. A patient has an EDV of 85 mL and an ESV of 35 mL with a heart rate of 50. What is this patient’s cardiac output? a. 2000 mL/min or 2.0 L/min b. 2500 mL/min or 2.5 L/min c. 4500 mL/min or 4.5 L/min d. 6500 mL/min or 6.5 L/min ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 314 BLM: Higher Order 87. If a mitral valve damaged by rheumatic fever fails to open completely, what is it called? a. mitral stenosis b. complete heart block c. myocardial ischemia d. mitral incompetence ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 317 BLM: Remember 88. Which of the following are compensatory mechanisms that come into play in order to maintain the cardiac output for the failing heart? a. decreased myocardial contractility b. increased vagal stimulation c. increased sympathetic stimulation d. peripheral vasodilation ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 324 BLM: Higher Order 89. Patients with diastolic heart failure would present with ____________________ a. failure of the ventricles to fill normally. b. decrease in cardiac contractility. c. heart pumping out more blood than it should with each contraction. d. heart muscle relaxing longer than it should with each contraction. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 324 BLM: Higher Order 90. The plateau of the cardiac action potential results from the opening of voltage-gated slow ______ channels in the plasma membrane of the cardiac cell. a. sodium b. potassium c. calcium d. chloride ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 306 BLM: Remember TRUE/FALSE 1. The pulmonary circulation carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the body tissues. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. The heart is posterior to the sternum. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-17 3. The right ventricle pumps out blood low in oxygen content, whereas the left ventricle pumps out blood high in oxygen content. ANS: T PTS: 1 4. The aortic valve prevents backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole. ANS: T PTS: 1 5. The tricuspid prevents regurgitation of blood from the right ventricle back into the right atrium. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. Arteries carry blood toward the ventricles. ANS: F PTS: 1 7. The heart valves are innervated by the autonomic nervous system. ANS: F PTS: 1 8. The function of the chordae tendineae and papillary muscles is to hold the AV valves wide open during diastole to ensure complete ventricular filling. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. The AV valve controls the amount of blood entering the atrium from the venous system. ANS: F PTS: 1 10. The semilunar valves are positioned between the atria and ventricles. ANS: F PTS: 1 11. The functional syncytia of the myocardium are offered by the intercalated discs. ANS: T PTS: 1 12. Cardiac tamponade refers to failure of the AV node to transmit the action potential from the atria to the ventricles. ANS: F PTS: 1 13. The SA node is the pacemaker of the heart. ANS: T PTS: 1 14. The only point of electrical contact between the atria and the ventricles is the AV valve. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-18 15. The action potential spreads through the atria by gap junctions, but there are no gap junctions present in the ventricles, so the impulse must be propagated throughout the ventricular myocardium by the bundle of His and Purkinje system. ANS: F PTS: 1 16. The bundle of His and Purkinje system facilitate the rapid spread of the action potential throughout the ventricles. ANS: T PTS: 1 17. The action potential impulse passes through the AV node between the P wave and QRS complex. ANS: T PTS: 1 18. The T wave represents the depolarization of the ventricles. ANS: F PTS: 1 19. When ECF K+ levels fall below normal, the heart becomes weak, flaccid, and dilated. ANS: T PTS: 1 20. The ECG is an actual recording of cardiac electrical activity. ANS: F PTS: 1 21. With 2:1 rhythm, the atrial rate is very rapid and the ventricular rate is normal or above normal, whereas with 2:1 block, the atrial rate is normal but the ventricular rate is below normal ANS: T PTS: 1 OBJ: BLM Higher Order 22. The plateau phase of the action potential in a contractile cardiac muscle cell occurs as a result of activation of slow Ca2+ channels. ANS: T PTS: 1 23. The semilunar valves close to prevent the backflow of blood into the ventricles. ANS: T PTS: 1 24. The ventricles always depolarize at the same rate as the SA node depolarizes. ANS: F PTS: 1 25. Atrial repolarization does not occur. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. Diastole refers to the period of cardiac relaxation. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-19 27. The atria and the ventricles contract at the same time to ensure efficient pumping action. ANS: F PTS: 1 28. Atrial systole lasts throughout ventricular systole. ANS: F PTS: 1 29. Ventricular filling occurs more rapidly early in diastole than it does later in diastole. ANS: T PTS: 1 30. Most ventricular filling is accomplished during atrial contraction. ANS: F PTS: 1 31. Ventricular ejection occurs once the afterload has been overcome. ANS: T PTS: 1 32. The refractory period in cardiac muscle is much shorter than the refractory period in skeletal muscle to ensure that the heart can quickly be restimulated to produce alternate periods of contraction and relaxation. ANS: F PTS: 1 33. Gap junctions are absent between atrial and ventricular cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 34. The long refractory period of cardiac muscle prevents tetanic contractions of the heart. ANS: T PTS: 1 35. Hypertension decreases the afterload and increases the preload. ANS: F PTS: 1 36. The heart undergoes tetanic contraction during sympathetic stimulation to squeeze out more blood. ANS: F PTS: 1 37. All of the blood within the ventricles is ejected during ventricular systole. ANS: F PTS: 1 38. Contraction of the spirally arranged cardiac muscle fibres produces a wringing effect for efficient pumping. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-20 39. The AV and semilunar valves are never open at the same time. ANS: T PTS: 1 40. The end-diastolic volume is the maximum amount of blood in the ventricle after ventricular filling is complete. ANS: T PTS: 1 41. A pacemaker potential depends on the increased inward current of calcium ions. ANS: T PTS: 1 42. The first heart sound signals the onset of ventricular systole. ANS: T PTS: 1 43. Complete heart block results from a damaged AV node. ANS: T PTS: 1 44. The second heart sound is due to closure of the AV valves. ANS: F PTS: 1 45. The stroke volume is the total volume of blood ejected by both ventricles per minute. ANS: F PTS: 1 46. Pacemaker activity by the Purkinje fibres is an example of an ectopic focus. ANS: T PTS: 1 47. Normally, the stroke volume of the right side of the heart is the same as the stroke volume of the left side of the heart. ANS: T PTS: 1 48. One important function of the intrinsic control of the heart (Frank–Starling law of the heart) is to maintain the left and right cardiac outputs in balance. ANS: T PTS: 1 49. The rate of appearance of the QRS and T waves is unaffected if the heart develops a complete heart block. ANS: F PTS: 1 50. The extent of ventricular filling is the preload of the heart, whereas the magnitude of the arterial blood pressure is the afterload of the heart. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-21 51. The EDV of the heart averages about 65 mL. ANS: F PTS: 1 52. Parasympathetic stimulation slows the rate of depolarization of the SA node and thus decreases the heart rate. ANS: T PTS: 1 53. Sympathetic stimulation increases the heart rate. ANS: T PTS: 1 54. The ESV of the heart averages about 140 mL. ANS: F PTS: 1 55. Parasympathetic stimulation of the AV node increases the speed of transmission of the impulse through the AV node. ANS: F PTS: 1 56. Stroke volume is determined by the extent of venous return and parasympathetic activity. ANS: F PTS: 1 57. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases calcium permeability. ANS: T PTS: 1 58. Stroke volume can vary by alterations in both intrinsic and extrinsic control mechanisms. ANS: T PTS: 1 59. The average resting heart rate is normally established by the rhythm of the AV node. ANS: F PTS: 1 60. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart during each beat is known as the cardiac output. ANS: F PTS: 1 61. Cardiac output is stroke volume times the heart rate. ANS: T PTS: 1 62. Increased EDV results in decreased stroke volume. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-22 63. The cardiac output is the same as the cardiac reserve of the heart. ANS: F PTS: 1 64. According to the Frank–Starling law of the heart, the shorter the initial length of the cardiac muscle fibres prior to contraction, the more forceful will be the subsequent contraction because the fibres are already partially contracted. ANS: F PTS: 1 65. According to the Frank–Starling law of the heart, the greater the stroke volume, the smaller the subsequent end-diastolic volume will be, because as more blood is squeezed out, the heart cannot fill as completely during the next diastole. ANS: F PTS: 1 66. Left-sided congestive heart failure can lead to pulmonary edema. ANS: T PTS: 1 67. Cardiac muscle receives its blood supply primarily during ventricular systole when blood is being pumped out into the aorta. ANS: F PTS: 1 68. The heart muscle receives its oxygen and nutrients directly from the blood within its chambers during ventricular diastole. ANS: F PTS: 1 69. Most blood flow through the coronary vessels occurs during ventricular systole when the heart is driving blood forward. ANS: F PTS: 1 70. Angina pectoris develops from the abundance of oxygen of blood in the coronary circulation. ANS: F PTS: 1 71. The heart utilizes glucose almost exclusively for energy production. ANS: F PTS: 1 72. HDLs have less protein than LDLs. ANS: F PTS: 1 73. Not all forms of LDL are equally harmful to the heart. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-23 COMPLETION 1. The condition in which the pericardial sac becomes distended with excess fluid to the point that it impinges upon cardiac filling is known as ____________________. ANS: cardiac tamponade PTS: 1 2. Ninety-nine percent of the cardiac fibres are specialized for ____________________ whereas the remainder are specialized for ____________________. ANS: contraction, conducting the action potential initiating, conducting the action potential PTS: 1 3. The ____________________ is the normal pacemaker of the heart. ANS: SA node PTS: 1 4. The ____________________ ensures that atrial excitation and contraction are complete before ventricular excitation and contraction commence. ANS: AV nodal delay PTS: 1 5. Compared to cardiac muscle tissue, skeletal muscle tissue has a(n) ____________________ duration for its refractory period. ANS: shorter PTS: 1 6. A swishy murmur heard between the second and first heart sounds is indicative of a(n) ____________________ (stenotic or insufficient) ____________________ (AV or semilunar) valve. ANS: insufficient, semilunar PTS: 1 7. The ____________________ is the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle/beat. ANS: stroke volume PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-24 8. The ____________________ is the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle/minute. ANS: cardiac output PTS: 1 9. The ____________________ is the volume of blood in the ventricle when ejection is complete. ANS: end-systolic volume PTS: 1 10. The ____________________ is the volume of blood in the ventricle when filling is complete. ANS: end-diastolic volume PTS: 1 11. ____________________ is the insufficient circulation of oxygenated blood to cardiac muscle in order to maintain its aerobic metabolism. ANS: Ischemia PTS: 1 12. The extent of myocardial infarction is dependent on ____________________ and ____________________. ANS: the size of the occluded vessel, the extent of collateral circulation the extent of collateral circulation, the size of the occluded vessel, PTS: 1 13. ____________________ carries cholesterol to cells, whereas ____________________ transports it away from cells. ANS: LDL, HDL PTS: 1 14. The ____________________ extracts cholesterol from the blood and converts it into ____________________, which are secreted into the bile. ANS: liver, bile salts PTS: 1 15. The ATHS gene has been identified for susceptibility to ____________________. ANS: atherosclerosis PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-25 16. Vitamins ____________________ and ____________________ have been shown to slow plaque deposition. ANS: A, C C, A PTS: 1 17. A(n) ____________________ is a clot attached to the wall of a vessel. ANS: thrombus PTS: 1 18. PAF is released from the ____________________ lining of vessels. ANS: endothelium PTS: 1 19. The ____________________ are the kinds of blood vessels that experience congestion for congestive heart failure. ANS: veins PTS: 1 20. An increase in heart rate ____________________ the cardiac output. ANS: increases PTS: 1 21. An increase in stroke volume ____________________ the cardiac output. ANS: increases PTS: 1 22. An increased ESV ____________________ the stroke volume. ANS: decreases PTS: 1 23. During exercise, the cardiac output ____________________. ANS: increases PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-26 24. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the permeability of the SA node to K ions. ANS: decreases PTS: 1 25. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the rate of depolarization of the SA node. ANS: increases PTS: 1 26. An increase in parasympathetic activity ____________________ the rate of depolarization of the SA node. ANS: decreases PTS: 1 27. An increase in parasympathetic activity ____________________ the heart rate. ANS: decreases PTS: 1 28. The ____________________ is the difference between cardiac output at rest and maximal CO. ANS: cardiac reserve PTS: 1 29. An increase in venous return ____________________ the end-diastolic volume. ANS: increases PTS: 1 30. An increase in the end-diastolic volume ____________________ the stroke volume. ANS: increases PTS: 1 31. An increase in the length of the cardiac muscle fibres prior to contraction ____________________ the stroke volume. ANS: increases PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-27 32. An increase in venous return ____________________ the stroke volume. ANS: increases PTS: 1 33. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the contractility of the ventricles. ANS: increases PTS: 1 34. An increase in parasympathetic activity ____________________ the stroke volume. ANS: has no effect on PTS: 1 35. An increase in the parasympathetic activity ____________________ the AV-nodal delay. ANS: increases PTS: 1 36. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the stroke volume. ANS: increases PTS: 1 37. An increase in parasympathetic activity ____________________ the atrial contractility. ANS: decreases PTS: 1 38. An increase in cardiac sympathetic activity ____________________ the velocity of impulse conduction through the heart. ANS: increases PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-28 MATCHING Match the term with the correct characteristic by using the answer code: a. gap junction b. HDL c. functional syncytium d. heart valve e. pericardial sac f. LDL g. adenosine 1. encircles the heart and secretes a lubricating fluid 2. carries cholesterol to cells 3. prevents backflow of blood 4. area of low electrical resistance that allows an action potential to spread from one cardiac cell to surrounding cells 5. muscle mass that becomes excited and contracts as a unit 6. induces coronary vasodilation 7. carries cholesterol away from cells 1. ANS: E PTS: 1 2. ANS: F PTS: 1 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 6. ANS: G PTS: 1 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 Match the EKG feature with the correct characteristic by using the answer code: a. P wave b. QRS complex c. T wave d. PR interval e. TP interval f. ST segment 8. ventricular depolarization 9. time during which ventricles are contracting and emptying 10. atrial depolarization 11. time during which atria are repolarizing 12. time during which impulse is travelling through the AV node 13. time during which ventricles are filling 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 9. ANS: F PTS: 1 10. ANS: A PTS: 1 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 12. ANS: D PTS: 1 13. ANS: E PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-29 Match the cardiovascular feature with the correct characteristic by using the answer code: a. angina pectoris b. embolus c. atherosclerosis d. thrombus 14. consists of abnormal smooth muscle cells, cholesterol deposits, scar tissue, and possible calcium deposits plaque 15. referred cardiac pain 16. freely floating clot 17. abnormal clot attached to a vessel wall 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 16. ANS: B PTS: 1 17. ANS: D PTS: 1 Indicate the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation on the heart by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. effect caused by sympathetic stimulation b. effect caused by parasympathetic stimulation c. not brought about by either sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation 18. increases the heart rate 19. decreases the contractility of the atrial muscle 20. increases the AV nodal delay 21. decreases the rate of depolarization to threshold of the SA node 22. increases the contractility of the atrial and ventricular muscle 23. decreases the contractility of the ventricular muscle 18. ANS: A PTS: 1 19. ANS: B PTS: 1 20. ANS: B PTS: 1 21. ANS: B PTS: 1 22. ANS: A PTS: 1 23. ANS: C PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-30 Indicate which factor involved in the initiation and spread of cardiac excitation is being identified by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. SA node b. AV node c. bundle of His and Purkinje system d. gap junctions 24. has the fastest rate of pacemaker activity 25. allows the impulse to spread from cell to cell 26. delays conduction of the impulse 27. the only point of electrical contact between the atria and ventricles 28. the normal pacemaker of the heart 29. rapidly conducts the impulse down the ventricular septum and throughout much of the ventricular musculature 24. ANS: A PTS: 1 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 27. ANS: B PTS: 1 28. ANS: A PTS: 1 29. ANS: C PTS: 1 Indicate which ion is involved in each event being described by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. K+ b. Na+ c. Ca2+ 30. Inactivation of _____ channels brings about the slow drift of membrane potential to threshold in the cardiac autorhythmic cells. 31. Explosive increase in membrane permeability to _____ brings about the rapidly rising phase of the action potential in contractile cardiac cells. 32. Slow inward diffusion of _____ is largely responsible for the plateau portion of the cardiac action potential. 33. The rapid falling phase of the cardiac action potential is brought about primarily by the outward diffusion of _____. 34. Changes in cytosolic _____ concentration bring about changes in the strength of cardiac contraction. 35. Parasympathetic stimulation increases the permeability of the SA node to _____, whereas sympathetic stimulation decreases the permeability to this same ion. 30. ANS: A PTS: 1 31. ANS: B PTS: 1 32. ANS: C PTS: 1 33. ANS: A PTS: 1 34. ANS: C PTS: 1 35. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-31 Indicate which valve abnormality is being described by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. valvular stenosis b. valvular insufficiency 36. produces a “gurgling” murmur 37. produces a “whistling” murmur 38. valve does not close completely 39. valve does not open completely 36. ANS: B PTS: 1 37. ANS: A PTS: 1 38. ANS: B PTS: 1 39. ANS: A PTS: 1 Indicate which pressure relationship exists during the time in question by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. aortic pressure > ventricular pressure > atrial pressure b. ventricular pressure > aortic pressure > atrial pressure c. aortic pressure > atrial pressure > ventricular pressure d. ventricular pressure > atrial pressure > aortic pressure e. atrial pressure > ventricular pressure > aortic pressure 40. during ventricular diastole 41. when the atrioventricular valve closes 42. during isovolumetric ventricular contraction 43. when the aortic valve opens 44. when ventricular ejection is occurring 45. when the aortic valve closes 46. during isovolumetric ventricular relaxation 47. when the atrioventricular valve opens 40. ANS: C PTS: 1 41. ANS: A PTS: 1 42. ANS: A PTS: 1 43. ANS: B PTS: 1 44. ANS: B PTS: 1 45. ANS: A PTS: 1 46. ANS: A PTS: 1 47. ANS: C PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-32 Complete the following statements by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. stroke volume b. end-diastolic volume c. cardiac output d. heart rate e. end-systolic volume f. sympathetic activity 48. The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle each minute is known as the _____. 49. The two main determinants of cardiac output are stroke volume and _____. 50. The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle each beat is known as the _____. 51. The stroke volume may be calculated by end-diastolic volume minus _____. 52. The maximum volume of blood that the ventricle contains after filling is complete is the _____. 53. The minimum volume of blood that the ventricle contains after emptying is complete is the _____. 54. Stroke volume can be increased by increasing end-diastolic volume and _____. 55. The number of times the heart contracts each minute is the_____. 56. Heart rate can be increased by increasing _____. 48. ANS: C PTS: 1 49. ANS: D PTS: 1 50. ANS: A PTS: 1 51. ANS: E PTS: 1 52. ANS: B PTS: 1 53. ANS: E PTS: 1 54. ANS: F PTS: 1 55. ANS: D PTS: 1 56. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-33 Match heart characteristic with correct anatomical structure by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. tricuspid valve b. myocardium c. aortic semilunar valve d. AV node e. sinoatrial node 57. contains Purkinjie 58. its cells have slow Ca2+ channels 59. the ventricles’ left is much thicker 60. its fast Ca2+ channels help initiate 61. during systole, it is forced closed by papillary muscle action 62. overcomes the afterload of the circuits 63. its closing partially creates the heart sound “lub” 64. contraction of this generates blood pressure 65. electrically connects the atria to the ventricles 57. ANS: B PTS: 1 58. ANS: B PTS: 1 59. ANS: B PTS: 1 60. ANS: E PTS: 1 61. ANS: A PTS: 1 62. ANS: B PTS: 1 63. ANS: A PTS: 1 64. ANS: B PTS: 1 65. ANS: D PTS: 1 ESSAY 1. Describe the cardiac cycle. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. Compare and contrast intrinsic and extrinsic controls of cardiac activity. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. Describe generation of pacemaker action potentials and the cardiac conduction pathway. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-34 4. Describe the primary factors that influence cardiac output. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. How does hypertension influence heart activity? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 PROBLEM 1. Indicate the proper order of the events during the cardiac cycle by placing numbers in the blanks preceding the events in sequence. The first and last events are already indicated as a guide. _____ AV valve open; aortic valve closed; ventricular filling occurring _____ blood ejected from the ventricle _____ isovolumetric ventricular relaxation _____ atrial contraction _____ AV valve opens; ventricular filling occurs again; one cardiac cycle is complete _____ aortic valve opens _____ SA node discharges _____ ventricular filling complete _____ ventricular relaxation begins _____ aortic valve closes _____ isovolumetric ventricular contraction _____ ventricular contraction begins; AV valve closes ANS: 1, 8, 11, 3, 5, 12, 7, 2, 4, 9, 10, 6, 5 PTS: 1Chapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-35 2. Compare the magnitude of the items in question by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. A is greater than B b. B is greater than A c. A and B are equal A) resistance and pressure in the pulmonary circulation B) resistance and pressure in the systemic circulation A). volume of blood pumped out by the left side of the heart B) volume of blood pumped out by the right side of the heart A) spontaneous rate of depolarization in the SA node B) spontaneous rate of depolarization in the ventricles A) velocity of impulse through the bundle of His and Purkinje system B) velocity of impulse conduction through the AV node A) rate of depolarization of the SA node on parasympathetic stimulation B) rate of depolarization of the SA node on sympathetic stimulation A) duration of systole at resting heart rate B) duration of systole at rapid heart rate during exercise A) duration of diastole at resting heart rate B) duration of diastole at rapid heart rate during exercise A) rate of ventricular filling in early diastole B) rate of ventricular filling in late diastole A) stroke volume when end-diastolic volume equals 130 mL B) stroke volume when end-diastolic volume equals 160 mL A) normal stroke volume B) stroke volume on sympathetic stimulation A) volume of blood in the ventricles at the onset of isovolumetric ventricular contraction B) volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of isovolumetric ventricular contraction A) volume of blood in the left ventricle when the aortic valve opens B) volume of blood in the left ventricle when the aortic valve closes A) volume of blood in the left ventricle when the left AV valve opens B) volume of blood in the left ventricle when the left AV valve closes A) duration of the refractory period in cardiac muscle B) duration of contraction in cardiac muscle A) duration of the refractory period in cardiac muscle B) duration of the refractory period in skeletal muscle A) coronary blood flow during systoleChapter 7: Cardiac Physiology Copyright © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. 7-36 B) coronary blood flow during diastole ANS: b, c, a, a, b, c, a, a, b, b, c, a, b, c, a, b PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which organ receives the most blood flow at rest? a. heart b. kidney c. brain d. muscle ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 337 BLM: Remember 2. Which statement is correct for vascular resistance? a. It is a measure of the hindrance to blood flow through a vessel caused by friction between the moving fluid and stationary vascular walls. b. It is doubled when the radius of the vessel is wider than normal. c. It is inversely proportionate to the blood viscosity. d. It is increased when blood vessel length is shorter. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 338 BLM: Higher Order 3. When does vascular resistance increase? a. when radius decreases b. when length decreases c. when viscosity decreases d. when haematocrit decreases ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 339 BLM: Higher Order 4. Which statement concerning vasoconstriction is correct? a. Vasoconstriction refers to an increase in the radius of a vessel. b. Vasoconstriction of an arteriole decreases blood flow through that vessel. c. Vasoconstriction of an arteriole increases blood flow through that vessel. d. Vasoconstriction of an arteriole can be caused by parasympathetic activation. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 346 BLM: Higher Order 5. Which of the following is the correct relationship between pressure, flow, and resistance? a. flow = pressure gradient radius4 b. flow ?6? pressure gradient = resistance c. flow = pressure gradient resistance d. pressure gradient = flow resistance ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 338 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 6. What is vascular resistance related to ? a. venous system. b. diameter of a blood vessel. c. location of the blood vessel. d. component of white blood cell count ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 338 BLM: Higher Order 7. Which of the following is correct for vasoconstriction? a. It causes a decrease in resistance. b. It occurs when there is a decrease in the radius of a vessel. c. It is due to a decrease in sympathetic activity. d. It causes no change in resistance. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 346 BLM: Higher Order 8. What is the major determinant influencing resistance to blood flow? a. viscosity of the blood b. radius of the vessel through which the blood is flowing c. pressure gradient in the vessel d. haematocrit of the blood ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 346 BLM: Higher Order 9. In an arteriole, if the blood vessel radius is 2 units and then vasoconstricted to 1 unit, what is the result? a. The resistance decreases 16 times. b. The resistance increases 16 times. c. Flow will be increased. d. There is no effect on blood flow. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 338 BLM: Higher Order 10. How do the larger arteries assist with systemic blood flow to tissues? a. contracting their tunica intima b. beating their semilunar-type valves c. associating with large veins d. elastic recoil of their walls ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 343 BLM: Higher Order 11. Which statement is INCORRECT of blood pressure? a. It is maximal during ventricular systole. b. It decreases the farther away from the heart. c. It increases with increasing resistance. d. It can be increased by direct parasympathetic activity. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 343 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 12. Which of the following factors would produce the greatest increase in blood flow? a. doubling the radius of the vessel b. doubling the difference in the pressure gradient within the vessel c. doubling the viscosity of the blood d. doubling the length of the vessel ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 342 BLM: Higher Order 13. Which of the following types of blood vessel consists of only one cell layer? a. arteriole b. artery c. capillary d. vein ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 342 BLM: Higher Order 14. What does microcirculation comprise? a. arteries, arterioles, and capillaries b. arterioles, capillaries, and venules c. arteries, capillaries, and venules d. arteries, arterioles, and venules ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 340 BLM: Remember 15. Which of the following is correct for the arteries? a. They serve as rapid-transit passageways from the tissues to the heart because of their large radii. b. They act as a blood reservoir because they have the capacity to store large volumes of blood with little change in their internal pressure. c. They act as a pressure reservoir to provide the driving force for blood when the heart is relaxing. d. They are the site of exchange between the blood and surrounding tissues. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 336 BLM: Higher Order 16. Which of the following is correct for the major function of the arterioles? a. They regulate flow of blood through capillary beds. b. They distribute the cardiac output to large blood vessels c. They serve as a pressure reservoir. d. They regulate heart rate. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 336 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 17. Because the arteries have large radii, they serve as excellent rapid-transit passageways for blood. What is their second function, which is related to their elasticity, for maintaining blood flow during diastole? a. cardiac reserve b. venous reserve c. arterial capacitance d. pressure reservoir ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 342 BLM: Higher Order 18. What is the pressure measured in the arteries just before the next ventricular ejection of blood? a. systolic pressure b. diastolic pressure c. pulse pressure d. mean pressure ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 343 BLM: Remember 19. Which statement is correct for veins? a. Their walls are highly muscular. b. Their walls consist of thick layers of elastic tissues. c. They serve as a blood reservoir. d. They transport blood away from the heart. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 364 BLM: Remember 20. Which of the following statements concerning the pulse pressure is correct? a. difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures b. average pressure throughout the cardiac cycle c. maximum pressure exerted in the arteries d. minimum pressure exerted in the arteries ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 344 BLM: Remember 21. Which statement is correct for mean arterial pressure? a. diastolic pressure + (systolic/3). b. systolic pressure + (pulse pressure/3). c. diastolic pressure + (pulse pressure/3). d. pulse pressure - (diastolic pressure/3). ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 345 BLM: Remember 22. If the arterial blood pressure is recorded at 132/84, what is the mean arterial pressure? a. 48 mm Hg b. 93 mm Hg c. 100 mm Hg d. 108 mm Hg ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 345 BLM: RememberChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 23. If the pulse pressure is 44 mm Hg and the diastolic pressure is 68 mm Hg, what is the systolic pressure? a. 22 mm Hg b. 24 mm Hg c. 66 mm Hg d. 112 mm Hg ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 345 BLM: Higher Order 24. What force continues to drive blood through the vasculature during ventricular diastole? a. Ventricular contraction forces blood into the vasculature during ventricular diastole. b. The elastic recoil of the stretched arterial walls provides the force to continue blood flow in the remaining vascular system during ventricular diastole. c. Sympathetic stimulation produces arterial vasoconstriction, which drives the blood forward into the arterioles during ventricular diastole. d. Skeletal muscle contraction squeezes the blood forward from the arteries during ventricular diastole. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 343 BLM: Higher Order 25. Which of the following factors is most important in matching the blood flow through a specific tissue with the metabolic needs of that tissue? a. Sympathetically induced vasoconstriction of the arteries supplying a tissue forces more blood to flow into the tissue. b. Parasympathetically induced vasodilation of the capillaries within a tissue allows more blood to flow into the tissue. c. Local changes within a tissue resulting from increased metabolic activity can produce local arteriolar vasodilation to allow more blood to flow into the tissue. d. Widespread venous vasoconstriction allows blood to dam up at the tissue level. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 347 BLM: Higher Order 26. Which of the following properties does NOT pertain to the arterioles? a. Their radii cannot be changed. b. Their walls contain a thick layer of smooth muscle. c. They are responsible for the distribution of blood flow to the various organs. d. They are the major vessels that contribute to total peripheral resistance. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 345 BLM: Remember 27. As metabolic activity of an organ or tissue increases, blood flow to that organ increases. What is the term for this phenomenon? a. pressure autoregulation b. tissue anoxia c. active hyperemia d. Hypertension ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 353 BLM: RememberChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 28. Which of the following local chemical changes does NOT occur during a period of increased cell activity? a. increased CO2 b. increased acid c. increased O2 d. increased K+ ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 349 BLM: Higher Order 29. Which of the following local chemical factors will NOT cause vasodilation of arterioles? a. decreased K+ b. increased CO2 c. increased acid d. decreased O2 ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 349 BLM: Higher Order 30. Why does increased respiration within a tissue lead to vasodilation of arterioles? a. Carbon dioxide levels increase. b. Oxygen levels increase. c. Parasympathetic activity increases. d. of smooth muscle contraction of the walls of arterioles ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 346 BLM: Higher Order 31. What is endothelial-derived relaxing factor (EDRF) a. a local chemical mediator released from the endothelial cells that induces contraction of arteriolar smooth muscle in the vicinity b. adenosine c. nitric oxide ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 349 BLM: Remember 32. Which statement about nitric oxide is INCORRECT? a. It increases the total peripheral resistance by its action on arteriolar smooth muscle. b. It serves as endothelial-derived relaxing factor. c. It is the direct mediator of penile erection. d. It is released as “chemical warfare” by macrophages of the immune system. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 349 BLM: Higher Order 33. Which of the following is correct for extrinsic control of arteriolar radius? a. It is accomplished primarily by the parasympathetic nervous system. b. It is important in the regulation of arterial blood pressure. c. It can never be overridden by local adjustments. d. It is important for the oxygen delivery to the tissues. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 347 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 34. During strenuous exercise, where does blood flow increase? a. the heart because of local control factors b. the brain because of reflex control factors c. the skeletal muscles because of local control factors ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 373 BLM: Higher Order 35. What is released by most sympathetic fibres at the arterioles? a. acetylcholine b. dopamine c. GABA d. norepinephrine ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 347| 352 BLM: Remember 36. What is the major site of sympathetic blood flow control (resistance changes)? a. arterioles b. capillaries c. metarterioles d. arteries ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 357 BLM: Remember 37. Which of the following local factors does NOT produce the relaxation of arteriolar smooth muscle? a. increased acid b. increased carbon dioxide c. increased osmolarity d. increased oxygen ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 349 BLM: Higher Order 38. What does the myogenic response refer to? a. vascular smooth muscle’s tendency to constrict when blood flow increases b. vascular smooth muscle’s tendency to relax when blood flow increases c. vascular smooth muscle’s tendency to constrict when stretched d. vascular smooth muscle’s tendency to dilate when stretched ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 347 BLM: Higher Order 39. What are the major resistance vessels of the body? a. arteries b. arterioles c. capillaries d. veins ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 345 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 40. Which of the following does NOT cause arteriolar vasodilation? a. decreased sympathetic stimulation b. local decrease in O2 c. histamine release d. myogenic response to passive stretch of the vessel ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 346 BLM: Remember 41. Which of the following tissues do NOT have an increased blood flow during exercise? a. skeletal muscles b. Heart c. Skin d. Brain ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 373 BLM: Higher Order 42. Which of the following factors would decrease total peripheral resistance? a. adrenal medulla hormones b. angiotensin II c. increased haematocrit d. Anaphylaxis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 376 BLM: Higher Order 43. What does binding of epinephrine to alpha receptors cause? a. smooth muscle relaxation in arteries b. smooth muscle relaxation in skeletal muscle arteries c. smooth muscle constriction in skeletal muscle arteries d. smooth muscle relaxation in coronary arteries ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 352 BLM: Higher Order 44. What is Active hyperaemia? a. It refers to the arteriolar dilation that occurs within a tissue in response to local chemical changes that accompany increased metabolic activity of the tissue. b. It refers to local arteriolar mechanisms that are aimed at keeping tissue blood flow fairly constant in spite of rather wide deviations in mean arterial driving pressure. c. It refers to the increase in blood flow to a tissue that occurs after removal of an occlusion of its blood supply. d. It is important in maintaining an adequate pressure head to drive blood forward into a tissue. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 348 BLM: Higher Order 45. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of capillaries? a. thin walls b. short distance between adjacent vessels c. distensible walls d. slow blood velocity ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 354 BLM: RememberChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 46. Where is the largest total cross-sectional area found? a. Aorta b. Arterioles c. Capillaries d. Veins ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 355 BLM: Remember 47. Through which vessel is the velocity of blood flow the slowest? a. Aorta b. Arterioles c. Capillaries d. Veins ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 355 BLM: Higher Order 48. Which statement is true about velocity of blood flow in capillaries? a. It is greater than that for arterioles. b. It is greater than that for veins. c. It is slow enough to favour adequate exchange. d. It is less than that for arterioles. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 355 BLM: Remember 49. The movements of fluid across the capillary wall depend on all of the following EXCEPT a. capillary blood pressure b. interstitial-fluid hydrostatic pressure c. plasma protein concentration d. concentration of glucose in the capillary ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 355 BLM: Higher Order 50. Which of the following is correct for the process of ultrafiltration? a. It is movement of protein-free plasma from the interstitial fluid into the capillaries. b. It occurs when the outward forces (capillary blood pressure plus interstitial-fluid-colloid osmotic pressure) exceed the inward forces (blood-colloid osmotic pressure plus interstitial-fluid hydrostatic pressure). c. It occurs when the outward forces (capillary blood pressure plus blood-colloid osmotic pressure exceed the inward forces (interstitial-fluid hydrostatic pressure plus interstitial-fluid-colloid osmotic pressure). d. It is movement of protein-free plasma from the interstitial fluid into the arterioles. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 359 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 51. When will reabsorption occur? a. when inward-driving pressures exceed the outward-driving pressures across the capillary wall b. when outward-driving pressures exceed the inward-driving pressures across the capillary wall c. due to decreased osmolarity of plasma in the venule end of the capillary d. when outward-driving pressures and the inward-driving pressures across the capillary wall are equal ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 359 BLM: Higher Order 52. Which two pressures act to move fluid into the capillary? a. interstitial-fluid hydrostatic pressure and capillary blood pressure b. blood-colloid osmotic pressure and interstitial-fluid-colloid osmotic pressure c. interstitial-fluid hydrostatic pressure and blood-colloid osmotic pressure d. interstitial-fluid hydrostatic pressure and interstitial-fluid-colloid osmotic pressure ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 359 BLM: Higher Order 53. Which principle force causes movement of fluid from the tissues into the capillaries? a. hydrostatic pressure of the venous b. hydrostatic pressure of the arterial blood c. osmotic pressure created by the plasma proteins d. pressure of the lymph ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 359 BLM: Higher Order 54. What is the primary method by which materials such as O2, CO2, and nutrients are exchanged between the blood and surrounding tissues? a. passive diffusion of substances across the capillary wall down their concentration gradients b. active transport of materials across the capillary wall c. osmotic pressure drawing water and solutes out of the capillary and bringing these dissolved nutrients into contact with the tissue cells d. processes of ultrafiltration and reabsorption ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 358 BLM: Higher Order 55. Given the following parameters, what would the reabsorption pressure be? – blood capillary pressure at arteriolar end of tissue capillaries: 35 mm Hg – blood capillary pressure at venule end of tissue capillaries: 15 mm Hg – blood-colloid osmotic pressure: 22 mm Hg – interstitial-fluid hydrostatic pressure: 1 mm Hg – interstitial-fluid-colloid osmotic pressure: 0 mm Hg a. 6 mm Hg b. 7 mm Hg c. 8 mm Hg d. 10 mm Hg ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 359 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 56. Given the following forces acting at a given point across the capillary wall, what type of fluid movement will be taking place at that point? – capillary blood pressure = 32 mm Hg – blood-colloid osmotic pressure = 23 mm Hg – interstitial-fluid hydrostatic pressure = 1 mm Hg – interstitial-fluid-colloid osmotic pressure = 0 mm Hg a. Ultrafiltration will occur with a net outward pressure of 8 mm Hg. b. Ultrafiltration will occur with a net outward pressure of 10 mm Hg. c. Ultrafiltration will occur with a net outward pressure of 56 mm Hg. d. Reabsorption will occur with a net inward pressure of 24 mm Hg. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 359 BLM: Higher Order 57. Which change will increase fluid reabsorption by the capillaries? a. decreased interstitial-fluid hydrostatic pressure b. increased capillary blood pressure c. increased blood-colloid osmotic pressure d. increased interstitial-fluid-colloid osmotic pressure ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 359 BLM: Higher Order 58. Which of the following alterations could lead to edema? a. a fall in capillary blood pressure b. a fall in the concentration of plasma proteins c. dilated lymph vessels d. increased plasma osmolarity ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 362 BLM: Higher Order 59. What is the primary reason that edema may occur with serious burns? a. increased venous pressure due to interference with circulation through scarring in the burned area b. lowering of blood-colloid osmotic pressure due to the loss of protein-rich fluid from the surface of the burn c. blockage of lymphatic drainage from the burned area d. loss of protein in the urine ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 362 BLM: Higher Order 60. What can edema result from? a. blockage of lymph vessels, increased capillary blood pressure, and decreased blood-colloid osmotic pressure b. blockage of lymph vessels and decreased capillary blood pressure c. increased capillary blood pressure and increased blood-colloid osmotic pressure d. dilation of lymph vessels and decreased blood-colloid osmotic pressure ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 362 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 61. Which of the following factors does NOT promote the function of the capillaries? a. a blood pressure forcing fluid out of these vessels b. a small total surface area c. an osmotic pressure drawing fluid into these vessels d. pores in the endothelial wall ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 354 BLM: Higher Order 62. Which of the following conditions might be NOT associated with edema? a. extensive burns b. congestive heart failure c. decreased venous pressure d. lymphatic obstruction ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 362 BLM: Higher Order 63. What is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? a. defence against disease b. return of fluid to the circulatory system c. transport of fat molecules d. regulation of sodium balance ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 361 BLM: Higher Order 64. Which statement is INCORRECT for the veins? a. They act as low-resistance passageways for blood flow from the tissues to the heart. b. They always contain deoxygenated blood. c. They contain one-way valves that prevent the backflow of blood. d. Their walls are thinner than those of arteries. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 363 BLM: Higher Order 65. Which vessels can act as a blood reservoir by adjusting their total capacity to accommodate variations in blood volume? a. Arteries b. Arterioles c. Capillaries d. Veins ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 363 BLM: Higher Order 66. Which vessels contain the highest percentage of total blood volume? a. pulmonary veins b. pulmonary arteries c. systemic veins d. systemic arteries ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 363 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 67. Which statement concerning the venous valves is correct? a. They actively contract to force blood uphill against gravity. b. They passively close to prevent the backflow of blood in the veins. c. They are positioned at the entrances to the ventricles. d. They are two-way valves. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 367 BLM: Remember 68. Heart and venous valves serve a similar function. What type of flow do they prevent? a. Forward b. Backward c. turbulent d. Pulsatile ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 365 BLM: Higher Order 69. Which factor is NOT involved in promoting venous return to the heart? a. Parasympathetic stimulation decreases venous pressure. b. The skeletal muscle pump squeezes blood through the veins. c. The respiratory pump provides a pressure gradient between the lower and chest veins. d. There is vasodilation of veins. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 364 BLM: Higher Order 70. Which are the two determinants of mean arterial pressure? a. stroke volume, compliance of vessel walls. b. heart rate, stroke volume. c. heart rate, end-diastolic volume. d. cardiac output, total peripheral resistance. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 350 BLM: Higher Order 71. Which factor does not positively affect blood pressure? a. skeletal muscle activity b. aldosterone release c. renin release d. calcium reabsorption ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 374 BLM: Higher Order 72. Which of the following is correct for mean arterial blood pressure? a. It equals stroke volume times heart rate. b. It is 91 mm Hg when the blood pressure is recorded as 117/78. c. It is 97.5 mm Hg when the blood pressure is recorded as 117/78. d. It is 100 mm Hg when the blood pressure is recorded as 117/78. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 345 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 73. What happens when blood pressure becomes elevated above normal? a. The carotid-sinus and aortic-arch baroreceptors decrease their rate of firing. b. The cardiovascular control centre decreases sympathetic and increases parasympathetic activity to the heart and blood vessels. c. Arteriolar vasoconstriction occurs as a compensatory response. d. Salt retention occurs in the kidneys. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 372 BLM: Higher Order 74. Which of the following is NOT for short-term adjustments in blood pressure? a. baroreceptor reflexes b. changes in cardiac output c. renal activity d. Hormones ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 370 BLM: Higher Order 75. Which of the following does NOT occur to compensate for a fall in blood pressure below normal? a. Cardiac output is increased. b. Total peripheral resistance is decreased. c. Heart rate is increased. d. Venous vasoconstriction occurs. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 375 BLM: Higher Order 76. Which statement regarding effects of sympathetic stimulation on blood pressure is INCORRECT? a. Vasoconstriction of arterioles increases total peripheral resistance. b. Decreased end diastolic volume increases cardiac output. c. Increased stroke volume increases cardiac output. d. Vasoconstriction of veins increases venous return. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 365 BLM: Higher Order 77. Where are the receptors that detect changes in the blood pressure? a. carotid sinus b. spinal cord c. hypothalamus d. medulla ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 370 BLM: Higher Order 78. Regulation of arterial pressure is mediated by reflex mechanisms. One important pressure receptor, a _____, is located in the _____. a. chemoreceptor, carotid sinus b. exteroceptor, carotid sinus c. baroreceptor, carotid sinus d. chemoreceptor, skeletal muscles ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 370 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 79. How does the vasomotor centre respond to rising H+/CO2? a. by vasodilating arteries b. by vasoconstricting arteries c. by increasing respiratory rate d. by inhibiting cardioinhibitory centre ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 373 BLM: Higher Order 80. Which of the following will NOT cause an increase in blood pressure? a. increased levels of aldosterone b. increased levels of angiotensin II c. increased blood volume d. increased levels of oxygen ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 374 BLM: Higher Order 81. What does a sudden increase in pressure within the carotid sinus lead to? a. increased sympathetic nerve activity b. increased sympathetic nerve activity and decreased parasympathetic nerve activity c. decreased sympathetic nerve activity and increased parasympathetic nerve activity d. decreased sympathetic nerve activity ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 370 BLM: Higher Order 82. Which term refers to a chronic state of increased arterial pressure? a. Shock b. congestive heart failure c. pulmonary edema d. Hypertension ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 374 BLM: Higher Order 83. What does NOT occur as a compensation for haemorrhage? a. shift of fluid from the interstitial fluid into the plasma b. reduced urinary output c. increased capillary permeability d. increased cardiac output ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 374 BLM: Higher Order 84. What may NOT cause hypertension? a. renal disease b. hardening of the arteries c. suppression of baroreceptors d. salt retention ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 374 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 85. Which of the following is NOT a compensation mechanism for blood loss? a. fluid shift from ICF to plasma b. venous vasoconstriction c. lowered angiotensin II production d. Thirst ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 376 BLM: Higher Order 86. Varicose veins develop mainly from the incompetent function of which following statement? a. connective tissue lining. b. endothelium. c. lack of a pressure gradient. d. venous valves. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 368 BLM: Higher Order 87. Baroreceptors are most sensitive to changes in which of the following? a. blood pressure. b. the carbon dioxide level in the blood. c. the degree of contraction of skeletal muscles. d. the oxygen level in the blood. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 370 BLM: Higher Order 88. Which statement is INCORRECT? a. Mean arterial pressure increases in severe haemorrhage. b. A systolic pressure of 115 mmHg in a resting young adult is probably normal. c. The pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures. d. The highest vascular blood pressure is observed in the aorta. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 345 BLM: Higher Order 89. If arterial pressure is elevated, which responses do baroreceptor signals trigger? a. a fall in plasma angiotensin II levels b. increased activity in sympathetic nerves causing peripheral vasoconstriction c. an increase in epinephrine secretion from adrenal medulla d. increased total peripheral resistance ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 370 BLM: Higher Order 90. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with primary hypertension? a. high dietary salt intake b. family history of hypertension c. obesity and stress with excessive sympathetic nervous system activity d. Pheochromocytoma ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 374 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 8: Vascular Physiology 91. What is NOT a complication of uncontrolled hypertension? a. cerebrovascular accidents (strokes) b. endocarditis c. renal impairment d. congestive heart failure ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 374 BLM: Higher Order 92. Which of the following represents postural (orthostatic) hypotension? a. a shock-like state that affects the elderly b. an abnormally low blood pressure in the supine position c. a permanent decrease in blood pressure in a long-bedridden patient d. an abnormal and transient drop in blood pressure on assumption of the upright position ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 375 BLM: Higher Order 93. When blood pressure falls below normal, what happens to restore the blood pressure toward normal? a. The rate of firing in the afferent nerves originating from the carotid-sinus and aortic-arch baroreceptors increases. b. The rate of firing in the afferent nerves originating from the carotid-sinus and aortic-arch baroreceptors decreases. c. The rate of firing in the afferent nerves originating from the carotid-sinus and aortic-arch baroreceptors does not change. d. The peripheral arterioles undergo vasodilation. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 375 BLM: Higher Order TRUE/FALSE 1. Organs that recondition the blood normally receive considerably more of the cardiac output than is necessary to meet their metabolic needs. ANS: T PTS: 1 2. Organs that do not adjust the blood are more vulnerable to reductions in blood flow than are organs that perform homeostatic functions on the blood. ANS: T PTS: 1 3. If driving pressure is constant, flow will double when the radius increases by twofold. ANS: F PTS: 1 4. Resistance to blood flow increases as the viscosity of the blood increases. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 5. Arteries ensure that blood constantly flows due to contraction of its smooth muscle layer. ANS: F PTS: 1 6. Arteries that have lowered compliance are not as elastic. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. Vasoconstriction refers to a decrease in the radius of a vessel. ANS: T PTS: 1 8. A major function of the arteries is to serve as a blood reservoir. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. More blood is delivered to the tissues during ventricular systole than during ventricular diastole. ANS: F PTS: 1 10. As the concentration of red blood cells increases in the blood, the viscosity of the blood increases. ANS: T PTS: 1 11. When the heart is not ejecting blood into the arterial system, the pressure in the arteries falls to zero as blood drains off into the rest of the vasculature. ANS: F PTS: 1 12. There is a constant flow of blood through the capillaries even though the heart is forcing blood out into the arterial system only part of the time. ANS: T PTS: 1 13. The sphygmomanometer and stethoscope can be used for a direct measurement of arterial blood pressure. ANS: F PTS: 1 14. Measurement of arterial pressure using a sphygmomanometer is possible because turbulent blood flow that occurs as arterial pressure overcomes a partially occluded artery and can be heard by a stethoscope placed just over the artery. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 15. Arterial walls contain a thick layer of smooth muscle and an abundance of collagen and elastin fibres. ANS: T PTS: 1 16. The pulse pressure is the maximum pressure exerted in the arteries. ANS: F PTS: 1 17. If the diastolic pressure and systolic pressure were both increased by18, then the pulse pressure would also be increased by19. ANS: F PTS: 1 18. For a blood pressure reading of 136/78, 78 refers to the diastolic pressure. ANS: T PTS: 1 19. Local control mechanisms can override sympathetic control of changes in the size of arterioles. ANS: T PTS: 1 20. During exercise, blood flow to the digestive tract is increased by dilation of the arterioles of the digestive tract. ANS: F PTS: 1 21. The mean arterial pressure is a simple average of the systolic and diastolic pressures. ANS: F PTS: 1 22. Arteriolar resistance is regulated by both local controls and extrinsic controls. ANS: T PTS: 1 23. Histamine released in injured areas produces local arteriolar vasodilation. ANS: T PTS: 1 24. Differences in blood flow to an organ are related to the resistance to flow offered by the arterioles that supply that organ. ANS: T PTS: 1 25. The regulation of blood flow in the arterioles of the brain is mainly under the control of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 26. Hyperemia occurs in response to circulating epinephrine. ANS: F PTS: 1 27. By F = P/R, as resistance increases, the flow increases if the pressure is constant. ANS: F PTS: 1 28. Increased sympathetic stimulation causes generalized vasoconstriction. ANS: T PTS: 1 29. The greatest pressure drop in the vascular system occurs within the capillaries due to fluid leaving the capillaries by the process of ultrafiltration. ANS: F PTS: 1 30. A local increase in potassium increases the vasodilation of arterioles. ANS: T PTS: 1 31. The extra fluid filtered but not reabsorbed at the capillary level is picked up by the lymphatics. ANS: T PTS: 1 32. The ultimate function of the circulatory system is accomplished by the heart. ANS: F PTS: 1 33. All the fluid forced out of the capillaries is filtered through the lymphatics before being returned to the venous blood. ANS: F PTS: 1 34. During exercise, a larger percentage of the cardiac output travels to the skin and skeletal muscles. ANS: T PTS: 1 35. Increased tissue respiration rates cause local vasodilation of arterioles. ANS: T PTS: 1 36. Blood flow is driven by osmotic pressure. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 37. Velocity of blood flow is the slowest in the veins because the blood must move uphill against gravity in these vessels. ANS: F PTS: 1 38. Endothelin causes arteriolar smooth muscle contraction. ANS: T PTS: 1 39. The primary means by which individual substances are exchanged between the blood and surrounding tissues is by bulk flow. ANS: F PTS: 1 40. The main process by which exchange of solutes occurs between the blood and interstitial fluid at the capillary level is passive diffusion down concentration gradients. ANS: T PTS: 1 41. Glucose is actively transported across the capillary walls. ANS: F PTS: 1 42. Vasopressin is a vasodilator. ANS: F PTS: 1 43. Plasma proteins are responsible for the blood-colloid osmotic pressure. ANS: T PTS: 1 44. There is normally a net loss of fluid from the capillary at the arteriolar end. ANS: T PTS: 1 45. There is normally a net gain of fluid in the capillary at the venular end. ANS: T PTS: 1 46. The colloidal osmotic pressure in the blood plasma draws fluid into the capillary. ANS: T PTS: 1 47. The capillary vessel walls are more permeable than the lymphatic vessel walls. ANS: F PTS: 1 48. The capillaries have an overall, tremendous cross-sectional area. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 49. Normally most of the blood at any one time is in the capillary beds, because this is where material exchange is taking place. ANS: F PTS: 1 50. Sympathetic activity controls the degree of resistance in arterioles. ANS: T PTS: 1 51. Bulk flow refers to the volume of blood ejected by each ventricle each minute. ANS: F PTS: 1 52. At any point in time, most of the blood flow in the body is contained in the capillaries. ANS: F PTS: 1 53. The vessels with the greatest total cross-sectional area are the arteries. ANS: F PTS: 1 54. Because the capillaries have the smallest radii of any vascular segment, they are the major resistive vessels. ANS: F PTS: 1 55. A decrease in blood-colloid osmotic pressure will decrease ultrafiltration and increase reabsorption at the capillary level. ANS: F PTS: 1 56. Edema refers to excess interstitial fluid. ANS: T PTS: 1 57. Blood flows continuously through all capillaries. ANS: F PTS: 1 58. The skeletal muscle pump adds to the effect of gravity on the venous system. ANS: T PTS: 1 59. Cardiac contraction induces blood flow in the arterial system, but it has no influence on blood flow in the veins. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 60. Edema, venous pooling, and a reduction in cardiac output are consequences of standing still for a long time. ANS: T PTS: 1 61. The effective circulating volume is reduced when blood collects in distended varicose veins. ANS: F PTS: 1 62. A metarteriole is located between an arteriole and venule. ANS: T PTS: 1 63. The flow rate of blood is the same in all segments of the vascular tree, but the velocity of blood flow is slower in the capillaries than in other segments of the vascular tree. ANS: T PTS: 1 64. Cardiovascular changes associated with exercise can be accounted for by local metabolic influences on skeletal muscle arterioles coupled with adjustments via the baroreceptor reflex. ANS: F PTS: 1 65. Primary hypertension refers to chronically elevated blood pressure of unknown origin. ANS: T PTS: 1 66. The baroreceptors are usually no longer functional in the presence of hypertension. ANS: F PTS: 1 67. The interstitial fluid is not part of the ECF. ANS: F PTS: 1 68. Irreversible shock occurs when the cardiovascular system itself starts to deteriorate as a consequence of side effects from compensatory measures to severe hypotension. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology COMPLETION 1. Two functions of arteries are ____________________ and ____________________. ANS: -passageway to tissues, pressure reservoir -pressure reservoir, passageway to tissues PTS: 1 2. The wall of an artery contains ____________________ and ____________________ connective tissue fibres. ANS: -collagen, elastin -elastin, collagen PTS: 1 3. Arteriolar smooth muscle normally displays a state of partial constriction known as ____________________. ANS: tone PTS: 1 4. Relaxation of arteriolar smooth muscle causes the radius of the vessel to ____________________, a process known as ____________________, whereas contraction of arteriolar smooth muscle causes the radius of the vessel to ____________________, a process known as ____________________. ANS: increase, vasodilation, decrease, vasoconstriction PTS: 1 5. What category of controls ____________________ (local or extrinsic) is primarily responsible for matching tissue blood flow with the metabolic needs of the specific tissue involved? ANS: local PTS: 1 6. The two hormones primarily involved in fluid balance that are also potent vasoconstrictors are ____________________ and ____________________. ANS: -vasopressin, angiotensin II -angiotensin II, vasopressin PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 7. Blood flow is driven by ____________________. ANS: mean arterial pressure PTS: 1 8. Movement of fluid out of the capillaries into the interstitial fluid is known as ____________________. ANS: ultrafiltration PTS: 1 9. Movement of fluid from the interstitial fluid into the plasma is known as ____________________. ANS: reabsorption PTS: 1 10. Accumulation of excess interstitial fluid is known as ______________________. ANS: edema PTS: 1 11. A capillary wall has a measured thickness of about one ____________________. ANS: micrometre PTS: 1 12. The primary mechanism for exchange of individual solutes across the capillary wall is ____________________. ANS: diffusion down individual concentration gradients PTS: 1 13. The process of ____________________ is responsible for determining the distribution of the extracellular fluid volume between the plasma and interstitial fluid. ANS: bulk flow PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 14. A deficiency of ____________________ in the blood reduces the blood-colloid osmotic pressure. ANS: plasma proteins PTS: 1 15. Mean arterial pressure = ____________________ ?6? ____________________. ANS: cardiac output, total peripheral resistance -total peripheral resistance, cardiac output PTS: 1 16. Cardiac output = [EDV – ____________________] ?6? heart rate. ANS: ESV PTS: 1 17. Total peripheral resistance is primarily dependent on ____________________. ANS: the degree of arteriolar vasoconstriction PTS: 1 18. The receptors for the baroreceptor reflex are located in the ____________________ and ____________________, whereas the integrating centre is the ____________________ located in the ____________________. The efferent pathway for this reflex is the ____________________. The effector organs are the ____________________ and ____________________. ANS: carotid sinus, aortic arch, cardiovascular control centre, medulla, autonomic -nervous system, heart, blood vessels -carotid sinus, aortic arch, cardiovascular control centre, medulla, autonomic nervous system, -blood vessels, heart PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 19. Assume a person has a blood pressure recording of 125/77. a. What is the systolic pressure? ____________________. b. What is the diastolic pressure? ____________________. c. What is the pulse pressure? ____________________. d. What is the mean arterial pressure____________________. e. Would any sound be heard when the pressure in an external cuff around the arm was 130 mm Hg? ____________________. f. Would any sound be heard when cuff pressure was 118 mm Hg? ____________________. g. Would any sound be heard when cuff pressure was 75 mm Hg? ____________________. ANS: a. 188.b. 77, c. 48, d. 93, e. no, f. yes, g. no PTS: 1 20. Normally capillary filtration exceeds reabsorption by about ____________________ litres daily. ANS: three PTS: 1 21. Venous capacity depends on the ____________________ of the vein walls. ANS: distensibility PTS: 1 22. Vasoconstriction of blood vessels changes the flow of blood through them by ____________________ it. ANS: decreasing PTS: 1 23. The skeletal muscle pump changes venous return by ____________________ it. ANS: increasing PTS: 1 24. ____________________ are structures in veins that prevent the blood from flowing backward. ANS: Valves PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 25. Baroreceptors are mainly found in the carotid sinus and ____________________. ANS: aortic arch PTS: 1 26. It is considered hypertension if the systolic/diastolic pressure is above the values of ____________________. ANS: 195 PTS: 1 27. ____________________ syndrome occurs with the increased production of the hormone ____________________. ANS: Conn’s, aldosterone PTS: 1 28. Vasogenic shock is triggered by widespread _________ of blood vessels. ANS: vasodilation PTS: 1 Choose the appropriate letter from the answer code to make the statement correct. a. stimulates or increases b. decreases or inhibits c. has no effect on 29. Decreased rate of firing in afferent nerves reaching the cardiovascular control centre ____________________ the parasympathetic nerve activity to the cardiovascular system. ANS: b PTS: 1 30. Decreased rate of firing in afferent nerves reaching the cardiovascular control centre ____________________ the sympathetic nerve activity to the cardiovascular system. ANS: a PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 31. Increased parasympathetic nerve activity ____________________ the strength of cardiac ventricular contraction. ANS: c PTS: 1 32. Increased sympathetic nerve activity ____________________ the rate of depolarization of the SA node. ANS: a PTS: 1 33. Increased sympathetic nerve activity ____________________ the strength of cardiac ventricular contraction. ANS: a PTS: 1 34. Increased sympathetic nerve activity ____________________ the stroke volume. ANS: a PTS: 1 35. Increased parasympathetic nerve activity ____________________ the heart rate. ANS: b PTS: 1 36. Increased heart rate ____________________ cardiac output. ANS: a PTS: 1 37. Decreased stroke volume ____________________ cardiac output. ANS: b PTS: 1 38. Decreased stroke volume ____________________ heart rate. ANS: c PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 39. Decreased sympathetic nerve activity ____________________ the arteriolar radius. ANS: a PTS: 1 40. Increased arteriolar radius ____________________ the total peripheral resistance. ANS: b PTS: 1 41. Increased total peripheral resistance ____________________ the mean systemic arterial blood pressure. ANS: a PTS: 1 42. Decreased cardiac output ____________________ the mean systemic arterial blood pressure. ANS: b PTS: 1 43. Increased skeletal muscle activity ____________________ venous return. ANS: a PTS: 1 44. Decreased O2, increased CO2, increased acid, and increased K+ concentrations in a skeletal muscle ____________________ the radius of the arterioles supplying this skeletal muscle. ANS: a PTS: 1 45. Increased sympathetic nerve activity ____________________ the venous radius. ANS: b PTS: 1 46. Decreased venous radius ____________________ the venous return. ANS: a PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology 47. Increased venous return ____________________ the end-diastolic volume. ANS: a PTS: 1 48. Decreased venous return ____________________ the stroke volume. ANS: b PTS: 1 49. Decreased arteriolar radius ____________________ the blood flow through the arteriole. ANS: b PTS: 1 50. Increased venous radius ____________________ the blood flow through the vein. ANS: b PTS: 1 51. Decreased parasympathetic nerve activity ____________________ total peripheral resistance. ANS: c PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology MATCHING Indicate which type of vessel performs the function listed by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. arteries b. arterioles c. capillaries d. veins e. lymphatics 1. site of exchange of nutrients and waste products between the blood and surrounding tissues 2. serve as low-resistance passageways from the heart to the tissues 3. serve as a blood reservoir to accommodate variations in blood volume 4. major resistive vessels 5. portion of the circulatory system through which the velocity of blood flow is the slowest 6. serve as low-resistance passageways from the tissues to the heart 7. act as a pressure reservoir to drive blood forward throughout the vasculature during cardiac diastole 8. changes in the radius of this vessel type regulate the distribution of the cardiac output to various areas of the body 9. vessels that pick up fluid that is filtered but not reabsorbed 1. ANS: C PTS: 1 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 6. ANS: D PTS: 1 7. ANS: A PTS: 1 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 9. ANS: E PTS: 1 Indicate what effect the changes in question would have on blood flow, by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. This change would increase blood flow. b. This change would decrease blood flow. c. This change would have no effect on blood flow. 10. increasing the pressure gradient in a vessel 11. increasing the resistance of a vessel 12. increasing the radius of a vessel 13. increasing the number of circulating red blood cells 14. increasing the length of a vessel 10. ANS: A PTS: 1 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 13. ANS: B PTS: 1 14. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology If the blood pressure is recorded as 118/76, indicate the correct value of the pressure in question by using the following answer code: a. 118 mm Hg b. 42 mm Hg c. 97 mm Hg d. 76 mm Hg e. 90 mm Hg 15. What is the systolic pressure? 16. What is the diastolic pressure? 17. What is the pulse pressure? 18. What is the mean arterial pressure? 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 16. ANS: D PTS: 1 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 18. ANS: E PTS: 1 Match the term with the correct characteristic by using the answer code: a. reactive hyperemia b. active hyperemia c. pressure autoregulation d. extrinsic control 19. arteriolar dilation that occurs within a tissue in response to local chemical changes that accompany increased metabolic activity of the tissue 20. important in maintaining an adequate pressure head to drive blood forward to the tissues 21. local arteriolar mechanisms that are aimed at keeping tissue blood flow fairly constant in spite of rather wide deviations in mean arterial driving pressure 22. increase in blood flow to a tissue that occurs after removal of an occlusion of its blood supply 19. ANS: B PTS: 1 20. ANS: D PTS: 1 21. ANS: C PTS: 1 22. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology Indicate what effect the change in question would have on bulk flow by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. The change would increase ultrafiltration and decrease reabsorption. b. The change would decrease ultrafiltration and increase reabsorption. c. The change would increase both ultrafiltration and reabsorption. d. The change would decrease both ultrafiltration and reabsorption. e. The change would not alter ultrafiltration and reabsorption. 23. loss of plasma protein in the urine due to kidney disease 24. rise in capillary blood pressure in connection with congestive heart failure 25. loss of plasma volume due to haemorrhage 26. escape of plasma proteins into the interstitial fluid due to capillary damage 27. reduced synthesis of plasma proteins due to liver disease 28. expanded plasma volume due to excessive fluid intake 23. ANS: A PTS: 1 24. ANS: A PTS: 1 25. ANS: B PTS: 1 26. ANS: A PTS: 1 27. ANS: A PTS: 1 28. ANS: A PTS: 1 Indicate whether arteriolar vasoconstriction or vasodilation would occur in the tissue in question by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. would produce arteriolar vasoconstriction b. would produce arteriolar vasodilation c. would not cause any change in arteriolar calibre 29. decreased O2 in skeletal muscle 30. a hyperemic response in the heart 31. histamine release in an injured tissue 32. application of ice to a sprained ankle 33. occlusion of an artery supplying a particular tissue 34. norepinephrine on cerebral arterioles 35. sympathetic stimulation of kidney arterioles 36. parasympathetic discharge on skeletal muscle arterioles 37. increased stretch of arterioles supplying a particular tissue 29. ANS: B PTS: 1 30. ANS: B PTS: 1 31. ANS: B PTS: 1 32. ANS: A PTS: 1 33. ANS: B PTS: 1 34. ANS: C PTS: 1 35. ANS: A PTS: 1 36. ANS: C PTS: 1 37. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology By using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all), indicate whether the following would a. increase BP b. decrease BP c. increase heart rate only d. have no effect on BP or heart rate 38. increased vasomotor centre activity 39. baroreceptors inhibited 40. chemoreceptors activated 41. stress 42. increased release of aldosterone 43. increased release of vasopressin 44. release of renin 45. facultative Na+ reabsorption 46. adrenalin release 38. ANS: A PTS: 1 39. ANS: A PTS: 1 40. ANS: A PTS: 1 41. ANS: A PTS: 1 42. ANS: A PTS: 1 43. ANS: A PTS: 1 44. ANS: A PTS: 1 45. ANS: A PTS: 1 46. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology ESSAY 1. Describe how blood pressure is regulated. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. Describe capillary filtration and reabsorption. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. What haemodynamic changes occur when an individual goes from a resting state to an active state? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4. What are the roles of the lymphatic system in relation to the cardiovascular system? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. How is salt balance tied into blood pressure control? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 6. What effects do the kidneys play on blood pressure maintenance? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 8: Vascular Physiology PROBLEM 1. Indicate the relative comparison of each of the paired items by writing the appropriate letter in the blank by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. A is greater than B. b. B is greater than A. c. A and B are equal. A. blood flow through an arteriole upon increased sympathetic activity B. blood flow through an arteriole upon decreased sympathetic activity A. blood flow through a vein upon increased sympathetic activity B. blood flow through a vein upon decreased sympathetic activity A. velocity of blood flow through the veins B. velocity of blood flow through the capillaries A. local arteriolar radius in the presence of local decreased O2 concentration and increased CO2 concentration B. local arteriolar radius with normal local concentration of O2 and CO2 A. circulation through the skin during exercise B. circulation through the skin at rest A. circulation to the brain at rest B. circulation to the brain during an examination A. net ultrafiltration pressure at the arteriolar end of the capillary B. net reabsorption pressure at the venous end of the capillary ANS: B, A, A, A, A, C, A, PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Blood is a connective tissue comprising cellular elements and an extracellular matrix of primarily water. What is the name of the blood’s extracellular matrix? a. haematocrit b. fibrinogen c. buffy coat d. plasma ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 383 BLM: Higher Order 2. Albumin belongs to what group in the blood plasma? a. hormones b. electrolytes c. proteins d. gases (O2, CO2, N2) ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 384 BLM: Remember 3. About how many litres of blood are in the human body? a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 12 ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 383 BLM: Remember 4. The red cell count is normally about how many million cells per cubic millimetre? a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Remember 5. Which of the following is NOT a function of plasma proteins? a. Plasma proteins are responsible for the blood colloid osmotic pressure. b. Plasma proteins provide a source of readily available amino acids to be utilized by the tissue cells for the synthesis of new tissue proteins. c. Gamma globulins important in the body’s defence mechanism are one of the constituents that stay in the plasma. d. Plasma proteins play a role in buffering changes in pH in the body fluids. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 384 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 9: The Blood 6. The buffy coat, which represents < 1 percent of the whole blood, comprises a. erythrocytes and platelets. b. leukocytes and platelets. c. leukocytes and clotting factors. d. platelets and clotting factors. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Remember 7. What advantages does the biconcavity of the erythrocyte impart on the cell? a. It increases the overall surface area. b. It decreases the flexibility of the cell. c. It prevents toxins from entering the cell. d. It increases blood osmolarity. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Higher Order 8. Why is it important that biconcavity of the erythrocyte on the cell decreases its flexibility? a. It prevents osmolarity changes. b. It increases the rate of gas exchange across the membrane. c. It provides an additional area for endocytosis. d. It encourages cellular respiration. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Higher Order 9. What is the function of plasma albumins? a. to contribute in the clotting process b. for body defence c. to maintain the blood’s osmotic pressure d. for transportation of lipids ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 384 BLM: Higher Order 10. Which plasma globulins are the antibodies? a. alpha b. beta c. gamma d. delta ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 384 BLM: Remember 11. If the haematocrit is 40, then the volume occupied by the which of the following? a. red blood cells is 60 percent of the total blood volume. b. white blood cells is 40 percent of the total blood volume. c. red blood cells is 40 percent of the total blood volume. d. plasma and other cellular elements is 40 percent of the total blood volume. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 389 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 9: The Blood 12. Which statement is INCORRECT for antibodies? a. gamma globulins b. a type of plasma protein c. produced by T lymphocytes d. originated from plasma cells ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 384 BLM: Higher Order 13. Which of the following is NOT found within erythrocytes? a. carbonic anhydrase b. glycolytic enzymes c. haemoglobin d. Mitochondria ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Remember 14. Carbonic anhydrase is NOT crucial for which of the following? a. CO2 transport in blood. b. conversion of CO2 into bicarbonate ion. c. production of NO. d. chemical buffer system ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 386 BLM: Higher Order 15. Which statement concerning erythrocytes is INCORRECT? a. Erythrocytes do not contain any organelles. b. Erythrocytes may take on many different shapes. c. Erythrocytes originate from the same undifferentiated pluripotential stem cells as leukocytes and platelets. d. Erythrocytes live only about five days. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Higher Order 16. Which organ removes most of the worn-out red blood cells from the circulation? a. bone marrow b. kidney c. pancreas d. spleen ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 387 BLM: Higher Order 17. Which of the following concerning erythrocytes is correct? a. They contain many nuclei. b. They survive an average of 150 days. c. They do not have the ability to use O2 for energy production despite the fact that they transport O2 to all the other tissues of the body. d. They are not flexible. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 9: The Blood 18. What is the most abundant type of cellular element in the blood? a. erythrocytes b. neutrophils c. leukocytes d. lymphocytes ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 383 BLM: Higher Order 19. Which of the following is correct for erythrocytes? a. They are large cells. b. They participate in the clotting of blood. c. They defend the body against foreign substances. d. They possess binding sites for oxygen and CO2. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Higher Order 20. Which example of a reticulocyte percentage among the erythrocytes in the circulation indicates a high degree of erythropoiesis? a. 0.5 b. 0.7 c. 1.2 d. 2.9 ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 387 BLM: Remember 21. Which of the following concerning haemoglobin is correct? a. It consists of a protein made up of four highly folded polypeptide chains and four iron-containing nonprotein, nitrogenous groups. b. It appears reddish when combined with CO2. c. It can combine only with O2 molecules. d. It is found in the nuclei of red blood cells. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 386 BLM: Higher Order 22. Which statement is true of Haemoglobin? a. is found in the nuclei of red blood cells. b. contains carbonic anhydrase. c. can combine with O2, CO2, H+, NO, and CO. d. can combine only with O2 molecules ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Higher Order 23. Which of the following is correct for iron? a. It can combine reversibly with O2. b. Deficiency in it can lead to polycythemia. c. It is converted into bilirubin and secreted into the bile when an old red blood cell ruptures and is degraded. d. It appears reddish when combined with CO2. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 9: The Blood 24. Which statement concerning iron is INCORRECT? a. Iron is found in the heme portion of the haemoglobin molecule. b. Iron is converted into bilirubin upon erythrocyte degradation. c. Iron readily combines reversibly with O2. d. Diets deficient in iron can lead to anaemia. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Higher Order 25. Which of the following concerning erythropoiesis is correct? a. It is accomplished in the bone marrow upon stimulation by erythropoietin. b. It is accomplished in the kidneys in response to reduced O2 delivery to the kidneys. c. It refers to increased RBC count. d. It refers to excessive RBC destruction. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 387 BLM: Higher Order 26. Which of the following organs produces the hormone that controls erythropoiesis? a. Pancreas b. Brain c. Heart d. Kidney ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 387 BLM: Higher Order 27. What is the stimulus for increased erythropoiesis secretion? a. low oxygen levels in the bone marrow b. low oxygen levels in the kidney c. a hormone produced by the bone marrow d. a hormone produced by the liver ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 387 BLM: Higher Order 28. Why do men have a higher haematocrit than women? a. greater blood flow to the kidney b. their larger muscle mass c. the growth hormone interactions with erythropoietin d. higher blood pressure ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 383 BLM: Higher Order 29. Which of the following condition(s) would NOT result in increased rates of erythropoiesis? a. high altitudes b. increased physical activity c. loss of blood d. greater blood flow to the kidney ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 387 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 9: The Blood 30. Which of the following types of anaemia is caused by a genetic abnormality? a. Pernicious b. haemorrhagic c. sickle-cell d. Megaloblastic ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 389 BLM: Remember 31. Pernicious anaemia develops from a deficiency of which of the following? a. ATP. b. carbonic anhydrase c. gastrin hormone d. the intrinsic factor ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 388 BLM: Higher Order 32. Which of the following is correct for erythropoietin? a. It is secreted by the bone marrow. b. It stimulates red blood cell production. c. It converts prothrombin to thrombin. d. It is deficient in pernicious anaemia. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 387 BLM: Higher Order 33. Anaemia results from a reduced O2-carrying capacity of the blood, which can be caused by a decrease in the number of ___________________ a. leukocytes. b. lymphocytes. c. macrophages. d. erythrocytes. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 388 BLM: Remember 34. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of anaemia? a. dietary deficiency of folic acid b. deficiency of intrinsic factor c. malaria d. living at high altitude ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 388 BLM: Higher Order 35. What happens in aplastic anaemia? a. There is insufficient haemoglobin formation due to iron deficiency. b. There is an acute loss of blood. c. Destruction of the bone marrow has occurred due to toxic chemicals or radiation. d. The stomach secretes inadequate intrinsic factor, which is essential for intestinal absorption of vitamin B12. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 389 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 9: The Blood 36. What form of polycythemia occurs when an individual lives in a high-altitude environment? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. relative ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 391 BLM: Remember 37. Which statement concerning white blood cells is correct? a. They are the most abundant type of blood cell. b. They do not have nuclei. c. They are actually only cell fragments. d. They defend the body against foreign invasion. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 392 BLM: Higher Order 38. Which of the following is NOT a function of white blood cells? a. activation of factor XII, which triggers the clotting cascade b. production of antibodies c. destruction of cancer cells d. phagocytosis of foreign invaders ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 393 BLM: Higher Order 39. Which of the following cellular elements has the lowest count in the blood? a. platelets b. neutrophils c. erythrocytes d. basophils ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 392 BLM: Remember 40. Which of the following leukocytes contains histamine in its granules? a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. basophils d. lymphocytes ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 393 BLM: Remember 41. Which of the following leukocytes is implicated in certain allergic reactions and attacks internal parasites such as worms? a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. Basophils d. lymphocytes ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 393 BLM: RememberChapter 9: The Blood 42. The tissue phagocytes, macrophages are derived from which white blood cell? a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. lymphocytes d. monocytes ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 394 BLM: Remember 43. Which of the following leukocytes were NOT given rise from Myeloid stem cells? a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. basophils d. lymphocytes ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 393 BLM: Remember 44. Which are the most common leukocytes in the blood? a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. basophils d. lymphocytes ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 392 BLM: Remember 45. Which of the following is NOT a granuloyte? a. monocytes b. eosinophils c. basophils d. neutrophils ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 392 BLM: Remember 46. Which of the following is correct for lymphocytes? a. They are polymorphonuclear granulocytes. b. They are the most abundant type of leukocyte. c. They can be produced in lymphoid organs as well as in the bone marrow. d. They have kidney-shaped nucleus. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 392 BLM: Remember 47. Which of the following is correct for basophils? a. They contain granules that preferentially take up a basic blue dye. b. They leave the blood to become macrophages. c. They synthesize antibodies. d. They are the most abundant type of leukocytes. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 393 BLM: RememberChapter 9: The Blood 48. What is the most abundant agranulocyte in the blood? a. basophil b. eosinophil c. lymphocyte d. monocyte ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 392 BLM: Remember 49. An increase in the circulating number of what is associated with parasite infestations? a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. Basophils d. lymphocytes ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 393 BLM: Remember 50. What does neutrophilia frequently accompany? a. bacterial infections b. viral infections c. parasitic infestations d. allergic conditions ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 393 BLM: Higher Order 51. What leaves the blood after circulating for only a day or two and becomes the large tissue phagocytes known as macrophages? a. eosinophils b. Basophils c. lymphocytes d. monocytes ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 394 BLM: Remember 52. What can occur with leukaemia? a. inadequate defence capabilities against foreign invasion despite an excessive number of white blood cells b. polycythemia c. high blood pressure d. eosinophilia ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 394 BLM: Higher Order 53. Which of the following is correct for neutrophils? a. They are the most abundant type of white blood cell. b. They attach to a parasitic worm and secrete substances that kill it. c. They are stimulated to replicate and be released from the lymphoid organs. d. They are produced in response to erythropoietin. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 393 BLM: RememberChapter 9: The Blood 54. Which statement concerning platelets is INCORRECT? a. Platelets are produced in the bone marrow. b. Platelets form the meshwork of a blood clot upon which the other cellular elements become entrapped. c. Platelets form a plug when they adhere to the exposed collagen of a damaged vessel. d. Aggregated platelets release serotonin, epinephrine, and thromboxane A2. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 394 BLM: Higher Order 55. What is the platelet count per cubic millimetre that is within the normal range? a. 100 000 b. 130 000 c. 250 000 d. 600 000 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 382 BLM: Remember 56. Which step is NOT involved in haemostasis? a. vascular spasms b. platelet aggregation c. Coagulation d. Thrombopoeisis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 395 BLM: Higher Order 57. Which statement concerning platelets is INCORRECT? a. Platelets do not adhere to normal vascular surfaces. b. Aggregated platelets release ADP, which causes other platelets to become sticky and adhere to the platelet plug. c. Platelets directly convert fibrinogen to fibrin. d. A platelet plug releases chemicals that cause the injured vessel to constrict. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 394 BLM: Higher Order 58. Which chemical signal makes platelets sticky upon aggregation? a. ADP b. ATP c. prostacyclin d. thromboxane ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 395 BLM: Remember 59. Which of the following signals the platelet aggregation to be reinforced? a. ADP b. fibrinogen c. thromboxane d. prostacyclin ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 395 BLM: RememberChapter 9: The Blood 60. Which of the following concerning prostacyclin is correct? a. It activates the clotting cascade. b. It induces profound vasoconstriction of an injured vessel. c. It profoundly inhibits platelet aggregation. d. It is released by aggregated platelets. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 395 BLM: Higher Order 61. Which blood cellular elements lack nuclei? a. Platelets b. Erythrocytes c. Leukocytes d. platelets and erythrocytes ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 386|395 BLM: Remember 62. What does exposed collagen in a damaged vessel do? a. It activates factor XII to initiate blood clotting. b. It initiates platelet aggregation. c. It secretes ADP, which causes platelets to become sticky. d. It activates factor XII to initiate blood clotting and initiates platelet aggregation. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 398 BLM: Higher Order 63. What are platelets normally attracted to? a. a collection of white blood cells b. a disrupted surface of a blood vessel c. a smooth surface d. a source of ATP production ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 398 BLM: Higher Order 64. Which of the chemical signals is released by healthy endothelial tissue in order to prevent overgrowth of platelet plugs? a. ATP b. Fibrinogen c. Prostacyclin d. Thromboxane ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 395 BLM: Higher Order 65. Which of the following is NOT accomplished by thrombin? a. stimulates conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin b. activates tissue thromboplastin, which initiates the extrinsic clotting pathway c. activates factor XIII (fibrin-stabilizing factor) d. enhances platelet aggregation ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 396 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 9: The Blood 66. Which of the following occurs in the last step of blood coagulation? a. Fibrin is converted to fibrinogen. b. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin. c. Platelet factor enters numerous reactions. d. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 397 BLM: Higher Order 67. Which of the following is correct for platelets? a. They convert prothrombin to thrombin. b. They form the meshwork upon which the erythrocytes become trapped to produce a clot. c. They adhere and aggregate when they contact exposed collagen in the walls of a broken blood vessel. d. They release fibrinogen once a platelet plug is formed. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 398 BLM: Higher Order 68. Which statement concerning the extrinsic clotting pathway is correct? a. It is set off by factor XII. b. It clots blood in tissues. c. It has more steps than the intrinsic pathway. d. It is set off when Hageman factor comes into contact with collagen in an injured vessel. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 399 BLM: Remember 69. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events leading to clot formation? a. prothrombin–thrombin–fibrin–fibrinogen b. fibrin–prothrombin–fibrinogen–thrombin c. prothrombin–thrombin–fibrinogen–fibrin d. fibrin–thrombin–prothrombin–fibrinogen ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 397|398 BLM: Remember 70. Which of the following is NOT a required factor in the intrinsic clotting mechanism? a. calcium ions b. factor XII c. platelet factor 3 d. factor VII ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 398 BLM: Remember 71. Platelets trapped within the fibrous meshwork of the clot ______________ a. release plasmin. b. release prostacyclin. c. retract the clot. d. inactivate thrombin. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 399 BLM: RememberChapter 9: The Blood 72. What forms the meshwork of a clot? a. red blood cells b. Fibrin c. Platelets d. Thrombin ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 396 BLM: Remember 73. Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about heparin? a. It is normally present in the body. b. It is present in basophils. c. It is used in blood samples. d. It stimulates the coagulation of blood. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 394 BLM: Remember 74. Which of the following is correct for tissue thromboplastin? a. It is released from traumatized tissue and triggers the extrinsic clotting pathway. b. It converts fibrinogen to fibrin. c. It forms the meshwork of the clot. d. It activates factor XII (Hageman factor). ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 399 BLM: Higher Order 75. Since fibrinogen is always present in the blood but the blood does not clot, what must normally be absent? a. prothrombin b. thrombin c. calcium d. red blood cells ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 397 BLM: Higher Order 76. What slowly dissolves clots? a. tissue thromboplastin b. prostacyclin c. plasmin d. calcium ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 399 BLM: Remember 77. Which of the following chemicals is NOT involved in fibrinolysis? a. plasmin b. plasminogen c. tissue plasminogen activator d. Thrombin ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 399 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 9: The Blood 78. Which condition results from inadequate amounts of platelets? a. haemophilia b. sickle cell anaemia c. thrombocytopenia d. Hageman disorder ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 400 BLM: Higher Order 79. What does haemophilia result from? a. a deficiency of platelets b. inadequate haemoglobin production c. vitamin B12 deficiency d. inability to produce one of the factors in the clotting cascade ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 400 BLM: Remember 80. The deficiency of which vitamin can cause a bleeding tendency? a. B b. C c. D d. K ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 400 BLM: Remember 81. Which of the following is correct for plasmin? a. It disposes of fibrin. b. It inhibits red blood cell production. c. It is a cofactor in blood clotting. d. It stimulates fibrin production. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 399 BLM: Remember 82. Which statement is correct with regards to white blood cells? a. The granular leukocytes are more numerous than the agranular leukocytes per cubic millimetre. b. Eosinophilia frequently accompanies bacterial infections. c. Neutrophils are the least numerous of the leukocytes per cubic millimetre. d. Lymphocyte is a granulocyte. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 392 BLM: Higher Order 83. Which statement regarding blood cells is correct? a. All blood cells originate in red bone marrow. b. Red bone marrow is the primary source of all blood cells except mast cells and macrophages. c. Most types of leukocytes appear in equal amounts in the blood. d. Erythrocytes are produced in red marrow while leukocytes are produced primarily in lymph nodes. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 392 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 9: The Blood 84. Which statement is correct for red blood cells? a. They carry oxygen. b. They participate in the clotting of blood. c. They defend the body against foreign substances. d. They have a nucleus. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 385 BLM: Higher Order 85. Which of the following is FALSE for blood doping? a. Blood doping is a technique used to temporarily increase the O2–carrying capacity of the blood. b. Blood doping is based on illicitly boosting the number of red blood cells in the circulatory system. c. In blood doping, RBCs can be concentrated, frozen, and stored for months without damage. d. The new form of blood doping involving the hormone EPO is free of health hazards. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 387 BLM: Higher Order TRUE/FALSE 1. If the haematocrit is 47, this means that 47 percent of the whole blood consists of plasma. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. If the haematocrit is 42 percent, this means that 58 percent of the whole blood comprises plasma. ANS: T PTS: 1 3. Per cubic millimetre, white blood cells are more numerous than red blood cells. ANS: F PTS: 1 4. The plasma is about 50 percent water. ANS: F PTS: 1 5. Plasma proteins are not normally used as metabolic fuels. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. Antibodies are gamma globulins produced by B lymphocytes. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. Many of the clotting factors are alpha or beta globulins. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood 8. All of the constituents present in the plasma are freely diffusible across the capillary walls. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. Plasma albumins help regulate the blood’s osmotic pressure. ANS: T PTS: 1 10. The plasma comprises mostly water. ANS: T PTS: 1 11. Fibrinogen is the insoluble clot-forming protein. ANS: F PTS: 1 12. The bone marrow is the major site for the formation of most blood cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 13. Haemoglobin transports carbon dioxide and oxygen. ANS: T PTS: 1 14. Haemoglobin is found within the nuclei of erythrocytes. ANS: F PTS: 1 15. Carbonic anhydrase is necessary for nitrogen transport. ANS: F PTS: 1 16. Erythropoietin stimulates erythropoiesis by the liver. ANS: F PTS: 1 17. Reticulocytes are produced from erythrocytes. ANS: F PTS: 1 18. Anaemia is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is increased. ANS: F PTS: 1 19. A deficiency of folic acid can produce anaemia. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood 20. Polycythemia often occurs in those who live at high altitudes. ANS: T PTS: 1 21. Anaemia refers to a reduction in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. ANS: T PTS: 1 22. Aplastic anaemia is due to intrinsic factor deficiency. ANS: F PTS: 1 23. Pernicious anaemia occurs when the bone marrow is destroyed by drugs or radiation. ANS: F PTS: 1 24. The haematocrit is lower than normal in anaemia. ANS: T PTS: 1 25. Polycythemia can occur in association with chronic lung disease. ANS: T PTS: 1 26. The haemolysis of red blood cells means that they rupture. ANS: T PTS: 1 27. Polycythemia increases the viscosity of the blood, thus increasing the total peripheral resistance. ANS: T PTS: 1 28. The rate of erythropoiesis normally increases in a person adjusting to higher altitudes. ANS: T PTS: 1 29. All types of white blood cells can be produced in the bone marrow as well as in lymphoid organs, such as the lymph nodes and tonsils. ANS: F PTS: 1 30. Leukocytes lack haemoglobin. ANS: T PTS: 1 31. Antibodies are produced by both B and T lymphocytes. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood 32. The lymphocyte is a granulocyte. ANS: F PTS: 1 33. The granular leukocytes are more numerous than the agranular leukocytes per cubic millimetre. ANS: T PTS: 1 34. Neutrophilia frequently accompanies bacterial infections. ANS: T PTS: 1 35. Basophils are the least numerous of the leukocytes per cubic millimetre. ANS: T PTS: 1 36. Platelets are important in the process of haemostasis. ANS: T PTS: 1 37. Leukocytes are formed from megakaryocytes. ANS: F PTS: 1 38. Specific hormones direct the differentiation and proliferation of the various types of white blood cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 39. Granulocyte colony–stimulating factor stimulates the replication and release of neutrophils from the bone marrow. ANS: T PTS: 1 40. Thrombopoietin increases the number of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. ANS: T PTS: 1 41. The first step in haemostasis is the formation of a blood clot. ANS: F PTS: 1 42. Fibrin forms the meshwork of the clot. ANS: T PTS: 1 43. Platelets adhere to exposed collagen, forming a plug at the site of a vessel defect. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood 44. Platelet plugs do not excessively grow because of plasmin release by normal endothelial cells. ANS: F PTS: 1 45. Serum is identical in composition to plasma; that is, both of them contain all of the components of blood except for the blood cells. ANS: F PTS: 1 46. Being a cell fragment, a platelet lacks a nucleus and organelles and does not have any synthetic ability. ANS: F PTS: 1 47. Haemostatic mechanisms are effective for completely arresting bleeding from small vessels, but rupture of medium to large vessels requires external intervention to stop bleeding. ANS: T PTS: 1 48. Serum is not identical to plasma. ANS: T PTS: 1 49. The intrinsic clotting pathway stops blood in an injured vessel, whereas the extrinsic pathway clots blood that has escaped into the tissues. ANS: T PTS: 1 50. Clot formation is a temporary measure to halt blood loss from an injured vessel until the more powerful platelet plug can be formed. ANS: F PTS: 1 51. A thrombus is a clot floating in the circulation. ANS: F PTS: 1 52. K is a required clotting factor. ANS: T PTS: 1 53. Potential decreases with age. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood COMPLETION 1. The percentage of whole blood occupied by erythrocytes, known as the ____________________, is normally ____________________ (greater than, less than) the plasma volume. ANS: haematocrit, less than PTS: 1 2. The three types of cellular elements in the blood are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. ANS: -erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets -red blood cells, white blood cells, thrombocytes -leukocytes, platelets, erythrocytes -white blood cells, thrombocytes, red blood cells -platelets, erthrocytes, leukocytes, -thrombocytes, red blood cells, white c blood ells -erythrocytes, platelets, leukocytes, -red blood cells, thrombocytes, white blood cells, -leukocytes, erythrocytes, platelets, -white blood cells, red blood cells, thrombocytes -platelets, leukocytes, erthrocytes -thrombocytes, white blood cells, red blood cells PTS: 1 3. By far the most abundant of the cellular elements in the blood are the ____________________. ANS: -erythrocytes -red blood cells PTS: 1 4. Heme in haemoglobin contains four ____________________-containing groups. ANS: iron PTS: 1 5. Erythrocytes contain the enzyme ____________________, which catalyzes the conversion of metabolically produced CO2 into HCO3–. ANS: carbonic anhydrase PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood 6. Most of the old erythrocytes are removed from the circulation as they rupture passing through the narrow capillaries of the ____________________. ANS: spleen PTS: 1 7. The hormone erythropoietin is produced by the ____________________. ANS: kidney PTS: 1 8. Red blood cell production by the ____________________ is stimulated by the hormone ____________________, which is secreted from the kidney into the blood in response to ____________________. ANS: bone marrow, erythropoietin, reduced O152. PTS: 1 9. Undifferentiated ____________________ reside in the bone marrow, where they continuously divide and differentiate to give rise to each of the types of blood cells. ANS: pluripotential stem cells PTS: 1 10. ____________________ anaemia results from the failure of the bone marrow to produce sufficient numbers of red blood cells. ANS: Aplastic PTS: 1 11. involves a cascade of ____________________ activation. ANS: clotting factor PTS: 1 12. ____________________ are immature circulating erythrocytes that contain residual ribosomes and organelle remnants that have not yet been extruded. ANS: Reticulocytes PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood 13. Pathogens are microorganisms that cause ____________________. ANS: disease PTS: 1 14. The three major steps in haemostasis are ____________________, __________________________, and ________________________. ANS: vascular spasm, formation of a platelet plug, blood coagulation -vascular spasm, blood coagulation, formation of a platelet plug, -formation of a platelet plug, blood coagulation, vascular spasm, -formation of a platelet plug, vascular spasm, blood coagulation -blood coagulation, formation of a platelet plug, vascular spasm -blood coagulation, vascular spasm, formation of a platelet plug PTS: 1 15. The precursor for plasmin is ____________________. ANS: plasminogen PTS: 1 16. ____________________ prevents platelets from aggregation. ANS: Prostacyclin PTS: 1 17. The enzyme that activates fibrinogen is ____________________. ANS: thrombin PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood MATCHING Match these blood disorders with their characteristics by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. aplastic anaemia b. pernicious anaemia c. haemolytic anaemia d. haemorrhagic anaemia e. polycythemia f. leukemia g. neutrophilia h. sickle cell anaemia 1. lack of red blood cell production due to poisoning of the bone marrow 2. lack of intrinsic factor 3. premature rupture of erythrocytes 4. vitamin B12 is not absorbed 5. associated with prolonged exposure to low oxygen, such as at high altitude or with chronic lung disease 6. associated with sickle cell anaemia 7. frequently associated with bacterial infections 8. associated with malaria 9. associated with acute loss of blood 10. uncontrolled production of white blood cells 11. caused by a mutated haemoglobin 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 3. ANS: C PTS: 1 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 5. ANS: E PTS: 1 6. ANS: C PTS: 1 7. ANS: G PTS: 1 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 9. ANS: D PTS: 1 10. ANS: F PTS: 1 11. ANS: H PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood Match the leukocytes with the correct characteristic by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. basophils d. monocytes e. lymphocytes 12. the most abundant type of granulocyte 13. become tissue macrophages 14. produce antibodies 15. the first phagocytes to arrive at site of bacterial invasion 16. release histamine and heparin 17. destroy parasitic worms 18. participate in cell-mediated immune responses 19. the most abundant type of agranulocyte 20. similar to mast cells 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 13. ANS: D PTS: 1 14. ANS: E PTS: 1 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 16. ANS: C PTS: 1 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 18. ANS: E PTS: 1 19. ANS: E PTS: 1 20. ANS: D PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood Match the haemostasis step with the correct characteristic by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. converts fibrinogen to fibrin b. when platelets come into contact with this substance in an injured vessel wall, it causes them to adhere and aggregate c. when activated, this substance digests the fibrin threads, causing dissolution of the clot d. substance released by the platelet plug that causes more platelets to aggregate e. first step in haemostasis f. forms the meshwork of the clot g. a plasma protein activated by factor X h. second step in haemostasis i. released from injured tissues; activates extrinsic clotting pathway j. third step in haemostasis 21. formation of a platelet plug 22. thromboplastin 23. thrombin 24. prothrombin 25. fibrin 26. blood coagulation 27. collagen 28. thromboxane A2 29. plasminogen 30. vascular spasm 21. ANS: H PTS: 1 22. ANS: I PTS: 1 23. ANS: A PTS: 1 24. ANS: G PTS: 1 25. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. ANS: J PTS: 1 27. ANS: B PTS: 1 28. ANS: D PTS: 1 29. ANS: C PTS: 1 30. ANS: E PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood Match the blood cell formation term with the correct characteristic by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. thrombopoietin b. erythropoietin c. colony-stimulating factor d. myeloid stem cell e. pluripotent stem cell 31. gives rise to all leukocytes except lymphocytes 32. produced in the liver 33. activates megakaryocytes 34. stimulates granulocyte production 35. gives rise to all blood cellular elements 36. levels increase with lower oxygen availability 31. ANS: D PTS: 1 32. ANS: B PTS: 1 33. ANS: A PTS: 1 34. ANS: C PTS: 1 35. ANS: E PTS: 1 36. ANS: B PTS: 1 ESSAY 1. Detail the life cycle of an erythrocyte, including the control of erythrocyte production. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. What are the different types and functions of plasma proteins? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. What are the different kinds of white blood cells and how are they produced? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 9: The Blood 4. Describe haemostasis. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. What factors influence the rate of erythrocyte production? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of white blood cells secretes chemicals that destroy parasitic worms? a. basophil b. eosinophil c. lymphocyte d. monocyte ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 406 BLM: Remember 2. Which statement is correct for viruses? a. They are single-celled microorganisms. b. They consist only of nucleic acids enclosed by a protein coat. c. They are single-celled microorganisms and must invade a host cell in order to carry out metabolism and reproduce. d. They consist only of nucleic acids enclosed by a protein coat and must invade a host cell in order to carry out metabolism and reproduce. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 406 BLM: Remember 3. Which of the following is NOT a means by which viruses can lead to cellular damages or death? a. release by the virus of enzymes or toxins that physically injure or disrupt affected cells b. depletion of essential cellular components by the virus c. cellular production of substances toxic to the cell under the dictatorship of the virus d. incorporation of the virus into the cell so that the body’s own defence mechanisms no longer recognize the cell as part of “normal self” and destroy it ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 406 BLM: Remember 4. Which statement is correct for leukocytes? a. They are responsible for the body’s various immune defence strategies. b. They spend most of their time circulating in the blood. c. They are all produced in the lymph nodes. d. They are responsible for the body’s various immune defence strategies and spend most of their time circulating in the blood. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 406 BLM: Remember 5. Which of the following is/are lymphoid tissue/s? a. lymph nodes b. spleen c. liver d. both lymph nodes and spleen ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 406 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences 6. Which of the following is NOT attributable to the immune defence system? a. It defends against pathogenic microorganisms. b. It converts foreign chemicals into compounds that can be more readily eliminated in the urine. c. It removes worn-out cells and tissue debris. d. It identifies and destroys abnormal or mutant cells. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 405 BLM: Remember 7. Which of the following is NOT part of the inflammatory response? a. localized vasodilation b. migration of neutrophils and macrophages to the site of injury c. kinin activation d. interferon inhibition of viral replication ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 408 BLM: Remember 8. Which of the following is correct for interferon? a. It is a family of proteins that defends against viruses. b. It is a natural killer cell. c. It is a specific bacterial surface receptor. d. It is a specialized type of white blood cell. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 412 BLM: Higher Order 9. Which of the following is NOT accomplished by a chemical released from activated phagocytes? a. decreasing plasma iron so that it is unavailable for bacterial multiplication b. stimulating histamine release from mast cells c. stimulating the synthesis of viral-blocking enzymes d. inducing the development of fever ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 411 BLM: Higher Order 10. Which of the following is NOT a component of innate immunity? a. Inflammation b. antibody production c. Interferon d. natural killer cells ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 408 BLM: Remember 11. Which occurrence is NOT characteristic of the inflammation response? a. increased capillary permeability b. increased macrophage activity c. localized vasodilation d. decreased phagocytic activity ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 408 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences 12. Which type of cells do natural killer cells destroy? a. antibody-marked cells b. bacteria and virus-infected cells c. bacteria and cancerous cells d. cancerous cells and virus-infected cells ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 413 BLM: Remember 13. Which of the following is NOT attributable to complement activity? a. acting as opsonins b. walling off the inflamed area c. serving as chemotaxins d. stimulating the release of histamine ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 414 BLM: Remember 14. What do mast cells release that brings about localized vasodilation in an inflamed area? a. Histamine b. Opsonins c. interleukin 1 d. leukocyte mediator ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 414 BLM: Remember 15. What must be available in high concentrations for bacterial multiplication to occur? a. Potassium b. Calcium c. Iron d. Glucose ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 411 BLM: Remember 16. Which of the following concerning neutrophils is INCORRECT? a. Nuetrophils are produced only in lymph nodes. b. Nuetrophils can perform phagocytosis. c. Nuetrophils can perform diapedesis. d. Nuetrophils can exhibit amoeboid movement. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 408 BLM: Higher Order 17. By which process do neutrophils engulf foreign particles? a. Opsonization b. Diapedesis c. Chemotaxis d. Phagocytosis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 406 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences 18. Which of the following is correct for monocytes? a. They are the first phagocytes to exit the blood and arrive at an injured or invaded area. b. They swell and mature into macrophages after exiting the blood. c. They act as opsonins. d. They may differentiate into plasma cells. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 409 BLM: Remember 19. Which statement is correct for opsonins? a. They enhance phagocytosis by linking the foreign cell to a phagocytic cell. b. They are secreted by phagocytes. c. They include antibodies and one of the activated proteins of the complement system. d. They both enhance phagocytosis by linking the foreign cell to a phagocytic cell and include antibodies and one of the activated proteins of the complement system. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 410 BLM: Remember 20. Which statement is correct for chemotaxins? a. They are specialized antibodies. b. They attract migrating phagocytic cells. c. They destroy histamine and other vasodilators. d. They engulf foreign particles. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 410 BLM: Higher Order 21. Which of the following is NOT an outcome of complement activation? a. promotion of localized vasodilation b. formation of a membrane-attack complex c. activation of kinins d. stimulation of interferon production ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 414 BLM: Remember 22. Which statement concerning endogenous pyrogen is INCORRECT? a. It is an acute-phase protein produced by the liver. b. It is secreted by phagocytes at a site of inflammation. c. It induces the development of fever. d. It is the same as or closely related to leukocyte endogenous mediator and interleukin 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 411 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences 23. Which statement is correct for diapedesis? a. Diapedesis refers to the process of white blood cells engulfing and destroying invading organisms. b. Diapedesis refers to the process of leukocytes squeezing through pores of the capillary wall into the surrounding interstitial fluid. c. Diapedesis refers to the attraction of white blood cells to areas of injury, inflammation, and bacterial invasion. d. Diapedesis is a feature exhibited by platelets. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 410 BLM: Remember 24. Which of the following is the INCORRECT statement about glucocorticoids? a. Cortisol is a glucocorticoid. b. Glucocorticoids are used to treat undesirable immune responses. c. Glucocorticoids stimulate lymphocyte production. d. Glucocorticoids reduce the body’s ability to resist infection. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 412 BLM: Remember 25. Which statement is correct for interferon? a. It is released from bacteria-infected cells. b. It triggers the production of viral-blocking enzymes by cells that have not yet been invaded by viruses. c. It directly breaks down viral messenger RNA and inhibits protein synthesis, both of which are essential for viral replication. d. Its secretion is decreased during exercise. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 412 BLM: Remember 26. Which of the following is NOT accomplished by interferon? a. It directly breaks down viral messenger RNA and inhibits protein synthesis, both of which are essential for viral replication. b. It enhances macrophage phagocytic activity. c. It stimulates antibody production. d. It stimulates the activity of natural killer cells and cytotoxic T cells. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 413 BLM: Remember 27. Which of the following is correct for interferon? a. It forms a membrane-attack complex. b. It causes lysis of invading microbes. c. It nonspecifically defends against viruses. d. It stimulates histamine release from mast cells. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 412 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences 28. Which molecules can invoke immunogenicity? a. Compliments b. Antibodies c. Antigens d. Haptens ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 415 BLM: Remember 29. What is the primary purpose of the vascular changes in an invaded or injured area? a. They produce swelling, redness, heat, and pain. b. They bring to the affected area phagocytes and plasma proteins that defend against the offending agent. c. They produce pus. d. They exert an anti-inflammatory effect to protect against damage by potentially overreactive defence mechanisms. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 409 BLM: Higher Order 30. Which of the following is NOT attributable to components of the complement system? a. formation of a membrane-attack complex b. walling off of the inflamed area c. serving as chemotaxins d. acting as opsonins ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 414 BLM: Remember 31. Which statement is correct for T lymphocytes? a. They produce thymosin. b. They secrete antibodies. c. They are converted into plasma cells. d. They mature and differentiate within the thymus gland. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 414 BLM: Remember 32. Which type of leukocyte has a derivative known as the plasma cell? a. Neutrophil b. B lymphocyte c. T lymphocyte d. Macrophage ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 415 BLM: Remember 33. Which statement is correct for B lymphocytes? a. They are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity. b. They are activated by thymosin. c. They mature and differentiate into macrophages. d. They bind with foreign antigen in association with self-antigen. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 415 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences 34. What is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood? a. IgA b. IgM c. IgE d. IgG ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 416 BLM: Remember 35. Which of the following is correct for plasma cells? a. They are derived from T cells. b. They have an expanded rough endoplasmic reticulum. c. They do not secrete antibodies but remain dormant and expand the clone specific for the invading antigen. d. They are derived from T cells and have an expanded rough endoplasmic reticulum. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 415 BLM: Higher Order 36. What is a large, complex molecule that triggers a specific immune response against itself when it gains entry into the body? a. interferon b. antigen c. complement d. opsonin ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 415 BLM: Remember 37. The first human vaccination developed by Jenner _______________________ a. was for smallpox and used inoculum from cows. b. was for anthrax. c. used inoculum from humans. d. used inoculum from sheep. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 422 BLM: Remember 38. Passive immunity is NOT accomplished by transfer of which of the following? a. IgA. b. Interferon c. IgG. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 423 BLM: Remember 39. Which of the following is NOT accomplished by antibodies? a. neutralization of bacterial toxins b. direct destruction of foreign body cells c. activation of the complement system d. enhancement of phagocytosis ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 416 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences 40. Which of the following regarding IgM immunoglobulin is correct? a. It serves as the B-cell surface receptor for antigen attachment. b. It is found in milk and tears. c. It mediates common allergies such as hay fever, asthma, and hives. d. It is the most abundant antibody produced by plasma cells. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 416 BLM: Remember 41. Which of the following is FALSE of the antigen-binding fragments (Fab) of antibodies? _____________ a. located in the arm tips of the antibody molecule. b. located in the tail portion of the antibody molecule. c. unique for each different antibody so that each antibody can interact only with an antigen that specifically matches it. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 416 BLM: Remember 42. Which of the ABO blood groups has both antibodies A and B? a. A b. AB c. B d. O ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 423 BLM: Remember 43. Which part of the antibody is Y-shaped? a. antigen-binding fragments b. tail portion c. light chains d. arm regions ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 416 BLM: Remember 44. Which of the following is NOT a way by which antibodies exert their protective influence? a. neutralization b. agglutination c. direct destruction of foreign organisms d. activation of the complement system ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 416 BLM: Higher Order 45. Which statement is correct for active immunity? a. It is self-generated upon exposure to antigen. b. It can be produced only as a result of a person actually having the disease. c. It involves administration of preformed antibodies. d. It is acquired in the newborn as a result of the transfer of antibodies across the placenta during intrauterine development. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 422 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences 46. Which of the following is correct for Type O blood? a. It has B red blood cell surface antigens. b. It contains both anti-A antibodies. c. It can receive any ABO blood type without a transfusion reaction involving this blood group system. d. It does not have any A or B red blood cell surface antigens and contains both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 423 BLM: Remember 47. Erythroblastosis fetalis can develop between a mother and fetus under which circumstances?. a. Rh negative, Rh negative. b. Rh neutral, Rh negative. c. Rh negative, Rh positive. d. Rh positive, Rh negative. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 424 BLM: Remember 48. Which of the following does NOT apply to macrophages? a. They participate in inflammation. b. They process and present antigen to lymphocytes. c. They secrete antibodies. d. They participate in immune surveillance against cancer. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 408| 435 BLM: Higher Order 49. Which of the following is NOT secreted by helper T cells? a. interleukin 2 b. Perforin c. macrophage-migration inhibition factor d. B-cell growth factor ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 430 BLM: Remember 50. What type of T cells release perforin? a. Cytotoxic b. Helper c. Suppressor d. Regulatory ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 436 BLM: Remember 51. What type of immune defence cell is selectively invaded by the AIDS virus? a. cytotoxic T cells b. helper T cells c. suppressor T cells d. Macrophages ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 428 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences 52. Which of the following is correct for cytotoxic T cells? a. They can cause death of an infected host cell by releasing granzymes. b. They secrete B-cell growth factor and T-cell growth factor. c. They confer greater phagocytic properties on macrophages, converting them into angry macrophages. d. They bind with class II MHC glycoproteins. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 428 BLM: Remember 53. Lymphocytes respond only to antigens that have been processed and presented to them by which of the following? a. neutrophils. b. eosinophils. c. macrophages. d. helper T cells. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 242 BLM: Higher Order 54. Which statement is INCORRECT for self-antigens? a. Self-antigens are plasma membrane-bound glycoproteins. b. Self-antigens are coded for by the major histocompatibility complex. c. Self-antigens are present only on the surface of leukocytes. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 433 BLM: Remember 55. Which of the following is INCORRECT for T cells? a. They bind with free extracellular antigen. b. They bind with HLA self-antigens only when they are in association with a foreign antigen. c. They are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 433 BLM: Remember 56. Which statement regarding T cells is INCORRECT? a. Cytotoxic T cells release chemicals that destroy targeted cells. b. Helper T cells enhance the activity of other T cells and B cells. c. Suppressor T cells are believed to play an important role in tolerance to self-antigens. d. Helper T cells can combine only with host cells bearing both foreign antigen and class I MHC-encoded self-antigens on their surface. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 426 BLM: Higher Order 57. Which chemical induces prolonged contraction of smooth muscle during allergic reactions? a. basophil chemotactic factor b. eosinophil chemotactic factor c. Histamine d. SRS-A ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 438 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences 58. Which cells do NOT play a direct role in immune surveillance against cancer? a. B cells b. natural killer cells c. Macrophages d. cytotoxic T cells ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 436 BLM: Remember 59. What is NOT secreted by helper T cells? a. B-cell growth factor b. T-cell growth factor c. interleukin 1 d. macrophage migration inhibition factor ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 411 BLM: Higher Order 60. With what does the body fail to recognize and tolerate particular self-antigens? a. delayed hypersensitivity b. autoimmune disease c. immune-complex disease d. immediate hypersensitivity ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 432 BLM: Remember 61. Which statement concerning cancer cells is INCORRECT? a. Cancer cells arise only when multiple independent mutations occur within the same cell. b. Cancer cells lack the ability to perform the specialized functions of the normal cell type from which they mutated. c. The body has no means by which to defend against cancer cells. d. Cancer cells usually do not adhere well to neighbouring cells, so some of them may break away from the parent tumour. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 435 BLM: Higher Order 62. Which of the following does NOT help defend against cancer? a. Interferon b. Macrophages c. natural killer cells d. natural antibodies ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 435 BLM: Higher Order 63. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of autoimmune disease? a. reduction in suppressor T cell activity b. prolonged treatment with anti-inflammatory drugs c. exposure of normally inaccessible self-antigens d. exposure of the immune system to a foreign antigen almost identical structurally to a self-antigen ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 432 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 10: Body Defences 64. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of immediate hypersensitivity? a. It is mediated by T cells. b. It involves IgE antibodies. c. It occurs within 20 minutes of exposure to the allergen. d. It usually involves allergic responses to inhaled or ingested allergens. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 437 BLM: Higher Order 65. Which statement regarding the epidermis is INCORRECT? a. It has an outermost keratinized layer that is tough, airtight, and fairly waterproof. b. It contains melanocytes, keratinocytes, Langerhans cells, Granstein cells, and transient T lymphocytes. c. It has a richly vascularized inner layer. d. It contains Merkel cells. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 440 BLM: Higher Order 66. Which of the following is NOT found in the epidermis? a. blood vessels whose calibre can be adjusted as part of the temperature regulatory mechanisms b. Keratinocytes c. Melanocytes d. Langerhans cells ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 440 BLM: Higher Order 67. Which of the following is INCORRECT for keratinocytes? a. They form the outer protective layer of the skin b. They secrete interleukin 1 c. They present antigen to helper T cells ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 441 BLM: Higher Order 68. Which cell type in the epidermis produces a pigment that absorbs ultraviolet light? a. keratinocyte b. melanocyte c. Langerhans cell d. Granstein cell ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 441 BLM: Remember 69. Which of the following does NOT contribute to defence of the respiratory system? a. coughs and sneezes b. cilia-propelled mucus escalator c. alveolar macrophages d. normal microbial population of the lungs ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 442 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences 70. Which of the following statements is true of sweat glands, which are distributed over most of the body? a. are most common in the axilla. b. are the same as sebaceous glands that produce sebum. c. respond to elevated body temperature. d. are usually attached to hair follicles. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 441 BLM: Higher Order 71. Which statement is correct for natural killer (NK) cells? a. They are large, specialized monocytes. b. They ingest bacteria organisms. c. They nonspecifically destroy virus-infected cells d. They constitute 50–70% of all monocytes in the blood. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 408 BLM: Remember 72. Which statement is correct? a. T cells recognize only antigenic fragments that are processed and presented in specific ways. b. Exogenous antigens trigger production of abnormal MHC complexes. c. Regulatory T cells enhance both innate and adaptive immune responses. d. Helper T cells are killer cells. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 415 BLM: Higher Order 73. If a type B negative patient is accidentally given type A positive blood, what will happen? a. Nothing will happen because this is a safe match. b. The patient’s antibodies will begin to attack the donated erythrocytes. c. The patient’s antigens will begin to attack the donated erythrocytes. d. The donor’s antigens will begin to attack the patient’s antibodies. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 423 BLM: Higher Order 74. Which statement is correct for autoimmune diseases? a. They produce large numbers of abnormal leukocytes. b. They are more common in men than in women. c. They are caused by the lack of recognition of self-antigen by the immune system. d. They are associated with overexposure to self antigens. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 432 BLM: RememberChapter 10: Body Defences TRUE/FALSE 1. Pathogenic bacteria induce tissue damage and produce disease by invading host cells and taking over the cellular biochemical facilities for their own purposes. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. A host cell is the body cell of an infected individual. ANS: T PTS: 1 3. Immune surveillance refers to the body’s ability to resist or eliminate potentially harmful foreign invaders. ANS: F PTS: 1 4. Peyer’s patches are located in the kidney. ANS: F PTS: 1 5. The spleen clears the lymph that passes through it of bacteria and other foreign matter. ANS: F PTS: 1 6. Vasodilation of the blood vessels supplying a tissue increases the flow of blood to that area. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. Specific immune responses are selectively targeted against particular foreign material to which the body has previously been exposed. ANS: T PTS: 1 8. Diapedesis is the means by which a leukocyte reproduces. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. Neutrophils are the first phagocytes to leave the blood and arrive at a site of bacterial invasion or tissue damage. ANS: T PTS: 1 10. Neutrophils swell and mature into macrophages after they enter the tissues. ANS: F PTS: 1 11. Lactoferrin is a protein that binds with iron. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 12. Chemotaxis refers to the ability of leukocytes to squeeze through small capillary pores. ANS: F PTS: 1 13. Fever results from neurological activity in the cerebellum. ANS: F PTS: 1 14. Endogenous pyrogens released by macrophages cause the hypothalamus to elevate body temperature during times of infection. ANS: T PTS: 1 15. Granulopoiesis includes the synthesis and release of neutrophils. ANS: T PTS: 1 16. Diapedesis refers to the chemical attraction of phagocytes to areas of injury, inflammation, or bacterial invasion. ANS: F PTS: 1 17. A granuloma is a more or less permanently walled-off structure within which indestructible offending material is imprisoned. ANS: T PTS: 1 18. Cancer cells may evade the immune system by inducing committed T cells into apoptosis. ANS: T PTS: 1 19. Phagocytes can destroy foreign microbes only after they have engulfed these invaders. ANS: F PTS: 1 20. Bacteria have been genetically engineered to produce interferon. ANS: T PTS: 1 21. Endogenous pyrogen (EP), leukocyte endogenous mediator (LEM), and interleukin 1 (IL-1) are all believed to be identical or closely related chemical mediators. ANS: T PTS: 1 22. The only means by which macrophages can defend against microbial invaders is phagocytosis. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 23. Viral-blocking enzymes induced by interferon are activated only upon viral invasion of the cell. ANS: T PTS: 1 24. Interferon is released only from phagocytic cells that have been invaded by viruses. ANS: F PTS: 1 25. Thymosin is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. Haptens are the light chains produced for antibody synthesis. ANS: F PTS: 1 27. IgE antibodies are common mediators for allergic reactions. ANS: T PTS: 1 28. Interferon, natural killer cells, and cytotoxic T cells all exert antiviral and anticancer effects. ANS: T PTS: 1 29. The membrane-attack complex is formed by the five final activated components of the complement system. ANS: T PTS: 1 30. During their agglutination, red blood cells clump together. ANS: T PTS: 1 31. Interferon is secreted by lymphoid organs. ANS: F PTS: 1 32. The clonal selection theory explains why the capacity for diverse lymphocyte production is limited. ANS: F PTS: 1 33. Antibodies are not able to directly destroy invading organisms. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 34. The arm regions of an antibody determine with what antigen the antibody can bind, whereas the tail portion determines the destiny of the antibody once it is bound. ANS: T PTS: 1 35. When an antigen gains entry to the body, it stimulates all of the B cells to produce antibodies specific against it. ANS: F PTS: 1 36. The secondary immune response can be longer and more powerful than the primary immune response. ANS: T PTS: 1 37. The primary response to microbial invasion is mediated by memory cells. ANS: F PTS: 1 38. The formation of memory cells against a particular disease-causing microorganism can occur only as a result of the person actually having the disease. ANS: F PTS: 1 39. Type AB blood has both A and B antigens and no anti-A or anti-B antibodies. ANS: T PTS: 1 40. Type A blood has the anti-A antibody. ANS: F PTS: 1 41. Type B blood has the anti-B antibody. ANS: F PTS: 1 42. Type AB blood can be donated to anyone because it lacks both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. ANS: F PTS: 1 43. People with type A blood produce anti-B antibodies without ever being exposed to type B blood, but Rh-negative individuals produce anti-Rh antibodies only if they are exposed to Rh-positive blood. ANS: T PTS: 1 44. Only Rh-negative individuals can produce anti-Rh antibodies. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 45. One of the most lethal consequences of mismatched blood transfusions is acute kidney failure caused by blockage of urine-forming structures by haemoglobin precipitation. ANS: T PTS: 1 46. Cytotoxic T cells are one of several kinds of regulatory T cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 47. HLA antigens are found only on the surface of leukocytes. ANS: F PTS: 1 48. Virus-infected cells can self-destruct by apotosis. ANS: T PTS: 1 49. T cells typically bind with HLA self-antigens only when they are in association with foreign antigen. ANS: T PTS: 1 50. B cells bind with HLA self-antigens. ANS: F PTS: 1 51. Histamine is primarily responsible for causing the bronchial constriction associated with asthma. ANS: F PTS: 1 52. Eosinophils are attracted to sites involved with delayed allergic reactions. ANS: F PTS: 1 53. A given allergen can activate a B cell or T cell. ANS: T PTS: 1 54. B lymphocytes are involved with immediate hypersensitivity reactions, whereas T lymphocytes are involved with delayed hypersensitivity reactions. ANS: T PTS: 1 55. The tremendous diversity of antibodies is made possible by genetic recombination coupled with somatic mutation during lymphocyte development. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 56. A single mutation induced by a carcinogen is usually sufficient to convert a normal cell into a cancer cell. ANS: F PTS: 1 57. Hives result from an allergy-induced histamine release. ANS: T PTS: 1 58. The immune system functions entirely independently of the body’s two major control systems: the nervous and endocrine systems. ANS: F PTS: 1 59. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by IgE secreted by B cells, whereas delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by T cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 60. Hypersensitivity is a B cell-mediated response. ANS: F PTS: 1 61. Antihistamines are effective in combating the allergic symptoms induced by a slow-reactive substance of anaphylaxis. ANS: F PTS: 1 62. Hair and nails are both special keratinized products. ANS: T PTS: 1 63. Most fat cells in the body are located in the dermis. ANS: F PTS: 1 64. Severe burns of the skin can result in life-threatening circulatory disturbances. ANS: T PTS: 1 65. Adipose tissue is located within the hypodermis. ANS: T PTS: 1 66. Saliva is destructive to bacteria because it is highly acidic. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 67. The large intestine’s normal microbial population helps defend against infection within the lower intestine. ANS: T PTS: 1 68. Debris trapped on the sticky mucus lining the respiratory airways is primarily cleared away by the alveolar macrophages. ANS: F PTS: 1 69. A sneeze expels irritant material mainly from the esophagus. ANS: F PTS: 1 COMPLETION 1. ____________________ refers to the body’s ability to resist or eliminate potentially harmful foreign materials or abnormal cells. ANS: Immunity PTS: 1 2. A(n) ____________________ is a disease-producing organism. ANS: pathogen PTS: 1 3. ____________________ refer collectively to the tissues that store, produce, or process lymphocytes. ANS: Lymphoid tissues PTS: 1 4. ____________________ in an infected wound is a collection of phagocytic cells, dead tissue liquefied by enzymes released from the phagocytic cells, and bacteria. ANS: Pus PTS: 1 5. Adhesion of blood-borne leukocytes to the endothelial lining is known as ____________________. ANS: margination PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 6. The process of leukocytes squeezing through the capillary pores to exit the vasculature is known as ____________________. ANS: diapedesis PTS: 1 7. ____________________ ions switch on the contractile apparatus needed for the crawling-like motion of a leukocyte. ANS: Calcium PTS: 1 8. ____________________ refers to the chemical attraction of leukocytes to the site of invasion. ANS: Chemotaxis PTS: 1 9. A(n) ____________________ is a walled-off structure within which indestructible offending material is imprisoned. ANS: granuloma PTS: 1 10. A pyrogen induces the development of ____________________. ANS: fever PTS: 1 11. It’s thought that fever may be beneficial to fighting an infection because it reduces the availability of ____________________, thus reducing bacterial growth. ANS: iron PTS: 1 12. ____________________ is released from virally invaded cells and, transiently, nonselectively inhibits multiplication of viruses in other cells. ANS: Interferon PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 13. The ____________________ of the complement system imbeds itself in the microbial membrane surface, thereby bringing about lysis of the victim cell. ANS: membrane-attack complex PTS: 1 14. The inflammatory agent ____________________ is released by mast cells. ANS: mast cells PTS: 1 15. ____________________ are lymphocyte-like cells that nonspecifically destroy virus-infected cells and tumour cells. ANS: Natural killer cells PTS: 1 16. The T lymphocyte lineage undergoes maturational processing and differentiation in the ____________________. ANS: thymus PTS: 1 17. In tissue repair, nerve and muscle tissue are replaced mainly by ____________________ tissue. ANS: scar PTS: 1 18. According to the ____________________ theory, when an antigen enters the body, it activates the particular clone of B cells that bear receptors on their surface uniquely specific for that antigen. ANS: clonal selection PTS: 1 19. Most of the progeny of an activated B-cell clone differentiate into ____________________, which produce antibodies, and ____________________, which remain dormant and expand the specific clone. ANS: plasma cells, memory cells PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 20. Humoural immunity involves the production of ____________________ by B lymphocyte derivatives. ANS: antibodies PTS: 1 21. A(n) ____________________ is a large complex molecule that triggers an immune response against itself. ANS: antigen PTS: 1 22. A(n) ____________________ is a low-molecular-weight molecule that becomes antigenic by attaching to body proteins. ANS: hapten PTS: 1 23. Antibody proteins consist of two heavy and ____________________ light polypeptide chains. ANS: two 2 PTS: 1 24. ____________________ cells derived from activated B lymphocytes are specialized for antibody production. ANS: Plasma PTS: 1 25. ____________________ is the process by which a substance separates from a solution. ANS: Precipitation PTS: 1 26. Clumping of foreign cells brought about by the formation of antigen-antibody complexes is known as ____________________. ANS: agglutination PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 27. ____________________ cells do not participate in an immune reaction but remain dormant to expand a specific clone. ANS: Memory PTS: 1 28. The ____________________ theory proposes that a diversity of lymphocytes is produced during development, each preprogrammed to synthesize an antibody against only one of an almost limitless variety of antigens. ANS: clonal selection PTS: 1 29. Lymphocytes can recognize and be activated only by antigens that have been processed and presented to them by ____________________. ANS: macrophages PTS: 1 30. B and T cells that are no longer needed undergo ____________________ to ensure that a specific immune response is self-limiting. ANS: apotosis PTS: 1 31. ____________________ immunity is not self-generated compared to active immunity. ANS: Passive PTS: 1 32. The type of immune cells selectively invaded by AIDS virus is the ____________________. ANS: helper T cell PTS: 1 33. ____________________ refers to the phenomenon of the immune system not attacking a person’s own tissues. ANS: Tolerance PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 34. ____________________ are plasma membrane-bound glycoproteins that serve as self-antigens. ANS: Human leukocyte-associated antigens PTS: 1 35. The group of genes that codes for self-antigens is known as the ____________________. ANS: -major histocompatibility complex -MHC PTS: 1 36. A(n) ____________________ is the kind of microorganism that causes AIDS. ANS: virus PTS: 1 37. ____________________ T cells probably protect the body against tolerance. ANS: Suppressor PTS: 1 38. Myasthenia gravis is a(n) ____________________ disease. ANS: autoimmune PTS: 1 39. A carcinogenic factor causes ____________________. ANS: cancer PTS: 1 40. ____________________ against cancer cells involves an interplay among cytotoxic T cells, NK cells, macrophages, and interferon. ANS: Immune surveillance PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 41. ____________________ immunity is conferred by receipt of preformed antibodies. ANS: Passive PTS: 1 42. By ____________________, cancer cells spread to other parts of the body. ANS: metastasis PTS: 1 43. Penicillin is a possible ____________________, provoking hypersensitivity. ANS: allergen PTS: 1 44. A mass of transformed cells that is slow growing, stays put, and does not infiltrate surrounding tissue is known as a(n)____________________ tumour, whereas rapidly growing, invasive masses are called ____________________ tumours or ____________________. The spreading of mutant cells that have broken away from the parent tumour to other body sites is called ____________________. ANS: benign, malignant, cancer, metastasis PTS: 1 45. The ____________________ is the layer of the skin without a direct blood supply. ANS: epidermis PTS: 1 46. The ____________________ is a layer of subcutaneous tissue under the dermis of the skin. ANS: hypodermis PTS: 1 47. ____________________ disease occurs when destructive inflammatory processes “spill over” into normal tissue in the presence of excessive numbers of antigen-antibody complexes. ANS: Immune-complex PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 48. The type of antibodies responsible for inducing allergic manifestations is ____________________. ANS: IgE PTS: 1 49. ____________________ refers to the life-threatening allergic phenomenon characterized by severe hypotension and profound bronchial constriction due to the presence of large amounts of chemical mediators in the blood released from mast cells and basophils in response to a particular allergen. ANS: Anaphylaxis PTS: 1 50. The ____________________ refers to the cilia-propelled upward movement of the respiratory airways’ mucus layer to which inspired particulates are stuck. ANS: mucus escalator PTS: 1 MATCHING Indicate the characteristics that apply to bacteria and viruses by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. pertains to bacteria b. pertains to viruses 1. consist of nucleic acids enclosed by a protein coat 2. self-sustaining, single-celled organisms 3. can induce host cells to produce substances toxic to the cell 4. can secrete enzymes or toxins that are injurious to host cells 5. can transform normal host cells into cancer cells 6. can become incorporated into a host cell such that the body’s defence mechanisms turn against the cell 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 5. ANS: B PTS: 1 6. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences Match the antibody type with the correct characteristic by using the answer code: a. IgM b. IgE c. IgG d. IgA e. IgD 7. the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood 8. found in secretions of digestive, respiratory, and genitourinary systems, and in milk and tears 9. serves as the B-cell surface receptor for antigen attachment 10. a mediator in asthma and hives 11. function is uncertain 7. ANS: C PTS: 1 8. ANS: D PTS: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 10. ANS: B PTS: 1 11. ANS: E PTS: 1 Indicate whether the following characteristics apply to the Fab or Fc region of an antibody by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. applies to the Fab region b. applies to the Fc region 12. located in the “arm” regions of an antibody 13. located in the “tail” region of an antibody 14. highly variable between different antibodies of the same class 15. constant between different antibodies 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 13. ANS: B PTS: 1 14. ANS: A PTS: 1 15. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences Indicate the immune by using the following answer code. a. serum sickness b. immediate hypersensitivity c. acquired immune deficiency syndrome d. delayed hypersensitivity e. immune-complex disease f. autoimmune disease g. severe combined immunodeficiency 16. allergic response mediated by IgE 17. damage of normal cells brought on by formation of antigen-antibody complexes 18. helper T’s destroyed by viral invasion 19. allergic reaction to injection of “borrowed” antibodies that confer passive immunity 20. the immune system fails to recognize and tolerate particular self-antigens 21. hereditary condition in which both B and T cells are lacking 22. allergic response mediated by T cells 16. ANS: B PTS: 1 17. ANS: E PTS: 1 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 19. ANS: A PTS: 1 20. ANS: F PTS: 1 21. ANS: G PTS: 1 22. ANS: D PTS: 1 Match the defence molecule with the correct characteristic by using the following answer code: a. actoferrin b. glucocorticoids c. histamine d. endogenous e. opsonins f. complement g. antibodies h. interferon 23. enhance(s) phagocytosis by linking the foreign cell to a phagocytic cell 24. form(s) a membrane-attack complex 25. released from mast cells and causes localized vasodilation in a region of tissue damage 26. stimulates production of viral-blocking enzymes 27. tightly binds with iron, making it unavailable for use by invading bacteria 28. produced by plasma cells 29. induce(s) the development of fever 30. potent anti-inflammatory drug(s)Chapter 10: Body Defences 23. ANS: E PTS: 1 24. ANS: F PTS: 1 25. ANS: C PTS: 1 26. ANS: H PTS: 1 27. ANS: A PTS: 1 28. ANS: G PTS: 1 29. ANS: D PTS: 1 30. ANS: B PTS: 1 Indicate which type of T cell is being described by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. applies to cytotoxic T cells b. applies to helper T cells c. applies to suppressor T cells d. applies to both helper T and suppressor T cells e. applies to all three types of T cells 31. destroy host cells bearing foreign antigen 32. suppress both B-cell and T-cell activity 33. secrete B-cell growth factor 34. enhance the development of antigen-stimulated B cells into antibody-secreting cells 35. called regulatory T cells 36. rete interleukin 2 37. lease perforin 38. secrete macrophage-migration inhibition factor 39. are attacked by AIDS virus 40. are the most numerous of the T cells 41. serve to limit immune reactions in a check-and-balance relationship with the other lymphocytes 42. are believed to play a role in tolerance 43. recognize class I MHC glycoproteins 44. recognize class II MHC glycoproteins 31. ANS: A PTS: 1 32. ANS: C PTS: 1 33. ANS: B PTS: 1 34. ANS: B PTS: 1 35. ANS: D PTS: 1 36. ANS: B PTS: 1 37. ANS: A PTS: 1 38. ANS: B PTS: 1 39. ANS: B PTS: 1 40. ANS: B PTS: 1 41. ANS: C PTS: 1 42. ANS: C PTS: 1 43. ANS: A PTS: 1 44. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences Indicate whether the characteristic applies to active immunity or passive immunity by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. applies to active immunity b. applies to passive immunity c. applies to both active and passive immunity 45. exposure to antigen required for immunity to develop 46. antibodies produced by a source other than one’s own body 47. often confers long-lasting immunity 48. resistance to antigen exposure is immediate upon injection of antibodies 49. natural immunity is actually a special case of this type of immunity 45. ANS: A PTS: 1 46. ANS: B PTS: 1 47. ANS: A PTS: 1 48. ANS: B PTS: 1 49. ANS: A PTS: 1 Match the defence cell with the correct characteristic by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. keratinocytes b. melanocytes c. Langerhans cells d. Granstein cells 50. secrete a pigment responsible for varying shades of brown colour in the skin 51. secrete interleukin 1 52. produce the tough protective surface of the skin 53. secrete a substance that absorbs harmful ultraviolet rays 54. present antigen to helper T cells 55. present antigen to suppressor T cells 56. are the most abundant cell type in the skin 57. produce hair and nails 50. ANS: B PTS: 1 51. ANS: A PTS: 1 52. ANS: A PTS: 1 53. ANS: B PTS: 1 54. ANS: C PTS: 1 55. ANS: D PTS: 1 56. ANS: A PTS: 1 57. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences ESSAY 1. Describe the mechanisms of the inflammation process. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. Provide a mechanistic description of the functions of the compliment system. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. Compare and contrast primary versus secondary immune responses. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4. What are the roles of helper T cells in the immune response? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. Discuss the various ways by which a cancer cell might elude the immune system, thus causing a clinical manifestation. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences PROBLEM 1. Indicate the secretory product and function of the following three specialized skin structures. a. sweat glands secretory product_____________ function ___________ b sebaceous glands secretory product_____________ function ___________ c hair follicles secretory product_____________ function ___________ ANS: (a) sweat; important in temperature regulation and cooling the skin; (b) sebum; oils hairs and outer layers of skin, thereby waterproofing and softening them; (c) hair; increases the skin’s sensitivity to touch and is important in lower species for heat conservation PTS: 1 SHORT ANSWER 1. List two functions of dermal blood vessels. ANS: supply blood to both the dermis and epidermis; play a major role in temperature regulation PTS: 1 2. Distinguish between the two pathways by which the complement system can be activated. ANS: classical pathway: antibodies activate complement system; alternate pathway: particular carbohydrate chains on microbial surfaces activate complement system PTS: 1Chapter 10: Body Defences 3. Name three means by which microbes can be destroyed in the body without being phagocytized. ANS: extracellular release of destructive lysosomal enzymes; release from macrophages of lactoferrin, which binds iron needed for bacterial multiplication; lysing of bacteria by the complement system’s membrane attack complex PTS: 1 4. Name two categories of drugs that exert anti-inflammatory effects. ANS: salicylates and glucocorticoids PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the term for the entire sequence of events involved in the exchange of O2 and CO2 between the body cells and the environment? a. internal respiration b. external respiration c. ventilation d. diffusion ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 449 BLM: Remember 2. What is the respiratory quotient? a. the rate at which gases diffuse across the alveolar capillary membrane b. the respiratory rate times the tidal volume c. the ratio of O2 consumed to CO2 produced d. the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 472 BLM: Remember 3. Which activity below is NOT a respiratory event? a. Carbon dioxide is exchanged in the alveoli. b. Cells produce nitrogen by their metabolism. c. Gas exchange occurs between tissues and the blood. d. Oxygen is exchanged in the alveoli. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 449 BLM: Remember 4. Which statement is correct for Type I alveolar cells? a. They form the wall of the alveoli. b. They secrete pulmonary surfactant. c. They contract during expiration to force air out of the alveoli. d. They are responsible for surface tension ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 452 BLM: Remember 5. Which structure serves as a common passageway for both the respiratory and digestive systems? a. Nose b. Pharynx c. Trachea d. Esophagus ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 450 BLM: RememberChapter 11: The Respiratory System 6. What is NOT a function of the respiratory system? a. transporting O2 to the tissues b. contributing to maintenance of normal acid-base balance. c. providing a route for heat and water elimination. d. enabling speech, singing, and other vocalization. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 451 BLM: Remember 7. During which of the following would the intrapleural pressure be greater than atmospheric pressure? a. forced inspiration b. passive expiration c. forced expiration d. pneumothorax ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 457 BLM: Higher Order 8. Which statement is correct for the intrapulmonary pressure? a. It is the pressure within the air sacs of the lung. b. It is always greater than atmospheric pressure. c. It is always less than intrapleural pressure. d. It is the pressure within the bronchi. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 454 BLM: Remember 9. What does not hold the lungs against the thoracic wall? a. the negative intrapleural pressure b. the negative intrapulmonary pressure c. cohesiveness of the pleural fluids ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 457 BLM: Higher Order 10. What are the muscles for inhalation? a. diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles b. diaphragm and external intercostal muscles c. diaphragm and abdominal muscles d. internal and external intercostal muscles ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 461 BLM: Remember 11. What happens when intra-alveolar pressure becomes greater than atmospheric pressure? a. Air will flow out of the lungs. b. Air will flow into the lungs. c. There will be no air flow. d. The lung collapses. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 461 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 11: The Respiratory System 12. Which statement concerning alveoli is INCORRECT? a. Alveoli are the site of gas exchange in the lungs. b. Interdependence of alveoli refers to air flow between adjacent alveoli through the pores of Kohn. c. Alveolar Type II cells secrete pulmonary surfactant. d. Alveoli are very thin and are surrounded by a network of capillaries so that air and blood are separated by a very thin barrier. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 449 BLM: Remember 13. Which statement is correct when outward airflow has ceased at the end of a normal expiration? a. Intra-alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric pressure. b. Intra-alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. c. Intra-alveolar pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure. d. Intrapleural pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 459 BLM: Higher Order 14. Which statement is NOT true as to why inspiratory events occur? a. The air pressure in the alveoli is greater than that of the atmosphere. b. The air pressure in the alveoli is less than that of the atmosphere. c. The volume of the thoracic cavity increases. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 459 BLM: Higher Order 15. What is the last step that produces an inspiration? a. The atmospheric pressure becomes lower than the intrapleural pressure. b. The diaphragm contracts. c. The intercostal muscles contract. d. The intra-alveolar pressure becomes lower than the atmospheric pressure. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 459 BLM: Remember 16. What does NOT happen during inspiration? a. Intra-alveolar pressure falls below atmospheric pressure. b. The diaphragm contracts. c. The internal intercostal muscles contract. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 453 BLM: Higher Order 17. What does NOT happen when the diaphragm contracts? a. The volume of the thoracic cavity increases. b. Lung volume increases as the lungs are forced to expand. c. The intra-alveolar pressure increases. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 453 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 11: The Respiratory System 18. What does NOT happen/s during forceful expirations? a. The accessory expiratory muscles contract. b. The external intercostals contract. c. The abdominal muscles contract. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 461 BLM: Remember 19. What brings on normal expirations? a. contraction of the external intercostals b. contraction of the internal intercostals c. contraction of the diaphragm d. elastic recoil of stretched lung tissues and relaxation of inspiratory muscles ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 456 BLM: Remember 20. Which of the following does NOT make breathing more difficult? a. increased pulmonary compliance b. increased airway resistance c. decreased elastic recoil ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 465 BLM: Remember 21. Which skeletal muscle is innervated by the phrenic nerve? a. rectus abdominus b. Diaphragm c. external intercostal d. Sternocleodomastoid ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 453 BLM: Remember 22. What does NOT occur during expiration when a person is breathing quietly? a. The size of the thoracic cavity is reduced. b. The intra-alveolar pressure becomes greater than atmospheric pressure. c. Air flows out of the lungs. d. The expiratory muscles contract. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 456 BLM: Remember 23. What does NOT bring about increased airway resistance? a. Asthma b. epinephrine and norepinephrine c. slow-reactive substance of anaphylaxis d. Emphysema ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 457| 463| 465 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 11: The Respiratory System 24. Bronchodilation of the air passages involves the _____ of their smooth muscle contraction and the _____ of their radius. a. decrease, decrease b. decrease, increase c. increase, decrease d. increase, increase ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 463 BLM: Remember 25. Which factor would result in bronchoconstriction? a. sympathetic stimulation b. parasympathetic stimulation c. epinephrine secretion d. increased carbon dioxide concentration ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 463 BLM: Remember 26. What does NOT occur when blood flow to an area of the lungs is reduced but the area receives normal air flow? a. The concentration of CO2 in this area decreases. b. The change in CO2 concentration causes the smooth muscles of the local airways to relax. c. The change in CO2 concentration leads to increased resistance of local airways. d. The change in O2 concentration leads to dilation of local blood vessels. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 478 BLM: Higher Order 27. Which of the following does NOT promote elastic recoil of the lungs? a. elastic fibres in the lung b. surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli c. pulmonary surfactant ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 456 BLM: Remember 28. Which statement concerning pulmonary surfactant is INCORRECT? a. Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by Type II alveolar cells. b. Pulmonary surfactant is deficient in newborn respiratory distress syndrome. c. Pulmonary surfactant promotes elastic recoil of the lungs. d. The cohesive force between a water molecule and an adjacent pulmonary surfactant molecule is much lower than the cohesive force between two adjacent water molecules. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 453 BLM: RememberChapter 11: The Respiratory System 29. Which of the following statements is NOT true for pulmonary surfactant? a. It is secreted by Type I alveolar cells. b. It decreases surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli. c. It resists elastic recoil of the lungs. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 453 BLM: Remember 30. Without pulmonary surfactant, what would happen? a. Small alveoli would tend to collapse. b. Larger alveoli would tend to empty into smaller alveoli. c. All alveoli would be easier to inflate. d. The surface tension in the alveoli would be reduced. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 453 BLM: Higher Order 31. The work of breathing normally requires about 3 percent of total energy expenditure. In which situation will this decrease NOT occur? a. when elastic recoil is decreased b. when resistance goes up c. when the partial pressure of oxygen increases in the air d. when ventilation is increased ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 469 BLM: Remember 32. What is the term for the minimum volume of air that remains in the lungs after a maximal expiration? a. tidal volume b. functional residual capacity c. residual volume d. vital capacity ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 467 BLM: Remember 33. Which statement is correct for residual volume? a. It helps prevent lung collapse. b. It is the normal volume of air inhaled. c. It is the normal volume of air exhaled. d. It is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 456 BLM: Remember 34. Which statement is correct for the vital capacity? a. It is the volume normally entering or leaving the lungs during a single breath. b. It is the maximum volume that can be moved in or out during a single breath. c. It is the maximum volume the lungs can hold. d. It is the minimum volume the lungs can hold. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 467 BLM: RememberChapter 11: The Respiratory System 35. Which type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is characterized by a breakdown of alveolar walls and collapse of the smaller airways? a. Asthma b. chronic bronchitis c. Emphysema d. bronchiectasis ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 465 BLM: Remember 36. Which spirometry result would NOT be expected of a patient suffering from obstructive lung disease? a. normal total lung capacity b. increased functional residual capacity c. decreased residual volume d. decreased FEV1 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 467 BLM: Higher Order 37. What does compliance refer to specifically? a. effort required to stretch the lungs b. elasticity of the lung tissue c. energy requirements for an inspiration d. surface area of the alveoli ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 456 BLM: Remember 38. Which force does NOT contribute to keeping the alveoli open? a. alveolar surface tension b. transmural pressure gradient c. pulmonary surfactant d. alveolar interdependence ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 457 BLM: Remember 39. Which circumstance causes intrapleural pressure to exceed airway pressure? a. normal quiet breathing b. maximal forced expiration c. pneumothorax d. pleural effusion ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 466 BLM: Higher Order 40. A person has a tidal volume of 400 mL/breath, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and an anatomic dead space volume of 120 mL. What is her pulmonary ventilation rate? a. 3000 mL/minute. b. 3920 mL/minute. c. 4260 mL/minute. d. 5600 mL/minute. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 466 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 11: The Respiratory System 41. Which condition would result in the lowest alveolar ventilation rate? a. quiet breathing b. a normal respiratory rate and normal tidal volume c. a low respiratory rate and high tidal volume d. a low respiratory rate and very low tidal volume ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 469 BLM: Remember 42. If the pulmonary ventilation rate is 3200 mL/minute with a tidal volume of 400, what is the respiratory rate per minute? a. 6 breaths b. 8 breaths c. 14 breaths d. 16 breaths ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 466 BLM: Higher Order 43. A person has a tidal volume of 400 mL, a respiratory rate of 14, and an anatomic dead space volume of 150 mL. What is his alveolar ventilation rate? a. 3,500 mL/minute b. 3,920 mL/minute c. 4,260 mL/minute d. 5,600 mL/minute ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 466 BLM: Higher Order 44. Which factor would reduce the alveolar ventilation rate the most? a. increased alveolar dead space b. decreased alveolar dead space c. increased tidal volume d. quiet breathing ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 469 BLM: Remember 45. If 20 percent of the air is composed of O2, what is the partial pressure of oxygen at sea level where atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHg? a. 20 mmHg b. 70 mmHg c. 152 mmHg d. 760 Hg ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 472 BLM: Higher Order 46. If 20 percentof the air is composed of O2, what is the partial pressure of oxygen at an altitude of 20,000 feet where atmospheric pressure is 350 mmHg? a. 20 mmHg b. 70 mmHg c. 152 mmHg d. 760 Hg ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 472 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 11: The Respiratory System 47. Which of the following is NOT true for PO2 in the blood? a. It refers to the pressure exerted by the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere. b. It is the most important factor determining the percent saturation of haemoglobin. c. It is normal in carbon monoxide poisoning. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 472 BLM: Remember 48. Which of the following is TRUE about the partial pressure of oxygen? a. Atmospheric air averages 79 percent of total atmospheric pressure. b. Blood is the most important factor that determines the extent to which O2 will combine with haemoglobin. c. Arterial blood is decreased when haemoglobin preferentially combines with CO rather than O2. d. Arterial blood is increased in high atmospheric pressure. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 472 BLM: Remember 49. If the alveolar PO2 is 100 mmHg, what will be the PO2 of the blood leaving the pulmonary capillaries in a normal person? a. 40 mmHg b. 46 mmHg c. 100 mmHg d. 760 mmHg ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 472 BLM: Higher Order 50. What would decrease diffusion of a gas across the alveolar/pulmonary capillary membrane? a. an increase in thickness of the membrane b. an increase in surface area of the membrane c. an increase in the partial pressure gradient d. smaller molecular size ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 479 BLM: Remember 51. Systemic venous PO2 is _____ alveolar PO2, and systemic venous PO2 is _____ alveolar PO2. a. greater than, greater than b. greater than, less than c. less than, greater than d. less than, less than ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 479 BLM: Higher Order 52. Which statement is NOT true of the partial pressure of oxygen in the pulmonary veins? a. is about 40 mmHg. b. is equivalent to alveolar partial pressure. c. is the same as pulmonary arteries’ partial pressure. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 479 BLM: RememberChapter 11: The Respiratory System 53. Which factor would reduce the amount of oxygen transfer across the respiratory membrane? a. a higher partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere b. an abnormally high partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere c. a reduced partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere d. a low pulmonary capillary, partial pressure of oxygen ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 476 BLM: Remember 54. Which statement is NOT true for haemoglobin? a. Haemoglobin plays a critical role in determining the total amount of O2 that is exchanged because it acts as a storage depot, removing dissolved O2 and thus keeping the PO2 low so that net diffusion is allowed to continue. b. Haemoglobin combines only with O2. c. Haemoglobin is found in erythrocytes. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 479 BLM: Remember 55. Which statement regarding the percent of haemoglobin saturation is correct? a. It decreases as PO2 increases. b. It decreases as PCO2 increases. c. It decreases as H+ decreases. d. It decreases as body temperature decreases. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 480 BLM: Remember 56. What will NOT result in lower oxygen saturation of haemoglobin? a. an increase in PO2 b. an increase in temperature c. an increase in PCO2 d. an increase in acidity ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 480 BLM: Remember 57. What is the atmospheric PO2? a. approximately 25 mmHg b. approximately 120 mmHg c. approximately 160 mmHg d. approximately 220 mmHg ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 472 BLM: Remember 58. For what does haemoglobin have the greatest affinity? a. carbon dioxide b. oxygen c. carbon monoxide. d. nitrogen ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 484 BLM: RememberChapter 11: The Respiratory System 59. Approximately what percentage of oxygen is transported in the blood dissolved in free form? a. 1.5 b. 15 c. 60 d. 72 ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 479 BLM: Remember 60. Which of the following is NOT true for the plateau portion of the O2–Hb curve? a. It is in the blood-PO2 range that exists at the pulmonary capillaries. b. It means that haemoglobin becomes almost nearly saturated in the lungs unless the pulmonary capillary PO2 falls below 60 mmHg. c. It is in the blood-PO2 range that exists at the systemic capillaries. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 480 BLM: Remember 61. Which statement is the INCORRECT statement about haemoglobin? a. It combines with oxygen at the lungs. b. It contains iron. c. It forms an irreversible association with oxygen. d. It is located inside the red blood cell. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 479 BLM: Remember 62. Which statement concerning haemoglobin is INCORRECT? a. The presence of haemoglobin keeps the blood PO2 low and favours O2 movement into the blood despite a very large transfer of O2 until haemoglobin is completely saturated. b. Haemoglobin can combine with O2, CO2, H+, and CO. c. Haemoglobin unloads less O2 in the presence of increased tissue acidity. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 479 BLM: Remember 63. Which statement regarding haemoglobin is correct? a. It combines preferentially with O2 over any other molecules. b. When combined with carbon dioxide, it is known as oxyhaemoglobin. c. It plays a critical role in determining the amount of O2 that is exchanged between alveoli and blood, because it acts as a storage depot, removing dissolved O2 from the blood and thereby keeping PO2 low and allowing net diffusion of O2 to continue until the haemoglobin is completely saturated. d. It combines preferentially with CO2 when partial partial pressure of O2 is high in arterial blood. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 479 BLM: RememberChapter 11: The Respiratory System 64. Approximately what percentage of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in dissolved form? a. 1.5 percent b. 10 percent c. 35 percent d. 60 percent ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 479 BLM: Remember 65. In which way is carbon dioxide NOT transported in the blood? a. bicarbonate ion b. carbonic acid c. directly dissolved d. as a gas ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 479 BLM: Remember 66. What is the primary form in which CO2 is transported in the blood? a. physically dissolved b. bound to haemoglobin c. bound to plasma protein d. as bicarbonate ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 479 BLM: Remember 67. Which statement is NOT true for carbonic anhydrase? a. It is found in the red blood cells. b. It catalyzes the formation of carbonic acid from carbonic dioxide and water. c. It catalyzes the formation of oxyhaemoglobin from oxygen and reduced haemoglobin. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 486 BLM: Remember 68. Which statement is NOT true when the chloride shift in red blood cells occurs? a. to prevent electrical gradient development. b. in response to bicarbonate movement into the plasma. c. to prevent an increase in blood pH. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 486 BLM: Remember 69. Which statement is NOT true for 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate? a. It is produced within red blood cells. b. Its production is inhibited by HbO2. c. Its concentration gradually decreases whenever Hb in the arterial blood is chronically undersaturated. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 484 BLM: RememberChapter 11: The Respiratory System 70. What condition exists at high altitudes? a. histotoxic hypoxia b. hypoxic hypoxia c. anemic hypoxia d. hypocapnia ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 487 BLM: Remember 71. Which statement is NOT true for hypercapnia? a. It refers to excess CO2 in the arterial blood. b. It occurs when CO2 is blown off to the atmosphere at a rate faster than it is being produced by the tissues. c. It may be caused by hypoventilation. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 488 BLM: Remember 72. What is the location of the brain region that provides output to the respiratory muscles? a. pons b. medulla c. cerebral cortex d. hypothalamus ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 489 BLM: Remember 73. Which statement concerning the dorsal respiratory group (DRG) is correct? a. The DRG consists of both inspiratory neurons and expiratory neurons. b. The neurons of the DRG remain inactive during normal quiet breathing. c. The DRG is called into play by the VRG as when demands for ventilation are increased. d. Inspiration takes place when DRG inspiratory neurons fire. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 489 BLM: Remember 74. Where are the stretch receptors for the Hering-Breuer reflex located? a. midbrain b. elastic tissue of the lungs c. medulla d. smooth muscle layer of the airways ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 491 BLM: Remember 75. Where does pacemaker activity that establishes the rhythmicity of breathing reside? a. lung tissue b. respiratory muscles c. dorsal respiratory group d. phrenic nerve ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 489 BLM: RememberChapter 11: The Respiratory System 76. Which of the following is TRUE regarding inspiratory neurons? a. They activate the phrenic nerve, bringing about contraction of the diaphragm b. They are stimulated by stretch receptors c. They are inhibited by the expiratory neurons ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 489 BLM: Remember 77. Which statement regarding the apneustic centre is correct? a. It is located in the medulla. b. It stimulates the inspiratory neurons. c. It inhibits inspiratory activity. d. It is located in the midbrain. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 490 BLM: Remember 78. Which statement is correct for expiratory neurons? a. They are found in both the DRG and VRG. b. They send impulses to the expiratory muscles during normal quiet breathing. c. They are stimulated by the pneumotaxic centre. d. They are stimulated by the inspiratory neurons and in turn inhibit the inspiratory neurons. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 489 BLM: Remember 79. What is the primary regulator of the magnitude of ventilation in normal circumstances? a. H+ concentration of the brain extracellular fluid, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors b. PO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors c. PO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by peripheral chemoreceptors d. PCO2 of arterial blood, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 492 BLM: Remember 80. Which statement concerning the peripheral chemoreceptors is INCORRECT? a. They are stimulated whenever the arterial PO2 falls below normal. b. They are weakly stimulated by a rise in arterial PCO2. c. They are stimulated by an increase in arterial H+, which plays an important role in acid-base balance. d. They are located at the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries and in the aortic arch. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 492 BLM: Remember 81. What is the location of the receptors that are stimulated by a large drop in the blood PO2 level? a. respiratory centre of the brain b. carotid and aortic bodies c. tissue capillaries d. Arterioles ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 492 BLM: RememberChapter 11: The Respiratory System 82. What factor in the arterial blood has the largest effect on increasing the rate of respiration? a. The hydrogen ion concentration in the kidney ECF increases. b. The hydrogen ion concentration in the ECF generally increases. c. The partial pressure of carbon increases. d. The partial pressure of oxygen drops to 90. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 492 BLM: Higher Order 83. How is ventilation increased the most? a. by a small increase in arterial PCO2 b. by a small decrease in arterial PCO2 c. by a small increase in arterial PO2 d. by a small decrease in arterial PO2 ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 496 BLM: Higher Order 84. Which is true about alveolar at high altitudes? a. PO2 is higher than normal. b. PO2 is lower than normal. c. PCO2 is higher than normal. d. PCO2 is lower than normal. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 475 BLM: Remember 85. Which statement would be correct if the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right? a. Partial pressure of oxygen is increased. b. pH is decreased. c. Temperature is decreased. d. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide is decreased. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 484 BLM: Higher Order 86. Which factor will NOT make breathing more difficult? a. increased pulmonary compliance b. increased airway resistance c. decreased elastic recoil d. pleural effusion ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 465 BLM: Remember 87. What does it mean to say that haemoglobin is fully saturated? a. There is an oxygen molecule attached to each of the four heme groups. b. Oxygen is attached to both the heme and the globin portions of the molecule. c. The red blood cells contain as many haemoglobin molecules as possible. d. Haemoglobin is carrying both oxygen and carbon dioxide simultaneously. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 488 BLM: RememberChapter 11: The Respiratory System 88. Which statement is correct concerning functional residual capacity? a. It is the extra volume of air that can be actively expired. b. It is the minimum volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a maximal expiration. c. It is the volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal passive respiration. d. It is the volume of air entering or leaving the lungs during a single breath. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 467 BLM: Remember TRUE/FALSE 1. The respiratory system is the only system involved with the exchange of gas between the cells of an organism and the external environment. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. Gases are transported during external respiration by active transport mechanisms. ANS: F PTS: 1 3. Respiration is accomplished entirely by the respiratory system. ANS: F PTS: 1 4. Exhaled air passes from the larynx through the trachea. ANS: F PTS: 1 5. Both the respiratory system and the circulatory system are involved in the process of respiration. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. The respiratory system provides a route for water and heat elimination. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. The respiratory airways filter, warm, and humidify incoming air. ANS: T PTS: 1 8. The intrapleural cavity is located inside the lungs. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. All respiratory airways are held open by cartilaginous rings. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 10. The alveoli are encircled by capillaries. ANS: T PTS: 1 11. Air flow through the smaller bronchioles can be adjusted by varying the contractile activity of the smooth muscle within their walls. ANS: T PTS: 1 12. Pores of Kohn permit air flow between adjacent alveoli, a process known as collateral ventilation. ANS: T PTS: 1 13. The bronchioles are rigid, nonmuscular airways encircled by a series of cartilaginous rings. ANS: F PTS: 1 14. intrapleural pressure is negative to maintain lung inflation. ANS: T PTS: 1 15. The pleural cavity normally is not in direct communication with the lungs or atmosphere. ANS: T PTS: 1 16. At the end of inspiration and at the end of expiration, intra-alveolar pressure is always equal to atmospheric pressure. ANS: T PTS: 1 17. At the end of inspiration and at the end of expiration, intrapleural pressure is always equal to atmospheric pressure. ANS: F PTS: 1 18. For inspiration to occur, the intra-alveolar pressure must be lower than the atmospheric pressure. ANS: T PTS: 1 19. Intrapleural pressure is usually less than atmospheric pressure. ANS: T PTS: 1 20. Intrapleural pressure normally does not equilibrate with the intra-alveolar pressure. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 21. The abdominal muscles are expiratory muscles. ANS: T PTS: 1 22. The internal intercostal muscles are inspiratory muscles because they lift the ribs upward and outward to enlarge the thoracic cavity. ANS: F PTS: 1 23. At a constant temperature, the pressure that a gas exerts depends on the volume that it occupies. ANS: T PTS: 1 24. In the breathing cycle, the atmospheric pressure normally does not change. ANS: T PTS: 1 25. The quantity of air that will flow into and out of the lungs depends solely on the radius of the respiratory airways. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. Inspiration is always an active process. ANS: T PTS: 1 27. Expiration is always a passive process. ANS: F PTS: 1 28. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine release lead to an increase in airway resistance. ANS: F PTS: 1 29. Elastic recoil refers to the tendency of the chest wall to expand. ANS: F PTS: 1 30. Pulmonary surfactant increases alveolar surface tension and does not affect lung expansion. ANS: F PTS: 1 31. Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by Type II alveolar cells. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 32. Pulmonary surfactant reduces the work of breathing and increases lung stability by increasing alveolar surface tension. ANS: F PTS: 1 33. Newborn respiratory distress syndrome is caused by an excess of pulmonary surfactant. ANS: F PTS: 1 34. If there is a deficient supply of pulmonary surfactant, the lungs become more compliant. ANS: F PTS: 1 35. A highly compliant lung is easier to stretch than a less compliant one. ANS: T PTS: 1 36. may occur when pulmonary surfactant secretion drops. ANS: T PTS: 1 37. Pneumothorax develops from the accumulation of fluid in the alveoli. ANS: F PTS: 1 38. Emphysema can be brought on by recurrent episodes of asthma and/or chronic bronchitis. ANS: T PTS: 1 39. An increase in airway resistance and an increase in alveolar surface tension both increase the work of breathing. ANS: T PTS: 1 40. In the absence of pulmonary surfactant, smaller alveoli display a larger inward-directed pressure than do larger alveoli. ANS: T PTS: 1 41. According to LaPlace’s law, the magnitude of the inward-directed collapsing pressure of a spherical bubble is directly proportional to both the surface tension and the radius of the bubble. ANS: F PTS: 1 42. Pulmonary surfactant decreases surface tension to a greater degree in large alveoli than in small alveoli. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 43. Patients suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease generally have more trouble exhaling than inhaling. ANS: T PTS: 1 44. Boyle’s law states that the pressure exerted by a gas varies directly with the volume of the gas. ANS: F PTS: 1 45. To produce a normal tidal volume, the expiratory muscles must be stimulated. ANS: F PTS: 1 46. The residual volume is the amount of air remaining in the lungs at the end of a normal expiration. ANS: F PTS: 1 47. breaths usually result in the greatest alveolar ventilation rates. ANS: T PTS: 1 48. If a person is breathing rapidly, it is safe to assume that he or she is getting adequate ventilation. ANS: F PTS: 1 49. The skeletal muscles for breathing are located in the walls of the lungs. ANS: F PTS: 1 50. The 500 mL of air that is inspired is the same 500 mL of air that enters the alveoli during a single breath. ANS: F PTS: 1 51. If the tidal volume is 500 mL and the anatomic dead space volume is 150 mL, only 350 mL of air enters the alveoli during inspiration. ANS: F PTS: 1 52. Slow, deep breathing is more effective for increasing alveolar ventilation than is rapid, shallow breathing. ANS: T PTS: 1 53. O2 moves from the alveoli to the blood by active transport. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 54. During external respiration, the PO2 is greater in the alveoli than in the blood of the pulmonary capillaries. ANS: T PTS: 1 55. During external respiration, the PCO2 is greater in the blood of the pulmonary capillaries than in the alveoli. ANS: T PTS: 1 56. The partial pressure of a gas in blood depends on the amount that is physically dissolved and not on the total content of the gas present in the blood. ANS: T PTS: 1 57. Alveolar partial pressures do not fluctuate to any extent between inspiration and expiration. ANS: T PTS: 1 58. The tidal volume is the sum of the vital capacity, expiratory reserve volume, and inspiratory reserve volume. ANS: F PTS: 1 59. The quantity of O2 that will diffuse between the alveolar air and pulmonary blood depends solely on the partial pressure gradients that exist between the alveoli and blood. ANS: F PTS: 1 60. Systemic arterial PO2 is greater than tissue PO2. ANS: T PTS: 1 61. Systemic arterial PCO2 is less than tissue PCO2. ANS: T PTS: 1 62. A molecule of nitrogen exerts more pressure than a molecule of oxygen because nitrogen is a larger molecule. ANS: F PTS: 1 63. The partial pressure of nitrogen in the atmosphere is greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 64. Alveolar PO2 is higher following inspiration than following expiration. ANS: F PTS: 1 65. The most important factor that determines the extent to which haemoglobin is saturated with oxygen is the blood PO2. ANS: T PTS: 1 66. Increased acidity at the tissue cells stimulates increased dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin. ANS: T PTS: 1 67. O2 is much more soluble in blood than CO2 is. ANS: F PTS: 1 68. At the systemic capillaries, the PO2 is in the range of the steep portion of the O2–Hb curve. ANS: T PTS: 1 69. Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the formation of the oxyhaemoglobin. ANS: F PTS: 1 70. During hyperventilation, arterial PCO2 levels decrease because CO2 is blown off more rapidly than it is being produced in the tissues. ANS: T PTS: 1 71. In the plateau region of the Hb–O2 curve, a large decrease in PO2 results in a small decrease in Hb saturation, whereas in the steep portion of the curve, a small decrease in PO2 results in a large decrease in percent Hb saturation. ANS: T PTS: 1 72. The combination of Hb and CO2 is known as carbaminohaemoglobin. ANS: T PTS: 1 73. The peripheral chemoreceptors are not activated during carbon monoxide poisoning despite the fact that the total O2 content in the blood can become lethally low. ANS: T PTS: 1 74. Administering O2 to patients with severe chronic lung disease will not depress their drive to breathe. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 75. Arterial PO2 remains normal or may even increase slightly during exercise despite the fact that O2 consumption by the tissues is greatly increased. ANS: T PTS: 1 76. Respiration is reflexively inhibited by alkalosis caused by a reduction in concentration of non-carbon-dioxide-generated H+, the result of which is accumulation of H+-generating carbon dioxide to restore the acid-base balance toward normal. ANS: T PTS: 1 77. The respiratory centre is located in the cerebral cortex. ANS: F PTS: 1 78. The most important factor controlling respiration is the PO2 of arterial blood. ANS: F PTS: 1 79. O2 levels are much more closely regulated than CO2 levels in the arterial blood. ANS: F PTS: 1 80. A slight decrease in arterial PO2 below normal is a more potent stimulus toward increasing respiration than is a slight increase in PCO2 above normal. ANS: F PTS: 1 81. When the inspiratory neurons stop firing, the expiratory muscles contract. ANS: F PTS: 1 82. The inspiratory and expiratory neurons both display pacemaker activity. ANS: F PTS: 1 83. The pneumotaxic and apneustic centres are located in the cerebellum. ANS: F PTS: 1 84. Receptors in the CNS that detect changes in arterial PCO2 are actually sensitive to the H+ concentration of the brain extracellular fluid. ANS: T PTS: 1 85. The primary factor believed to be responsible for stimulating the profound and abrupt increase in ventilation during exercise is increased arterial PCO2. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System COMPLETION 1. The ____________________ serve as the conducting portion of the respiratory system, and the ____________________ are the gas-exchanging portion. ANS: respiratory airways, alveoli PTS: 1 2. Pulmonary ventilation is another name for the mechanical act of ____________________. ANS: breathing PTS: 1 3. The respiratory quotient is the ratio of ____________________ to ____________________. ANS: CO2 produced, O2 consumed PTS: 1 4. The exchange of O2 and CO2 between the external environment and tissue cells is known as ____________________. ANS: external respiration PTS: 1 5. The vocal folds are found in the ____________________ among the respiratory passages. ANS: larynx PTS: 1 6. The ____________________ serves as a common passageway for both the respiratory and digestive systems. ANS: pharynx PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 7. The alveolar wall is ____________________ [how many?] cell layer(s) thick. The wall of the pulmonary capillaries surrounding an alveolus is ____________________ cell [how many?] layer(s) thick. ANS: -one, one -1, 1 PTS: 1 8. ____________________ is the inflammation of the pleural sac. ANS: Pleurisy PTS: 1 9. ____________________ refers to air flow between adjacent alveoli through the pores of Kohn. ANS: Collateral ventilation PTS: 1 10. The most profound changes in thoracic volume can be accomplished by contraction of the ____________________. ANS: diaphragm PTS: 1 11. The ____________________ pressure is the pressure exerted by the weight of the air in the atmosphere. ANS: barometric PTS: 1 12. According to ____________________ law, at any constant temperature, the pressure of a gas varies inversely with the volume of the gas. ANS: Boyle’s PTS: 1 13. ____________________ refers to air in the pleural cavity. ANS: Pneumothorax PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 14. A(n) ____________________ pressure across the chest wall influences lung movements. ANS: transmural PTS: 1 15. ____________________ refers to a collapsed lung. ANS: Atelectasis PTS: 1 16. The ____________________ nerve supplies the diaphragm. ANS: phrenic PTS: 1 17. Contraction of the ____________________ muscles elevates the ribs. ANS: external intercostal PTS: 1 18. The ____________________ is a double-walled, closed sac that separates each lung from the thoracic wall and other surrounding structures. ANS: pleural sac PTS: 1 19. ____________________ is a respiratory disease characterized by collapse of the smaller airways and a breakdown of alveolar walls. ANS: Emphysema PTS: 1 20. When it relaxes, the diaphragm resumes an elevated, ____________________-shaped position. ANS: dome PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 21. The maximum volume of air that can be moved in and out of the lungs in a single breath is known as the ____________________. ANS: vital capacity PTS: 1 22. The volume occupied by the conducting airways is known as the ____________________. ANS: anatomic dead space PTS: 1 23. As the resistance of the air passages increases, the airflow through them ____________________ if the pressure gradient remains constant. ANS: decreases PTS: 1 24. The primary factor that determines the percent Hb saturation is the ____________________. ANS: PO2 PTS: 1 25. ____________________ shifts into the red blood cells to maintain electric neutrality when HCO3– moves out of the cells down its concentration ANS: Chloride PTS: 1 26. Pulmonary surfactant contributes to lung stability by ____________________ surface tension. ANS: decreasing PTS: 1 27. The ____________________ effect refers to the reduced affinity of Hb for O2 in the presence of increased CO2 and H+. ANS: Bohr PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 28. The ____________________ effect refers to the increased affinity of Hb for CO2 and H+ after O2 unloading. ANS: Haldane PTS: 1 29. The ____________________ is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal quiet expiration. ANS: inspiratory capacity PTS: 1 30. ____________________ refers to a ventilation rate that exceeds the metabolic needs of the body. ANS: Hyperventilation PTS: 1 31. The primary respiratory control centre that provides output to the respiratory muscles is located in the ____________________. ANS: medulla of the brain stem PTS: 1 32. An increase of ____________________ ions in the arterial blood changes the respiratory rate by increasing it. ANS: hydrogen PTS: 1 33. The apneustic and pneumotaxic centres are located in the ____________________. ANS: pons PTS: 1 34. drop in the oxygen levels in arterial blood ____________________ the central chemoreceptors. ANS: depresses PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 35. The DRG consists mostly of ____________________ neurons. ANS: inspiratory PTS: 1 36. The VRG consists of ____________________ and ____________________ neurons. ANS: -inspiratory, expiratory -expiratory, inspiratory PTS: 1 37. ___________________ is normally the most important input in regulating the magnitude of ventilation under resting conditions. ANS: Arterial PCO PTS: 1 38. The peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the ____________________ and aortic bodies. ANS: carotid PTS: 1 39. ____________________ is the transient cessation of breathing. ANS: Apnea PTS: 1 40. The subjective sensation of not getting enough air is known as ____________________. ANS: dyspnea PTS: 1 41. If a person ascended a mountain where the atmospheric pressure was only 500 mmHg, assuming that the air consisted of 21 percent O2, what would the PO2 of the air be? ANS: 105 mmHg PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System 42. If the concentration of carbon dioxide at sea level (760 mmHg) is 0.04 of 1.0 percent, the partial pressure of this gas is ____________________ mm of Hg. ANS: 0.304 of 1 unit of Hg PTS: 1 43. If the vital capacity of a person is 4800 mL, while the TV is 500 mL and the ERV is 900 mL, the IRV is ____________________ mL. ANS: 3400 PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System MATCHING Indicate which lung volume or capacity is being described in the column below by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. vital capacity b. respiratory rate c. FEV1 d. tidal volume e. residual volume f. total lung capacity g. functional residual capacity h. alveolar ventilation i. pulmonary ventilation j. inspiratory reserve volume k. expiratory reserve volume l. inspiratory capacity m. anatomic dead space volume 1. respiratory rate × (tidal volume – dead space volume) 2. maximum volume of air that the lungs can hold 3. the volume of air entering or leaving the lungs in a single breath during quiet breathing 4. the minimum volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiration 5. the extra volume of air that can be maximally inspired over and above the tidal volume 6. amount of air breathed in and out in one minute 7. maximum volume of air that can be moved in and out during a single breath 8. volume of air that can be expired during the first second of expiration in a vital-capacity determination 9. the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal expiration 10. inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume 11. vital capacity + residual volume 12. volume of air in the respiratory airways 13. the extra volume of air that can be actively expired by contraction of expiratory muscles beyond that normally expired 14. respiratory rate × tidal volume 15. volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal passive expiration 16. amount of air that is available for exchange of gases with the blood per minute 17. breaths/minuteChapter 11: The Respiratory System 1. ANS: H PTS: 1 2. ANS: F PTS: 1 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 4. ANS: E PTS: 1 5. ANS: J PTS: 1 6. ANS: I PTS: 1 7. ANS: A PTS: 1 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 9. ANS: L PTS: 1 10. ANS: A PTS: 1 11. ANS: F PTS: 1 12. ANS: M PTS: 1 13. ANS: K PTS: 1 14. ANS: I PTS: 1 15. ANS: G PTS: 1 16. ANS: H PTS: 1 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 Indicate which type of hypoxia would be present in each of the circumstances listed below by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. anemic hypoxia b. circulatory hypoxia c. histotoxic hypoxia d. hypoxic hypoxia 18. cyanide poisoning 19. high altitude 20. carbon monoxide poisoning 21. emphysema 22. haemoglobin deficiency 23. congestive heart failure 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 19. ANS: D PTS: 1 20. ANS: A PTS: 1 21. ANS: D PTS: 1 22. ANS: A PTS: 1 23. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System Indicate the effect the following changes would have on the rate of gas transfer by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. This change would increase the rate of gas transfer. b. This change would decrease the rate of gas transfer. c. This change would have no effect on the rate of gas transfer. 24. the effect of pulmonary fibrosis on O2 and CO2 exchange within the lungs 25. the effect of emphysema on O2 and CO2 exchange within the lungs 26. the effect of a fall in atmospheric PO2 on O2 exchange within the lungs 27. the effect on O2 exchange in the lungs by replacing part of the nitrogen with helium so that the inspired air consists of 60 percent N, 19 percent He, and 21 percent O2. 28. the effect of increased metabolism of a cell on O2 and CO2 exchange between the cell and blood 29. the effect of tissue edema on O2 and CO2 exchange between the surrounding cells and blood 30. the effect of reduced systemic venous PO2 on O2 exchange within the lungs 24. ANS: B PTS: 1 25. ANS: B PTS: 1 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 27. ANS: C PTS: 1 28. ANS: A PTS: 1 29. ANS: B PTS: 1 30. ANS: A PTS: 1 Indicate which chemical factor is responsible for the effect described by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. arterial PO2 between 60 to 100 mmHg b. arterial PO2 less than 60 mmHg c. arterial PCO2 increased above normal d. brain ECF H+ increased above normal e. arterial H+ increased above normal 31. stimulates the peripheral chemoreceptors and is important in the regulation of acid-base balance 32. directly depresses the central chemoreceptors 33. weakly stimulates the peripheral chemoreceptors 34. stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors as an emergency mechanism 35. directly stimulates the central chemoreceptors and represents the dominant control of ventilation 36. blood-borne factor that has no effect on the peripheral chemoreceptors 31. ANS: D PTS: 1 32. ANS: E PTS: 1 33. ANS: A PTS: 1 34. ANS: B PTS: 1 35. ANS: C PTS: 1 36. ANS: C PTS: 1Chapter 11: The Respiratory System ESSAY 1. In addition to providing for gas exchange, what are the other functions of the respiratory system? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. Describe the mechanics of ventilation. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. What factors influence the amount of gas exchange occurring at the respiratory membrane? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4. Describe how haemoglobin’s saturation behaviour varies. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. How are respiratory events regulated? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is NOT a function of the kidneys? a. excretion of metabolic wastes b. maintaining proper plasma volume c. secreting aldosterone to regulate sodium d. maintaining proper osmolarity of body fluids ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 507 BLM: Remember 2. What is NOT a function of the kidneys? a. contributing significantly to long-term regulation of arterial blood pressure by maintaining the proper plasma volume b. acting directly on the interstitial fluid, the fluid that bathes the cells, to maintain constancy in its composition c. excreting the metabolic waste products d. assisting in maintaining the proper acid-base balance of the body ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 507 BLM: Remember 3. Which is the functional unit of the kidney? a. Glomerulus b. Nephron c. Medulla d. juxtaglomerular apparatus ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 509 BLM: Remember 4. What is the specialized nephron capillary bed where filtration occurs? a. afferent arteriole b. efferent arteriole c. Glomerulus d. peritubular bed ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 509 BLM: Remember 5. Which statement about juxtamedullary nephrons is INCORRECT? a. Their tubules lie in the renal cortex. b. They are important in the ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine. c. Their loops of Henle dip deep into the medulla. d. Their peritubular capillaries form vasa recta. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 511 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 6. What is NOT associated with juxtamedullary nephrons? a. glomeruli located in medulla b. long loops of Henle c. peritubular capillaries form vasa recta d. an important role in the ability of the kidneys to produce urine of varying concentration ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 511 BLM: Remember 7. Below is a listing of nephron components and associated structures: 1. descending limb of loop of Henle 2. Bowman’s capsule 3. collecting tubule 4. ascending limb of loop of Henle 5. distal tubule 6. proximal tubule What is the correct flow of filtrate through these structures? a. 4, 6, 5, 3, 2, 1 b. 2, 6, 1, 4, 5, 3 c. 2, 5, 6, 3, 1, 4 d. 3, 2, 6, 1, 4, 5 ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 511 BLM: Remember 8. What is/are NOT the function/s of peritubular capillaries? a. They drain into glomeruli. b. They take up the substances that are reabsorbed by the tubules. c. They supply substances that are secreted by the tubules. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 510 BLM: Remember 9. Which nephron structure is especially important in the kidney’s ability to produce urine of varying concentration? a. Bowman’s capsule b. proximal tubule c. distal tubule d. loop of Henle ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 510 BLM: Remember 10. What are vasa recta associated with? a. afferent arterioles b. efferent arterioles c. cortical nephrons d. juxtamedullary nephron ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 512 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 11. What is the renal process whereby substances are selectively transferred from the peritubular blood into the renal tubule? a. filtration b. secretion c. reabsorption d. excretion ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 512 BLM: Remember 12. Which of the following is true about blood that flows through the kidneys? a. normally about 20 to 25 percent of the total cardiac output. b. all filtered through the glomeruli. c. all used to supply the renal tissue with O2 and nutrients. d. normally about 40 percent of the total cardiac output. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 520 BLM: Remember 13. Which statement is correct for glomerular filtration rate? The glomerular filtration rate _____. a. It averages 125 mL/min. b. It averages 75 litres/day. c. It represents 60 to 65 percent of the cardiac output. d. It averages 100 litres/day. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 516 BLM: Remember 14. Which statement is correct concerning glomerular filtrate? a. It is a plasma-free blood. b. It is formed as a result of passive forces acting across the glomerular membrane. c. It does not contain foreign compounds because these substances are secreted by special transport mechanisms in the proximal tubule instead. d. Its rate is increased by increased plasma protein level. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 513 BLM: Higher Order 15. What does filtrate NOT pass through? a. glomerular capillary pores b. basement membrane c. podocytes d. filtration slits ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 514 BLM: Remember 16. The glomerular capillary blood pressure in the nephron is 78 mm Hg. The Bowman’s capsular hydrostatic pressure is 24 mm Hg. The colloidal osmotic pressure is 18 mm Hg. What is the net filtration pressure? a. 18 mm Hg b. 26 mm Hg c. 36 mm Hg d. 42 mm Hg ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 515 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 12: The Urinary System 17. Which factor would reduce the net filtration pressure the most? a. vasodilation of the afferent arteriole b. vasocontraction of the efferent arteriole c. It has a large increase in blood colloid osmotic pressure d. It has a low capsular hydrostatic pressure ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 515 BLM: Higher Order 18. Which statement concerning the process of glomerular filtration is correct? a. Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure opposes filtration. b. The glomerular filtration rate is limited by a Tm. c. All of the plasma that enters the glomerulus is filtered. d. All of the plasma that enters the glomerulus is reabsorbed. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 515 BLM: Remember 19. Which statement is correct concerning glomerular filtration? a. It occurs in the loop of Henle. b. It is the process by which plasma water, electrolytes, and small molecules, which enter Bowman’s capsule, are separated from blood cells and protein, which remain in the glomerular capillaries. c. It is the process by which a substance is transported from the tubular fluid to the peritubular capillaries. d. It is greater when glomerular capsular pressure is higher. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 515 BLM: Remember 20. What would decrease the GFR? a. a fall in plasma protein concentration b. an obstruction such as a kidney stone in the tubular system, which increases Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure c. vasodilation of the afferent arterioles d. a high hydrostatic pressure ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 516 BLM: Remember 21. Which statement is NOT true for the macula densa? a. It consists of specialized tubular cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus b. It consists of specialized arteriolar smooth-muscle cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus c. It secretes renin ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 517 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 22. What is NOT involved in autoregulation of the GFR? a. a myogenic mechanism in which the afferent arteriole automatically constricts when it is stretched b. a tubulo-glomerular feedback mechanism in which vasoactive chemicals released from the juxtaglomerular apparatus bring about afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction c. sympathetically induced vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 517 BLM: Remember 23. Which of the following forces does NOT oppose/s glomerular filtration? a. blood colloid-osmotic pressure b. Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure c. glomerular-capillary blood pressure ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 516 BLM: Higher Order 24. Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction _____ blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular-capillary blood pressure to _____, leading to a(n) _____ in the net filtration pressure and a resultant _____ in the GFR. a. increases, increase, increase, increase b. decreases, decrease, decrease, decrease c. increases, increase, decrease, decrease d. decreases, decrease, increase, increase ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 519 BLM: Higher Order 25. Which statement is NOT true for the myogenic mechanism? a. It causes the afferent arteriole to constrict when blood pressure is too high. b. It may result from stretching of vascular smooth muscle. c. It is under motor system control. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 517 BLM: Remember 26. What occurs after stimulation of the macula densa cells? a. vasodilation of the afferent arteriole b. vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole c. increased GFR d. secretion of erythropoietin ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 517 BLM: Remember 27. Which statement is NOT true for extrinsic control of the GFR? a. It is mediated by sympathetic nervous system input to the afferent arterioles. b. It is aimed at the regulation of arterial blood pressure. c. It is an autoregulatory mechanism ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 518 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 28. When arterial blood pressure is elevated above normal, which compensatory change in renal function occurs as a result of the baroreceptor reflex? a. afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction b. afferent arteriolar vasodilation c. reduction in GFR d. efferent arteriolar vasoconstriction ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 519 BLM: Higher Order 29. Which statement is NOT true concerning tubular reabsorption? a. It refers to the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular fluid. b. It occurs by either active or passive transport. c. It involves the process of transepithelial transport. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 520 BLM: Remember 30. Which statement regarding tubular reabsorption is INCORRECT? a. It refers to the movement of a substance from the tubular fluid to the peritubular capillary blood. b. It is important for the conservation of substances important to the body, such as Na+, Cl-, glucose, and amino acids. c. It can occur by active or passive transport mechanisms. d. It takes place only in the proximal tubule. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 520 BLM: Higher Order 31. Which statement regarding tubular reabsorption is NOT true? a. It involves the movement of substances from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular fluid. b. It involves the movement of substances from the tubular fluid into the peritubular capillaries. c. It is considered to be active if any one of the five steps of transepithelial transport is active. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 520 BLM: Higher Order 32. What does tubular reabsorption NOT involve? a. active transport b. endocytosis c. facilitated diffusion ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 522 BLM: Remember 33. Which statement is NOT a step in transepithelial transport? a. movement of the substance through the cytosol of the tubular cell b. movement of the substance across the glomerular capillary wall c. movement of the substance across the luminal membrane of the tubular cell d. movement of the substance through the interstitial fluid ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 522 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 12: The Urinary System 34. What is the location of the Na+–K+ ATPase transport system that plays a pivotal role in much of tubular reabsorption? a. luminal membrane of tubular cells b. basolateral membrane of tubular cells c. podocytes d. glomerular capillary membrane ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 522 BLM: Remember 35. What is NOT reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule? a. sodium b. lipids c. glucose ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 522 BLM: Remember 36. Into which structure does most reabsorption occur? a. proximal convoluted tubule b. glomerulus c. distal convoluted tubule d. loop of Henle ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 522 BLM: Higher Order 37. Why is glucose NOT normally found in the urine? a. Glucose does not get filtered out of glomerulus. b. Glucose is not found in the blood. c. Glucose is usually reabsorbed by renal tubule cells. d. Glucose is kept in the blood. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 527 BLM: Higher Order 38. Which statement regarding the proximal tubule is NOT true? a. It reabsorbs about 65 percent of the filtered water. b. It is the site of action of renin. c. It is the location where glucose is reabsorbed. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 522 BLM: Remember 39. Which statement regarding tubular maximum (Tm) is NOT true? a. It is the maximum amount of a substance that the tubular cells can actively transport within a given time period. b. It is the maximum rate at which a substance is filtered at the glomerulus. c. It occurs when the membrane carrier becomes saturated. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 526 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 40. Which statement regarding tubular maximum (Tm) is correct? a. It is rate of glomerular filtration. b. It is the rate at which a substance can be reabsorbed because of saturation of the carrier molecule. c. It is the rate at which a substance can be cleared from the blood. d. It is the percentage of renal blood flow that can be converted to filtrate. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 526 BLM: Remember 41. Which statement regarding the renal threshold is correct? a. It is the maximum amount of a particular substance that can be excreted in the urine per unit of time. b. It is the maximum amount of a particular substance that the tubular cells are capable of actively reabsorbing per unit of time. c. It is the plasma concentration of a particular substance at which its Tm is reached and the substance first appears in the urine. d. It is the maximum amount of waste product that can be concentrated in the urine per unit of time. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 527 BLM: Remember 42. Which plasma constituent is NOT regulated by the kidneys? a. Glucose b. Na+ c. H+ d. Phosphate ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 527 BLM: Remember 43. Which statement is correct for reabsorption of chloride? a. It is active. b. It is passive. c. It is dependent on the amount of sodium reabsorbed. d. It is passive and dependent on the amount of sodium reabsorbed. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 528 BLM: Remember 44. What is the major waste product of nitrogen metabolism? a. plasma proteins b. Urea c. Glucose d. amino acids ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 529 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 45. Given the following data for substance X (GFR = 125 mL/min, Tm = 125 mg/min, at a plasma concentration of 200 mg/100 mL), how much of substance X is filtered, reabsorbed, and excreted? a. 125 mg/min filtered, 125 mg/min reabsorbed, 0 mg/min excreted b. 200 mg/min filtered, 125 mg/min reabsorbed, 75 mg/min excreted c. 250 mg/min filtered, 125 mg/min reabsorbed, 125 mg/min excreted d. 250 mg/min filtered, 200 mg/min reabsorbed, 50 mg/min excreted ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 527 BLM: Higher Order 46. Which statement regarding the juxtaglomerular apparatus is NOT true? a. It secretes renin in response to sodium depletion or plasma volume reduction. b. It is a thickened region of specialized cells at a point where the distal tubule comes into intimate contact with the afferent and efferent arterioles of the same nephron. c. It is where reabsorption of sodium occurs. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 523 BLM: Higher Order 47. What is the normal glucose concentration in the plasma in terms of mg per 100 mL? a. 30 b. 60 c. 100 d. 180 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 527 BLM: Remember 48. Which statement regarding sodium reabsorption is INCORRECT? a. It plays a role in glucose, amino acid, and urea reabsorption in the proximal tubule. b. It is under hormonal control in the distal tubule. c. In the loop of Henle, it contributes to the formation of concentrated urine. d. Approximately 0.5 percent of sodium is reabsorbed on a daily basis. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 522 BLM: Remember 49. Which statement regarding the juxtaglomerular apparatus is NOT true? a. It is a combination of specialized tubular and vascular cells at a point where the beginning of the distal tubule comes into intimate contact with the afferent and efferent arterioles of the same nephron. b. It secretes aldosterone. c. It secretes renin. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 523 BLM: Higher Order 50. Which statement regarding aldosterone is NOT true? a. It stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules. b. It is secreted by the JG apparatus. c. It stimulates K+ secretion in the distal tubule. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 523 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 51. Which statement regarding aldosterone secretion is INCORRECT? a. It occurs in the kidney. b. It is stimulated by angiotensin II. c. It is controlled by the concentration of Cl–. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 523 BLM: Remember 52. Which statement about Na+ reabsorption is INCORRECT? a. It uses 80 percent of the energy requirement of the kidney. b. It is under control of the hormone aldosterone in the distal portions of the nephron. c. It is not linked to the reabsorption of amino acids and urea. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 523 BLM: Remember 53. Where does the greatest percentage of Na+ reabsorption takes place? a. proximal tubule b. loop of Henle c. distal tubule d. collecting tubule ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 523 BLM: Remember 54. What happens when blood volume becomes abnormally low? a. Sodium reabsorption is diminished. b. Dilute urine is formed. c. Renin catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen. d. Aldosterone is secreted by the kidney. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 523 BLM: Higher Order 55. Which statement regarding angiotensin I is NOT true? a. It is formed as a result of activation of angiotensinogen by renin. b. It is transformed into angiotensin II as a result of converting enzyme action in the lungs. c. It acts on the adrenal cortex to stimulate aldosterone secretion. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 523 BLM: Remember 56. What stimulates sodium reabsorption in the distal portions of the nephron? a. atrial natriuretic peptide b. vasopressin c. angiotensin II d. aldosterone ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 523 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 57. Which statement is NOT attributable to atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)? a. ANP is released from the cardiac atria when the ECF volume is reduced. b. ANP inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the distal parts of the nephron. c. ANP inhibits renin secretion by the kidneys. d. ANP inhibits aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 525 BLM: Remember 58. What is the energy required for glucose reabsorption used for? a. to run the Na+–K+ ATPase pump b. to run the Na+-glucose co-transport carrier c. to maintain the Tm for glucose d. to produce aldosterone-induced protein, which increases the permeability of the proximal tubular cells to glucose ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 522 BLM: Higher Order 59. Which statement regarding atrial natriuretic peptide is NOT true? a. It is secreted by the heart when atrial pressure is high. b. It results in decreased glomerular filtration rate. c. It inhibits aldosterone activity. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 525 BLM: Remember 60. What does NOT play a role in Na+ reabsorption? a. renin b. vasopressin c. angiotensinogen d. aldosterone ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 523 BLM: Remember 61. What are the distal and collecting tubules the site of? a. the co-transport carriers for glucose and amino acid reabsorption b. the organic ion secretory systems c. aldosterone and vasopressin action d. glucose reabsorption ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 528 BLM: Remember 62. Where is water reabsorption under the control of vasopressin? a. along the entire length of the nephron b. only in the loop of Henle c. only in the distal and collecting tubules d. only in the proximal tubule ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 537 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 63. Which statement regarding water reabsorption is NOT true? a. It occurs passively by osmosis in the proximal tubule. b. It is under the control of vasopressin in the distal and collecting tubules. c. It occurs by active transport in the distal and collecting tubules. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 528 BLM: Remember 64. Which statement concerning water reabsorption is correct? a. Water reabsorption is under control of vasopressin throughout the length of the nephron. b. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is always impermeable to water. c. Vasopressin makes the distal and collecting tubules impermeable to water. d. Fifteen percent of the filtered water osmotically follows the absorption of Na+ and other solutes in the proximal tubule. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 536 BLM: Remember 65. Which statement regarding water reabsorption is NOT true? a. It cannot occur from any portion of the nephron in the absence of vasopressin. b. It occurs to the greatest extent in the proximal convoluted tubule. c. It is under vasopressin control in the distal and collecting tubules. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 537 BLM: Remember 66. Which statement regarding urea is NOT true? a. It is the waste product with the smallest molecular size in the glomerular filtrate. b. It is in greater concentration at the end of the proximal tubule than in other body fluids. c. It has a clearance rate greater than GFR. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 533 BLM: Remember 67. Which statement is NOT true for urea? a. It is a waste product resulting from the breakdown of protein. b. It is passively reabsorbed at the end of the proximal tubule down a urea concentration gradient created by the osmotic-induced reabsorption of water from the proximal tubule. c. Recycling between the late portion of the collecting tubule and the long loops of Henle contributes to medullary hypotonicity. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 529 BLM: Remember 68. What happens to the tubular secretion when the extracellular fluid becomes too acidic? a. No ionic substance is affected. b. Hydrogen ions decrease. c. Hydrogen ions increase. d. Sodium ions decrease. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 530 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 12: The Urinary System 69. Which statement regarding tubular secretion is correct? a. It refers to the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular lumen. b. It can occur by active or passive transport mechanisms. c. Tubular secretion of K+ occurs in proximal convoluted tubules and is stimulated by aldosterone. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 530 BLM: Remember 70. Which statement regarding tubular secretion is NOT true? a. It involves transepithelial transport. b. It is the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular fluid. c. It always occurs by active transport. d. a and b. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 530 BLM: Remember 71. Why is tubular secretion important? a. It is involved in the renal regulation of hydrogen ion concentration. b. It is for the elimination of metabolic waste products from the body. c. It is in the renal regulation of sodium balance. d. for glucose secretion. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 530 BLM: Remember 72. Where does tubular secretion of foreign substances such as drugs generally occur? a. Bowman’s capsule b. the loop of Henle c. the proximal tubule d. the collecting duct ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 532 BLM: Remember 73. Which statement is NOT true for potassium? a. It is secreted in the proximal tubule. b. It is actively secreted in the distal and collecting tubules. c. Its secretion is controlled by aldosterone. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 530 BLM: Remember 74. Which substance is NOT normally secreted into the tubule? a. hydrogen ions b. potassium ions c. glucose ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 542 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 12: The Urinary System 75. Which of the following does NOT stimulate(s) aldosterone secretion? a. an increase in plasma K+ b. a decrease in plasma K+ c. activation of the renin-angiotensin pathway ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 523 BLM: Higher Order 76. Which statement with regards to plasma clearance is correct? a. It is the time required to filter blood in the glomerulus. b. It is the amount of a substance appearing in the urine in one minute. c. It is the amount of a substance filtered in one minute. d. It is the volume of plasma that is completely cleared of a substance by the kidneys in one minute. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 533 BLM: Remember 77. Which statement with regards to inulin is correct? a. It is filtered, not reabsorbed, but secreted. b. It is filtered, not reabsorbed, and not secreted. c. It is filtered, reabsorbed, and not secreted. d. It is filtered, reabsorbed, and secreted. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 533 BLM: Remember 78. The plasma clearance of a substance can be used to calculate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) if that substance is freely filtered at the glomerulus and which? a. secreted and reabsorbed by the tubules. b. neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the tubules. c. secreted by the tubules. d. reabsorbed by the tubules. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 533 BLM: Remember 79. Which statement concerning the medullary vertical osmotic gradient is INCORRECT? a. The loops of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons establish a medullary vertical osmotic gradient by means of countercurrent multiplication. b. The vasa recta enable the medulla to be supplied with blood while conserving the medullary vertical osmotic gradient by means of countercurrent exchange. c. The countercurrent system establishes and maintains a medullary vertical osmotic gradient ranging from 300 to 1,200 mosm/litre. d. The collecting tubules of the juxtamedullary nephrons but not the cortical nephrons descend through the medullary vertical osmotic gradient before emptying into the renal pelvis. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 536 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 12: The Urinary System 80. What establishes the medullary vertical osmotic gradient by means of countercurrent multiplication? a. loops of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons b. loops of Henle of cortical nephrons c. vasa recta of juxtamedullary nephrons d. vasa recta of cortical nephrons ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 536 BLM: Remember 81. Which statement is correct for the ascending limb of the loop of Henle of a juxtamedullary nephron? a. It actively transports NaCl out of the lumen into the interstitial fluid. b. It is highly impermeable to H2O. c. It is always impermeable to H2O. d. Both a and c. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 536 BLM: Remember 82. What does NOT contribute to the establishment of a vertical osmotic gradient in the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla? a. the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system b. countercurrent multiplication in the long loops of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons c. urea recycling between the late portion of the collecting tubule and the long loops of Henle d. active transportation of sodium out of ascending limb of the loop of Henle ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 542 BLM: Remember 83. The tubular fluid is _____ as it enters Bowman’s capsule, _____ at the beginning of the loop of Henle, _____ at the tip of the loop, and _____ as it leaves the loop to enter the distal tubule. a. isotonic, hypertonic, hypertonic, isotonic b. isotonic, isotonic, hypotonic, hypotonic c. isotonic, isotonic, hypertonic, hypotonic d. hypertonic, hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 543 BLM: Remember 84. Which mechanism is NOT responsible for producing concentrated urine? a. The juxtamedullary nephrons become active. b. The countercurrent mechanism pulls out much water. c. ANP causes facultative water reabsorption in distal tubule. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 536 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 85. Which of the following is NOT true about the vertical osmotic gradient in the kidney? a. is established and maintained by the countercurrent system. b. makes it possible to put out urine of variable concentration, depending on the needs of the body, by varying the degree of water permeability of the distal portions of the nephron. c. is found in the renal cortex. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 542 BLM: Remember 86. Which of the following is true about the ascending limb of the loop of Henle? a. NaCl passively leaves the tubular fluid down its concentration gradient. b. NaCl is actively transported into the interstitial fluid, leaving water behind because the tubular cells are not permeable to water. c. K+ is secreted. d. aldosterone stimulates Na+ reabsorption. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 522 BLM: Remember 87. Which of the following is NOT true about the ascending limb of the loop of Henle? a. actively transports NaCl into the surrounding interstitial fluid. b. is impermeable to water. c. is found in the renal cortex. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 522 BLM: Remember 88. Which part of the juxtamedullary nephron is responsible for establishing the vertical osmotic gradient in the medulla of the kidney? a. collecting duct b. afferent arteriole c. loop of Henle d. juxtaglomerular apparatus ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 536 BLM: Remember 89. Which statement about ADH is INCORRECT? a. It is also called vasopressin. b. It is not secreted if the body consumes large amounts of water. c. It is produced by the distal convoluted tubule. d. It is secreted if the body fluids become hypertonic. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 537 BLM: Higher Order 90. Which statement concerning the loop of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons is correct? a. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is freely permeable to H2O and NaCl. b. The filtrate is isotonic as it enters the loop of Henle, hypertonic at the tip of the loop, and hypotonic as it leaves the loop of Henle. c. The descending limb of the loop of Henle actively transports NaCl out of the tubule into the interstitial fluid. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 543 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 91. Which statement concerning the countercurrent system is INCORRECT? a. The loops of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons are responsible for establishing a vertical osmotic gradient in the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla by countercurrent multiplication. b. The active NaCl pump of the ascending limb of Henle’s limb can establish a 1,200 mosm/litre concentration difference between the ascending and descending limbs at any given horizontal level. c. By means of countercurrent exchange, the vasa recta preserve the vertical osmotic gradient while supplying blood to the medullary tissue. d. The collecting tubules of all nephrons utilize the driving force of the vertical osmotic gradient to accomplish variable H2O reabsorption under the control of vasopressin, which governs their permeability. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 536 BLM: Higher Order 92. Which statement with regards to vasopressin is NOT true? a. Its secretion is stimulated by a water deficit. b. It increases the permeability of the distal and collecting tubules to water. c. It increases the permeability of the proximal portion of the collecting tubule to urea. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 537 BLM: Remember 93. Which statement with regards to vasopressin is NOT true? a. It is produced in the posterior pituitary gland. b. It increases the permeability of the distal and collecting tubules to water. c. Its secretion is stimulated by a water deficit in the body. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 537 BLM: Remember 94. Which statement with regards to vasopressin is correct? a. It can completely halt urine production during periods of water deprivation to conserve water for the body. b. It activates the cyclic AMP second-messenger system within the tubular cells. c. It renders the distal and collecting tubules impermeable to water. d. It increases Na+ reabsorption by the distal portions of the nephron. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 537 BLM: Remember 95. Which of the following is true about vasopressin secretion? a. induces the kidneys to produce a small volume of concentrated urine. b. is stimulated when the body fluids are hypertonic. c. is inhibited when the arterial blood pressure is dangerously low. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 537 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 96. Where are the osmoreceptors contributing to water balance located? a. adrenal cortex b. hypothalamus c. juxtaglomerular apparatus d. renal cortex ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 537 BLM: Remember 97. What enable the kidneys to produce urine of varying concentrations and volumes depending on the body’s needs? a. Na+–K+ ATPase pump and co-transport carriers b. juxtaglomerular apparatus and vasa recta c. podocytes and peritubular capillaries d. medullary vertical osmotic gradient and vasopressin ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 536 BLM: Higher Order 98. What segment of the nephron is NOT permeable to H2O even in the presence of vasopressin? a. proximal tubule b. ascending limb of the loop of Henle c. descending limb of the loop of Henle d. distal tubule ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 540 BLM: Remember 99. Which statement is correct for renal excretion? a. It is the removal of substances that were filtered at the glomerulus or secreted but not reabsorbed. b. It is the process by which a substance moves from the peritubular capillary blood to the tubular fluid. c. It conserves substances that are important to the body. d. It occurs by active transport of substances into the urinary bladder. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 543 BLM: Remember 100. How does urine move from the kidneys to the urinary bladder through the ureters? a. by active transport b. passively, by the force of gravity c. by peristaltic contraction of the smooth muscle of the ureters d. when the bladder empties and creates a negative pressure that pulls the urine to the bladder ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 546 BLM: Remember 101. Which statement is NOT true for micturition? a. It is the process of emptying the bladder. b. It is a sympathetic reflex. c. It is initiated when stretch receptors in the bladder wall are excited. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 547 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 102. Which statement is NOT true for the urinary bladder? a. It is a temporary storage site for urine. b. Its wall is stretched by 200 to 400 mL of urine, which stimulates stretch receptors that initiate the micturition reflex. c. It contracts when sympathetic nerves stimulate it. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 546 BLM: Remember 103. When the bladder wall is distended as a result of urine accumulation, the stretch receptors are stimulated and send afferent impulses to the spinal cord. Which of the following statements of the afferent impulses is NOT true? a. They stimulate parasympathetic nerves, which return to the bladder and cause it to contract. b. They inhibit the motor neurons that normally keep the external urethral sphincter closed. c. They stimulate nerves that go to the kidney and prevent glomerular filtration until the bladder is empty. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 546 BLM: Remember 104. What happens when the bladder of an infant is filled with urine? a. Stretch receptors in the bladder wall are inhibited. b. Parasympathetic nerve supplying the bladder is inhibited, allowing the bladder to relax. c. A motor neuron supplying the external urethral sphincter is stimulated, causing the sphincter to open. d. A motor neuron supplying the external urethral sphincter is inhibited, allowing the sphincter to open. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 548 BLM: Remember 105. What does the process of preventing micturition in spite of initiation of the reflex NOT involve? a. the cerebral cortex b. voluntary stimulation of the motor neuron supplying the external urethral sphincter c. voluntary stimulation of the internal urethral sphincter via its parasympathetic nerve supply ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 548 BLM: Remember 106. What does NOT occur during the micturition reflex in a baby? a. The motor neuron supplying the external sphincter is stimulated. b. The parasympathetic nerve supply to the bladder is stimulated. c. The internal urethral sphincter mechanically opens due to changes in the shape of the bladder. d. The external urethral sphincter is relaxed. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 548 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System 107. Which statement is FALSE? a. The osmolarity of the medullary interstitial fluid always equilibrates with the descending limb of the loop of Henle. b. ACE inhibitor drugs promote diuresis by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II. c. If a substance is filtered and secreted but not reabsorbed, its plasma clearance rate is always less than the GFR. d. A plasma clearance of 135 mL/min for a substance when the GFR is 125 mL/min indicates that net secretion of the substance occurs. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 525 BLM: Higher Order 108. Which force favours glomerular filtration? a. glomerular capillary osmotic pressure b. capsular osmotic pressure c. capsular hydrostatic pressure d. glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 516 BLM: Remember 109. What happens to the concentration of tubular fluid as it flows up the ascending loop of Henle? a. Its concentration remains unchanged. b. Its concentration increases. c. Its concentration decreases. d. Its concentration decreases only if ADH is present. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 543 BLM: Remember 110. In normal conditions, which portion of the renal tubules absorbs the largest amount of sodium? a. proximal convoluted tubule b. descending limb of loop of Henle c. ascending limb of loop of Henle d. distal convoluted tubule ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 522 BLM: Remember 111. Which statement is correct concerning dehydration? a. Fluid lost during respiration is decreased in cold, dry environments like in Canada. b. Peripheral constriction can lead to increased dieresis, which increases the rate of onset of dehydration. c. Previous research on winter athletes has found that they never have problems with dehydration during intense outdoor exercise. d. Dehydration will make the body’s fluid concentration more hypotonic. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 536 BLM: RememberChapter 12: The Urinary System TRUE/FALSE 1. The kidneys are the organs that are primarily responsible for maintaining constancy of the volume and electrolyte composition of the internal fluid environment. ANS: T PTS: 1 2. The kidneys keep the urine volume and composition essentially constant. ANS: F PTS: 1 3. The three major processes involved in urine formation are filtration, reabsorption, and excretion. ANS: F PTS: 1 4. The afferent arteriole is the blood vessel that carries blood to the glomerular capillaries. ANS: T PTS: 1 5. Only juxtamedullary nephrons contain a juxtaglomerular apparatus. ANS: F PTS: 1 6. The group of cells located where the distal tubule comes into contact with the afferent and efferent arterioles of the same nephron is known as the juxtaglomerular apparatus. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. In the kidney, blood is filtered in the cortex, drains through the renal pelvis into the renal medulla, and from there travels in the ureter to the urinary bladder. ANS: F PTS: 1 8. Glomerular filtration occurs primarily by active transport. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. Twenty-five percent of the cardiac output goes to the kidneys because of their tremendous nutrient requirement for the active transport of Na+. ANS: F PTS: 1 10. Plasma proteins are normally filtered in the nephron. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 11. All of the plasma that enters the glomerulus is normally filtered into Bowman’s capsule except for the plasma proteins. ANS: F PTS: 1 12. The glomerular filtrate is almost identical in composition to the plasma. ANS: T PTS: 1 13. The vast majority of the filtered fluid is reabsorbed. ANS: T PTS: 1 14. In general, the substances in the filtrate that need to be conserved are selectively reabsorbed whereas the unwanted substances that need to be eliminated fail to be reabsorbed. ANS: T PTS: 1 15. Glomerular filtration occurs by active transport of Na+, which then creates an osmotic gradient for the filtration of water. ANS: F PTS: 1 16. The glomerular filtrate contains only substances that are not needed by the body. ANS: F PTS: 1 17. The Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure opposes filtration. ANS: T PTS: 1 18. Blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries is the same as in capillaries elsewhere in the body. ANS: F PTS: 1 19. The glomerular capillary blood pressure is higher than capillary pressure elsewhere in the body primarily because the afferent arteriole has a larger diameter than the efferent arteriole. ANS: T PTS: 1 20. If a kidney stone blocked the renal pelvis and consequently caused a buildup of fluid pressure in the tubules and Bowman’s capsule, the net filtration pressure across the glomerular capillary membrane would increase. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 21. Because of autoregulation, changes in mean arterial blood pressure between the range of 80 to 180 mm Hg do not directly produce changes in the GFR. ANS: T PTS: 1 22. Autoregulation of the GFR is accomplished by activation of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: F PTS: 1 23. The glomerular capillary wall contains filtration slits formed by the clefts between the foot processes of adjacent podocytes. ANS: F PTS: 1 24. The pores in the glomerular membrane are too small for albumin to pass through. ANS: F PTS: 1 25. The kidneys receive a disproportionately large share of the cardiac output for the purpose of adjusting and purifying the plasma. ANS: T PTS: 1 26. Autoregulation is important to prevent unintentional shifts in the GFR that could lead to dangerous imbalances of fluid, electrolytes, and wastes. ANS: T PTS: 1 27. Sympathetic vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles and a resultant fall in the GFR occur as part of the baroreceptor reflex response when the blood pressure is too low. ANS: T PTS: 1 28. Contraction of mesangial cells closes off a portion of the filtering capillaries, which leads to a decrease in GFR if the filtration pressure remains unchanged. ANS: T PTS: 1 29. a substance is reabsorbed, it moves from the tubular fluid into the peritubular capillaries. ANS: T PTS: 1 30. By tubular secretion, substances leave the blood and enter the tubular portion of the nephron. ANS: T PTS: 1 31. In active reabsorption, all of the steps involved in transepithelial transport are active. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 32. Transepithelial transport occurs only for substances that are actively reabsorbed. ANS: F PTS: 1 33. The Tm represents the maximum amount of a particular substance that can be excreted in the urine per unit of time. ANS: F PTS: 1 34. The amount of glucose filtered is directly proportional to the plasma glucose concentration at all plasma glucose concentrations. ANS: T PTS: 1 35. The amount of glucose reabsorbed is directly proportional to the plasma glucose concentration at all plasma glucose concentrations. ANS: F PTS: 1 36. The renal threshold represents the maximum amount of a particular substance that the tubular cells are capable of actively reabsorbing per unit of time. ANS: F PTS: 1 37. For a substance to be actively reabsorbed, all of the steps of transepithelial transport require energy expenditure. ANS: F PTS: 1 38. The tubular cells display a Tm for urea. ANS: F PTS: 1 39. The renal threshold for glucose is well above the normal plasma glucose concentration, but the renal threshold for PO4 is equal to the normal plasma PO4 concentration. ANS: T PTS: 1 40. During acidosis, H+ secretion increases. ANS: T PTS: 1 41. The secretion of aldosterone stimulates the tubular reabsorption of sodium and the tubular secretion of potassium. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 42. A rise in ECF K+ concentration leads to increased excitability of heart muscle, possibly producing fatal cardiac arrhythmias. ANS: T PTS: 1 43. The Na+ cotransport system in the proximal tubule facilitates elimination of foreign organic compounds from the body. ANS: F PTS: 1 44. ACE inhibitor drugs promote diuresis by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II. ANS: T PTS: 1 45. Water reabsorption cannot occur from any portion of the nephron in the absence of vasopressin. ANS: F PTS: 1 46. Vasopressin increases H2O reabsorption in the proximal tubule. ANS: F PTS: 1 47. The secretion of vasopressin increases if the extracellular fluid becomes hypertonic. ANS: T PTS: 1 48. Urea is passively reabsorbed down the osmotic gradient created by active Na+ reabsorption. ANS: F PTS: 1 49. Tubular secretion involves the movement of substances from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular fluid. ANS: T PTS: 1 50. The liver converts many foreign organic compounds into an anionic form that can be secreted by the organic anion secretory system. ANS: T PTS: 1 51. Angiotensinogen is produced by the kidney. ANS: F PTS: 1 52. Tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion are highly selective processes, whereas glomerular filtration is not. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 53. The clearance rate for a substance that is filtered and secreted but not reabsorbed is greater than the GFR. ANS: T PTS: 1 54. The clearance rate for inulin is greater than the GFR. ANS: F PTS: 1 55. A plasma clearance of 135 mL/min for a substance when the GFR is 125 mL/min indicates that net secretion of the substance occurs. ANS: T PTS: 1 56. If a substance is filtered and secreted but not reabsorbed, its plasma clearance rate is always less than the GFR. ANS: F PTS: 1 57. The osmolarity of the medullary interstitial fluid always equilibrates with the descending limb of the loop of Henle. ANS: T PTS: 1 58. The driving force for H2O reabsorption across all permeable segments of the kidney tubule is an osmotic gradient. ANS: T PTS: 1 59. The receptor sites for vasopressin binding are located on the basolateral border, yet the end result is an increase in H2O permeability of the luminal border of the tubular cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 60. In the tubular segments permeable to H2O, solute reabsorption is always accompanied by comparable H2O reabsorption. ANS: T PTS: 1 61. ADH release is the main stimulus for the secretion of aldosterone. ANS: F PTS: 1 62. The permeability and transport properties of the loops of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons are important in establishing the vertical osmotic gradient in the renal medulla. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 63. NaCl is actively transported from the descending limb of the loop of Henle to establish the medullary osmotic gradient. ANS: F PTS: 1 64. When tubular fluid enters the distal tubule, it is hypotonic. ANS: T PTS: 1 65. Aldosterone promotes water reabsorption by controlling the reabsorption of salt. ANS: T PTS: 1 66. The presence of vasopressin acts to prevent the reabsorption of water from the distal and collecting tubules. ANS: F PTS: 1 67. Because of countercurrent multiplication, the loop of Henle is able to establish a vertical osmotic gradient in the renal medulla ranging from 300 to 1,200 mosm/litre, despite the fact that the active salt pump of the ascending limb is able to produce only a 200 mosm/litre osmotic gradient at each horizontal level. ANS: T PTS: 1 68. A pure loss or gain of H2O that is not accompanied by comparable solute deficit or excess in the body leads to changes in ECF osmolarity. ANS: T PTS: 1 69. Changes in the osmolarity of the extracellular fluid are detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus. ANS: T PTS: 1 70. Acute renal failure may be reversible, whereas chronic renal failure is not reversible. ANS: T PTS: 1 71. Urine moves from the kidneys to the urinary bladder through the ureters passively by the force of gravity. ANS: F PTS: 1 72. The micturition reflex controls bladder emptying in adults. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 73. When urine is eliminated from the body, the sphincter muscles in the urethra relax. ANS: T PTS: 1 74. During the micturition reflex, the motor neuron supplying the external urethral sphincter is stimulated. ANS: F PTS: 1 75. The average rate of urine formation is 1 mL/min. ANS: T PTS: 1 76. The epithelial lining of the bladder passively stretches to accommodate a larger volume during bladder filling. ANS: F PTS: 1 77. One can deliberately prevent urination in spite of the micturition reflex by voluntarily inhibiting the parasympathetic supply to the bladder to halt bladder contraction. ANS: F PTS: 1 78. Vasopressin is secreted from the anterior pituitary gland. ANS: F PTS: 1 79. The smooth muscle of the bladder is innervated by parasympathetic fibres. ANS: T PTS: 1 COMPLETION 1. The functional unit of the kidneys is the ____________________. ANS: nephron PTS: 1 2. Urine is eliminated from the bladder through the ____________________. ANS: urethra PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 3. The two regions of the kidney are an outer ____________________ and an inner ____________________. ANS: cortex, medulla PTS: 1 4. Tubular ____________________ and tubular ____________________ are selective processes that occur in the nephron. ANS: reabsorption, secretion secretion, reabsorption, PTS: 1 5. GFR = ____________________ ?6? ____________________. ANS: Kf, net filtration pressure net filtration pressure, Kf PTS: 1 6. The specialized cells of the ____________________ within the ____________________ detect changes in the rate at which fluid is flowing past them through the tubule. In response, they secrete vasoactive chemicals that influence the GFR by making adjustments in the calibre of the ____________________ arterioles. This is known as the ____________________ feedback mechanism. ANS: macula densa, juxtaglomerular apparatus, afferent, tubulo-glomerular PTS: 1 7. The energy-dependent step in Na+ reabsorption involves the ____________________ located at the ____________________ membrane of the tubular cell. ANS: Na+–K+ pump, basolateral PTS: 1 8. ____________________ is a group of intrinsic mechanisms in the kidneys that prevent changes in the GRF. ANS: Autoregulation PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 9. If the plasma concentration of substance X is 200 mg/100 mL and the GFR is 125 mL/min, the filtered load of this substance is ____________________. ANS: 250 mg/min PTS: 1 10. If the Tm for substance X is 200 mg/min, ____________________(how much) of the substance will be reabsorbed at a plasma concentration of 200 mg/100 mL and a GFR of 125 mL/min? ____________________(how much) of substance X will be excreted. ANS: 200 mg/min, 50 mg/min PTS: 1 11. The plasma concentration of a particular substance at which its Tm is reached and the substance first starts appearing in the urine is known as the ____________________. ANS: renal threshold PTS: 1 12. Each tuft of glomerular capillaries is held together by ____________________ cells. ANS: mesangial PTS: 1 13. The ____________________ transforms many foreign organic compounds into ionic form, which facilitates their elimination from the body because such conversion enables them to be secreted by the organic anion transport system. ANS: liver PTS: 1 14. On average, of the 125 mL/min of plasma filtered, ____________________ mL/min is reabsorbed, and ____________________ mL/min is excreted as urine. ANS: 124, 1 PTS: 1 15. By reabsorption, substances leave the tubules of the nephrons and return to the blood in the ____________________. ANS: peritubular capillaries PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 16. The plasma clearance of the harmless foreign compound ____________________ is equal to the GFR. ANS: inulin PTS: 1 17. The plasma clearance of the organic anion ____________________ is equal to the renal plasma flow. ANS: para-aminohippuric acid PTS: 1 18. ____________________ are water channels in the tubular cells of the nephron. ANS: Aquaporins PTS: 1 19. ____________________ percent of the filtered H2O is variably reabsorbed under the control of the hormone ____________________ in the distal and collecting tubules. ANS: Twenty, vasopressin PTS: 1 20. Vasopressin is also known as ____________________, indicative of its effect on the kidneys. ANS: antidiuretic hormone PTS: 1 21. ____________________ is an actively reabsorbed substance that does not have a tubular maximum for reabsorption. ANS: Sodium PTS: 1 22. ____________________ is increased urinary output of H2O with little or no increase in excretion of solutes; ____________________ refers to increased excretion of both H2O and solutes. ANS: Water diuresis, osmotic diuresis PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 23. ____________________ renal failure has a rapid onset but may be reversible; ____________________ renal failure is slow, progressive, and irreversible. ANS: Acute, chronic PTS: 1 24. ____________________ percent of the renal tissue can adequately perform all excretory and regulatory functions of the kidney. ANS: Twenty-five PTS: 1 25. ____________________ is the inability to prevent the discharge of urine. ANS: Urinary incontinence PTS: 1 26. Two means by which substances can enter the renal tubules are ____________________ and ____________________ Two means by which substances can leave the kidney tubules are ____________________ and ____________________. ANS: -glomerular filtration, tubular secretion, tubular reabsorption, urine excretion -tubular secretion, glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, urine excretion -glomerular filtration, tubular secretion, urine excretion, tubular reabsorption, -tubular secretion, glomerular filtration, urine excretion, tubular reabsorption, -tubular secretion, glomeruler filtration, urine excretion, tubular reabsorption PTS: 1 27. Body fluids are ____________________ at 300 mosm/litre. ANS: isotonic PTS: 1 28. The micturition reflex is initiated by stimulating ____________________ receptors in the bladder. ANS: stretch PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System 29. The micturition reflex centre is located in the ____________________ region of the spinal cord. ANS: sacral PTS: 1 MATCHING Match the renal function with the correct characteristic by using the answer code: a. movement of substances from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular lumen b. movement of substances from the glomerular capillary blood into the tubular lumen c. everything filtered or secreted that is not subsequently reabsorbed d. movement of substances from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capillary blood 1. glomerular filtration 2. tubular reabsorption 3. tubular secretion 4. urine excretion 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 2. ANS: D PTS: 1 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 4. ANS: C PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System Match the correct statement about sodium reabsorption by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. sodium reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules b. sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule c. sodium reabsorption coupled with chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle 5. plays a pivotal role in the reabsorption of glucose, amino acids, H2O, Cl–, and urea 6. subject to hormonal control 7. plays a critical role in the kidneys’ ability to produce urine of varying concentrations and volumes 8. important in the regulation of ECF volume 9. represents 67 percent of Na+ reabsorbed 10. represents 25 percent of Na+ reabsorbed 11. represents 8 percent of Na+ reabsorbed 5. ANS: B PTS: 1 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 7. ANS: C PTS: 1 8. ANS: A PTS: 1 9. ANS: B PTS: 1 10. ANS: C PTS: 1 11. ANS: A PTS: 1 Match the renal structure or activity with the correct characteristic by using the answer code: a. collecting tubules empty into this structure b. stores the urine c. passage of substances from the peritubular into the tubular lumen d. carries blood to the glomerulus e. tuft of capillaries that forms the filtrate f. passage of protein-free plasma into Bowman’s capsule g. urine is forced through this structure by peristalsis h. collects the glomerular filtrate i. passage of substances from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capillaries j. functional unit of the kidney k. supplies the renal tissue with O2 and nutrients l. carries blood from one capillary network to another capillary network m. tube through which urine leaves the body n. variable water and sodium reabsorption occur here under hormonal control o. responsible for the vertical osmotic gradient in the medulla of the kidney p. glucose and amino acid reabsorption occur hereChapter 12: The Urinary System 12. afferent arteriole 13. renal pelvis 14. tubular reabsorption 15. tubular secretion 16. glomerular filtration 17. distal and collecting capillaries tubules 18. Bowman’s capsule 19. peritubular capillary 20. ureter 21. proximal tubule 22. loop of Henle 23. urethra 24. efferent arteriole 25. urinary bladder 26. glomerulus 27. nephron 12. ANS: D PTS: 1 13. ANS: A PTS: 1 14. ANS: I PTS: 1 15. ANS: C PTS: 1 16. ANS: F PTS: 1 17. ANS: N PTS: 1 18. ANS: H PTS: 1 19. ANS: K PTS: 1 20. ANS: G PTS: 1 21. ANS: P PTS: 1 22. ANS: O PTS: 1 23. ANS: M PTS: 1 24. ANS: L PTS: 1 25. ANS: B PTS: 1 26. ANS: E PTS: 1 27. ANS: J PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System Indicate whether the first item in the statement increases, decreases, or has no effect on the second item by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. increases b. decreases c. has no effect on 28. Increased osmolarity of body fluids _____ vasopressin secretion. 29. Decreased vasopressin secretion _____ H2O reabsorption. 30. Decreased Na+ in body fluids (Na+ depletion) _____ renin secretion. 31. Increased renin secretion _____ angiotensin I activation. 32. Increased vasopressin secretion _____ urinary output. 33. Increased angiotensin II activation _____ aldosterone secretion. 34. Increased aldosterone secretion _____ Na+ reabsorption. 35. Increased vasopressin secretion _____ Na+ reabsorption. 28. ANS: A PTS: 1 29. ANS: B PTS: 1 30. ANS: A PTS: 1 31. ANS: A PTS: 1 32. ANS: B PTS: 1 33. ANS: A PTS: 1 34. ANS: A PTS: 1 35. ANS: C PTS: 1 Indicate which substance in the top column undergoes the process in the lower column by using the answer code: a. K+ b. glucose c. inulin d. plasma protein e. urea f. H+ 36. filtered and actively reabsorbed but not secreted 37. filtered and passively reabsorbed 38. filtered and secreted, but not reabsorbed 39. filtered and both actively reabsorbed and actively secreted 40. filtered but not reabsorbed or secreted 41. not filtered 36. ANS: B PTS: 1 37. ANS: E PTS: 1 38. ANS: F PTS: 1 39. ANS: A PTS: 1 40. ANS: C PTS: 1 41. ANS: D PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System Match the urinary system feature with the correct characteristic by using the answer code: a. urea b. creatinine c. uric acid d. Na+ e. glucose 42. reabsorbed when H+ is secreted 43. a nitrogen waste product from RNA metabolism 44. a detoxified ammonia compound 45. protein metabolite of skeletal muscle tissue 46. reabsorbed actively and passively 42. ANS: D PTS: 1 43. ANS: C PTS: 1 44. ANS: A PTS: 1 45. ANS: B PTS: 1 46. ANS: E PTS: 1 Indicate whether the factor in question would ultimately lead to an increase or a decrease in Na+ reabsorption by means of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. an increase in Na+ reabsorption b. a decrease in Na+ reabsorption 47. a precipitous fall in arterial blood pressure as during a haemorrhage 48. a reduction in total Na+ load in the body 49. a reduction in ECF volume 47. ANS: A PTS: 1 48. ANS: A PTS: 1 49. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System Match the chemicals below with the correct characteristic by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. renin b. angiotensinogen c. angiotensin I d. angiotensin II e. aldosterone f. atrial natriuretic peptide 50. directly stimulates Na+ reabsorption by the distal and collecting tubules 51. acted upon by renin 52. secreted by the adrenal cortex 53. produced by the liver 54. acted upon by converting enzyme 55. its secretion is directly stimulated by angiotensin II 56. stimulates K+ secretion by the distal and collecting tubules 57. is secreted from the granular cells of the renal juxtaglomerular apparatus 58. inhibits Na+ reabsorption by the renal tubules 59. its secretion is directly stimulated by a low plasma K+ concentration 60. a potent constrictor of arterioles 50. ANS: E PTS: 1 51. ANS: B PTS: 1 52. ANS: E PTS: 1 53. ANS: B PTS: 1 54. ANS: C PTS: 1 55. ANS: E PTS: 1 56. ANS: E PTS: 1 57. ANS: A PTS: 1 58. ANS: F PTS: 1 59. ANS: E PTS: 1 60. ANS: D PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System ESSAY 1. Explain how glomerular filtration rate is regulated. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. Describe the mechanisms by which the kidney produces concentrated urine. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. Compare and contrast renal actions at the proximal and distal tubule. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4. Describe micturition in an adult and baby. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. What are the pathological effects of renal failure? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 12: The Urinary System PROBLEM 1. Indicate whether the portion of the tubule in question is permeable or impermeable to the substance in question by using the following answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). a. permeable b. impermeable ____ The ascending limb of Henle’s loop is ______ to H2O. ____ The descending limb of Henle’s loop is ______ to H2O. ____ The vasa recta is ______ to salt and ______ to H2O. ____ The distal and collecting tubules in the absence of vasopressin are ______ to H2O. ____ The distal and collecting tubules in the presence of vasopressin are ______ to H2O. ANS: b, a, a, a, b, a PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is variation in percentage of body water among individuals primarily due to? __________ a. differences in amount of adipose tissue b. differences in total muscle mass c. differences in vasopressin secretion d. differences in drinking habits ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 554 BLM: Remember 2. The largest percentage of water is located in what “compartment?” a. synovial fluids b. plasma c. interstitial fluids d. intracellular fluids ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 555 BLM: Remember 3. Which tissues in the body contain the lowest percentage of water? a. blood b. skeleton c. muscle d. adipose ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 555 BLM: Remember 4. Which constitutes the largest percentage of body weight? a. protein b. H2O c. Na+ d. carbohydrate ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 555 BLM: Remember 5. The ICF contains about how much of the total water of the body? a. 1/10 b. ¼ c. ½ d. 2/3 ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 555 BLM: RememberChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 6. What exists when total body input of a particular substance equals its total body output? a. positive balance b. negative balance c. stable balance d. state of equilibrium ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 554 BLM: Remember 7. Which statement is NOT true concerning extracellular fluid? a. It includes plasma. b. It includes interstitial fluid. c. It constitutes a greater percentage of total body water than does intracellular fluid. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 555 BLM: Remember 8. Which of following is the transcellular fluid that serves as a shock absorber in the joints? a. Intraocular b. Pericardial c. Peritoneal d. Synovial ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 555 BLM: Remember 9. Which statement is NOT true concerning interstitial fluid? a. It is the largest component of the extracellular fluid. b. It is the true internal environment of the body. c. It represents a larger percentage of total body weight than does intracellular fluid. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 555 BLM: Remember 10. Which statement is correct concerning transcellular fluid? a. It is the sum of fluid within all of the cells. b. It consists of a number of small specialized fluid volumes, all of which are secreted by specific cells into a particular body cavity to perform a specialized function. c. It plays a crucial role in fluid balance. d. It includes the lymph. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 555 BLM: Remember 11. What is the major source of water loss from the body? a. insensible respiratory loss b. insensible skin loss c. sweat d. urine ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 557 BLM: RememberChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 12. What happens when large amounts of pure water are consumed? a. The volume of the ICF will decrease. b. The volume of the ECF will decrease. c. The ECF becomes hypertonic to the ICF. d. Osmolarities of the ICF and ECF will drop. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 559 BLM: Remember 13. What happens when water is lost from the ECF but electrolytes are retained? a. Both ECF and ICF become more dilute. b. Osmosis moves water from the ICF to the ECF. c. The osmolarity of the ECF drops. d. There is an increase in the volume of the ICF. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 559 BLM: Remember 14. What is the barrier between the plasma and interstitial fluid? a. the blood vessel walls b. the plasma membrane c. transports materials between these two fluid compartments by both passive and active means d. the transcellular membrane ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 555 BLM: Remember 15. What is the primary electrolyte in the extracellular fluid? a. calcium ion b. chloride c. potassium ion d. sodium ion ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 557 BLM: Remember 16. What is the primary anion of the ECF? a. bicarbonate b. chloride c. sodium ion d. potassium ion ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 556 BLM: Remember 17. The primary ECF cation is _____, and the primary ICF cation is _____. a. K+, Na+ b. K+, Ca2+ c. Ca2+, Na+ d. Na+, K+ ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 558 BLM: RememberChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 18. Which ion has the greatest concentration in the cytoplasm? a. calcium ion b. chloride c. phosphate d. potassium ion ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 558 BLM: Remember 19. What is the primary reason that extracellular fluid volume must be closely regulated? a. to prevent changes in ICF osmolarity b. to maintain adequate urine formation c. to maintain proper blood pressure d. to prevent cells from swelling or shrinking ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 556 BLM: Remember 20. Why would eating a very salty snack make you thirsty? a. It would cause decreased ECF volume. b. It would decrease the osmolarity of the ECF. c. It would inhibit the hypothalamic osmoreceptors. d. It would stimulate the hypothalamic osmoreceptors. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 562 BLM: Higher Order 21. Which of the following is not true about the compensatory measures for a fall in arterial blood pressure? a. increased cardiac output and increased total peripheral resistance as a result of the baroreceptor reflex b. a shift of fluid out of the vasculature into the interstitial compartment c. a reduction in the urinary excretion of salt and accompanying fluid ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 557 BLM: Remember 22. What is the most important factor in the long-term regulation of ECF volume? a. maintenance of salt balance b. maintenance of water balance c. the baroreceptor reflex d. fluid shifts between the interstitial fluid and plasma ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 557 BLM: Remember 23. What contributes the vast majority of the extracellular fluid’s osmotic activity? a. plasma proteins b. Na+ and its attendant anions c. K+ and its attendant anions d. Ca2+ and its attendant anions ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 558 BLM: RememberChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 24. How do the baroreceptor reflexes affect sodium balance? a. by causing release of renin b. by causing the release of vasopressin c. by lowering GFR through vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles d. by lowering GFR through vasodilation of afferent arterioles ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 558 BLM: Remember 25. Which mechanism does NOT directly or indirectly control sodium? a. the baroreceptor reflexes b. the renin-angiotensin mechanism c. aldosterone activity d. altering gastrointestinal absorption ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 558 BLM: Remember 26. What would be triggered by a drop in arterial blood pressure? a. decreased GFR b. release of aldosterone c. increased sodium reabsorption d. decreased chloride excretion ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 558 BLM: Remember 27. What is the amount of Na+ filtered equal to? a. CMO ?6? GRF b. plasma concentration ?6? CMO c. plasma concentration ?6? GRF d. urine output ?6? CMO ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 558 BLM: Remember 28. What happens if an individual becomes dehydrated? a. Increased facultative reabsorption of water occurs. b. Urinary output increases. c. Vasopressin secretion is decreased. d. The ECF osmolarity becomes hypotonic. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 559 BLM: Remember 29. What is NOT a potential cause of hypertonicity in the body? a. water deprivation b. heavy sweating c. excess vasopressin secretion d. diabetes insipidus ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 559 BLM: RememberChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 30. Which statement is NOT true concerning diabetes insipidus? a. It is due to excess vasopressin secretion. b. It is due to vasopressin deficiency. c. It gives rise to hypertonicity of the ECF. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 559 BLM: Remember 31. When the ECF becomes hypertonic, water __________ a. Water movement is unaffected. b. Water moves into the cells by active transport. c. Water moves into the cells by osmosis. d. Water moves out of the cells by osmosis. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 559 BLM: Remember 32. What is the importance of regulating ECF osmolarity? a. to help maintain blood pressure b. to prevent the urine from becoming too concentrated c. to prevent fluid shifts between the cells and the extracellular fluid, which could produce profound symptoms as the cells swell or shrink d. to prevent spontaneous depolarization of nerve and muscle cell membranes because of shifts in Na+ balance ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 558 BLM: Remember 33. What is the main control for salt balance? a. control of salt intake b. control of salt output in the sweat c. control of salt output in the feces d. control of salt output in the urine ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 557 BLM: Remember 34. Which statement concerning hypotonicity is correct? a. During hypotonicity, water enters the cells by osmosis. b. The only cause of hypotonicity is drinking excess fluid. c. Hypotonicity is a major consequence of diabetes mellitus, which is a deficiency of vasopressin. d. Hypotonicity is usually associated with a negative water balance. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 560 BLM: Remember 35. Which statement is not true if an individual is overhydrated? a. H2O will move by osmosis into the cells. b. Both the ECF and ICF compartments will be hypertonic after the fluid shift has occurred. c. Symptoms might include confusion, headache, lethargy, weakness, and edema. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 560 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 36. What will happen if the ECF’s osmolarity increases? a. Water will shift from the ICF into the ECF. b. Water will not shift between the ECF and the ICF. c. Water will move from the ECF into the ICF. d. Vasopressin secretion will decrease. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 560 BLM: Higher Order 37. Which one of the following will NOT occur during water intoxication? a. ICF hypotonicity b. ECF hypotonicity circulatory c. excess free water retention d. water movement from ICF to ECF ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 560 BLM: Remember 38. What will happen when isotonic fluid is added to the ECF? a. Fluid will shift from the ICF into the ECF b. Fluid will not shift between the ECF and ICF c. Fluid will shift from the ECF into the ICF d. Fluid will move the solutes out from ICF ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 560 BLM: Remember 39. Which statement is correct for salt balance in humans? a. It depends primarily upon control of Na+ intake through salt hunger. b. It depends primarily upon control of Na+ output by the kidneys. c. It is poorly regulated. d. It depends upon Na+ secretion by the kidneys. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 556 BLM: Higher Order 40. Which statement concerning hypotonicity of the body fluids is INCORRECT? a. Hypotonicity can occur as a result of diabetes insipidus. b. Hypotonicity occurs when excess free H2O is present. c. Drowsiness, headache, confusion, lethargy, weakness, and edema are symptoms associated with hypotonicity. d. cells become swollen. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 560 BLM: Remember 41. Hypothalamic osmoreceptors are nearest to which of the following? a. angiotensin-secreting cells b. carotid baroreceptors c. the adrenal cortex d. sopressin-secreting cells ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 562 BLM: RememberChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 42. What does NOT happen when there is excess Na+ in the body? a. The plasma volume is expanded, and arterial blood pressure is increased. b. As a compensatory measure, the GFR is increased. c. As a compensatory measure, aldosterone secretion is increased to increase the amount of Na+ reabsorbed. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 558 BLM: Remember 43. The amount of Na+ excreted in the urine equals the amount of Na+ _____ minus the amount of Na+ _____. a. filtered, reabsorbed b. ingested, filtered c. ingested, metabolically consumed d. ingested, placed in storage ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 558 BLM: Remember 44. Which of the following is NOT a source of water input? a. fluid intake b. ingested food c. osmotic diuresis ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 561 BLM: Remember 45. Which statement isNOT true for metabolic water? a. It results from cellular respiration. b. It is roughly 15% of daily water input. c. Its production increases during times of dehydration to compensate for water loss. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 561 BLM: Remember 46. Insensible water loss includes loss ___________ a. during cellular metabolism b. from the lungs c. from sweat d. in the feces ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 561 BLM: Remember 47. What is the primary regulatory mechanism to maintain water balance in the body? a. control of intake through thirst b. control of sweating c. control of output through regulation of urine production by the kidney d. oral metering ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 561 BLM: RememberChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 48. When is the thirst mechanism NOT invoked? a. when the plasma osmolarity increases b. when the plasma osmolarity decreases c. when hypothalamic osmoreceptors are activated ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 561 BLM: Higher Order 49. Which statement is NOT true for vasopressin? a. It is released when hypothalamic osmoreceptors are activated. b. atrial volume are activated. c. It causes increased systemic vasoconstriction. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 562 BLM: Remember 50. Which statement about acids is INCORRECT ? a. Carbohydrates are acidic. b. HCl is one example. c. They can be strong or weak. d. They dissociate to produce anions. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 564 BLM: Remember 51. Which statement concerning acids is INCORRECT? a. Acids can dissociate in solution to yield free hydrogen ions and anions. b. All substances that contain hydrogen are considered to be acids. c. A strong acid has a greater tendency to dissociate than does a weak acid. d. The extent of dissociation for a given acid is a constant, K. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 564 BLM: Remember 52. Which acid would be considered a strong acid? a. one with a dissociation constant (K) = 0.05 b. one with a dissociation constant (K) = 0.10 c. one with a dissociation constant (K) = 0.47 d. one with a dissociation constant (K) = 0.99 ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 564 BLM: Remember 53. Which statement concerning pH is NOT true? a. It equals the logarithm to the base 10 of the reciprocal of the hydrogen-ion concentration. b. It can be calculated if the HCO3– and CO2 concentration in the body fluids is known, even if the H+ concentration is unknown. c. It is lower in arterial blood than venous blood. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 566 BLM: RememberChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 54. Which statement concerning pH is NOT true? a. It is equal to log 1/[H+]. b. It is equal to pK + log [HCO3–]/[CO2]. c. It is high when acidosis is present. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 566 BLM: Remember 55. Given the following information, what is the pH? ratio of [HCO3]/[CO2] = 20/0.5 pK = 6.1 log of 10 = 1.0 log of 20 = 1.3 log of 40 = 1.6 a. pH = 7.0 b. pH = 7.4 c. = 7.7 d. It is impossible to determine the pH with the information provided. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 566 BLM: Higher Order 56. A pH of 4 is how many times as acidic as a pH of 7? a. 10 b. 100 c. 1,000 d. 10,000 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 566 BLM: Higher Order 57. What is the pH of a solution with a H+ concentration of 0.0000567? a. between 4 and 5 b. between 5 and 6 c. between 6 and 7 d. between 7 and 8 ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 566 BLM: Higher Order 58. What is NOT influenced by a change in the pH of body fluids? a. phosphate excretion b. enzyme activity c. potassium excretion d. protein shape and activity ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 566 BLM: Remember 59. Which symptom(s) is/are associated with acidosis? a. extreme nervousness b. disorientation and coma c. “pins and needles” sensations d. muscle twitches and muscle spasms ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 567 BLM: RememberChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 60. An increased secretion of H ions in the kidney has the greatest direct effect on the tubular secretion of which type of ions? a. calcium b. chloride c. phosphate d. potassium ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 567 BLM: Remember 61. Which symptom(s) is/are NOT associated with alkalosis? a. disorientation and coma b. “pins and needles” sensations. c. muscle twitches and muscle spasms d. extreme nervousness ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 567 BLM: Remember 62. Which statement concerning normal blood pH is not True? a. It is slightly basic. b. It is slightly alkaline. c. It falls between 7.35 and 7.45. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 567 BLM: Remember 63. What is normally the major source of hydrogen ions in the body? a. phosphoric and sulfuric acids formed during the metabolism of dietary proteins b. lactic acid production by the muscles during exercise c. carbonic acid generated from metabolically produced CO2 d. natural acids found in foods, such as citric acid ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 567 BLM: Remember 64. What is the primary buffer system in the ECF? a. bicarbonate/carbonic acid b. chloride/hydrochloric acid c. haemoglobin d. Phosphate ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 568 BLM: Remember 65. Which chemical buffer system primary buffers against carbonic acid changes? a. Bicarbonate b. Protein c. haemoglobin d. Phosphate ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 568 BLM: RememberChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 66. Which statement concerning chemical buffer systems is INCORRECT? a. A chemical buffer system consists of a pair of substances involved in a reversible reaction, one that can yield free H+ and one that can bind with free H+. b. A chemical buffer system minimizes changes in the pH of a solution when an acid or base is added to or removed from the solution. c. Buffers respond to pH changes in three minutes. d. A buffer system cannot actually eliminate hydrogen ions from the body. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 568 BLM: Higher Order 67. Which statement concerning chemical buffer systems is correct? a. They respond in one to three minutes to changes in hydrogen ion concentration. b. They stimulate the respiratory centre when acidosis is present. c. They promote H+ excretion by the kidneys when acidosis is present. d. They buffer changes in acid or base levels. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 568 BLM: Remember 68. Which statement concerning chemical buffer systems is correct? a. They can act within a fraction of a second to buffer changes in [H+]. b. They are the only mechanism available for regulating changes in [H+] within the body. c. They actually eliminate acid from the body. d. They actually eliminate bicarbonate from the body. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 568 BLM: Remember 69. H+ generated at the tissue level from CO2 is buffered in transit between the tissues and the lungs primarily by what? a. haemoglobin b. phosphate buffer system c. H2CO3: HCO3– buffer system d. plasma proteins ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 568 BLM: Remember 70. Which statement concerning the respiratory mechanism of pH control is INCORRECT? a. Respiratory rate and depth increase as a compensatory measure to combat metabolic acidosis. b. The respiratory system can compensate completely for metabolic acidosis. c. The respiratory responses to acid–base imbalances represent the second line of defence against changes in pH of the body fluids. d. Metabolic alkalosis inhibits (depresses) respiration. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 568 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 71. Which statement concerning the respiratory mechanism of pH control is correct? a. Respiratory rate and depth decrease as a compensatory measure to combat metabolic acidosis. b. The respiratory system can compensate completely for uremic acidosis. c. Metabolic alkalosis inhibits (depresses) the respiratory centre. d. The respiratory responses to acid–base imbalances represent the first line of defence against changes in pH of the body fluids. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 568 BLM: Remember 72. When the concentration of H+ increases above normal, what is the compensating response? a. decreased excretion of H+ in the urine b. increased concentration of H+ in the plasma c. increased reabsorption of all filtered bicarbonate ions d. increased secretion of aldosterone from the posterior pituitary ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 568 BLM: Remember 73. If the tubular filtrate becomes too acidic, what is secreted by the tubular epithelial cells to buffer the secreted H+? a. HCO3– b. OH– c. NH3 d. NH4+ ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 575 BLM: Remember 74. The kidney tubular cells secrete NH3 ____________________________ a. when the urinary pH becomes too high. b. when the body is in a state of alkalosis. c. to buffer the acid phosphate excreted in the urine. d. to enable further renal secretion of H+. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 575 BLM: Remember 75. If the [HCO3–]/[CO2] is 20/2, what is the situation? a. uncompensated respiratory acidosis b. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis c. uncompensated metabolic acidosis d. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 577 BLM: Remember 76. Which statement is NOT true for a patient with lung congestion? a. He would have higher levels of carbonic acid in the blood. b. He would have a slower respiratory rate. c. He would be making use of chemical buffers to a greater extent. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 579 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 77. Which statement concerning HCO3– excretion by the kidneys is INCORRECT? a. During HCO3– reabsorption, HCO3– in the tubular fluid is actively cotransported by K+. b. HCO3– is not excreted at pH = 7.4. c. Secretion of H+ is accompanied by the addition of new HCO3– to the plasma. d. HCO3– excretion increases during alkalosis. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 578 BLM: Higher Order 78. Which condition would be a cause of metabolic acidosis? a. severe diarrhea b. severe vomiting c. aspirin poisoning d. emphysema ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 578 BLM: Remember 79. Vomiting of gastric contents ________________ a. can lead to dehydration b. can cause metabolic alkalosis c. can lead to dehydration and cause metabolic acidosis d. can lead to dehydration and cause metabolic alkalosis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 578 BLM: Higher Order 80. Which statement concerning the kidneys’ response to increased [H+] in the body fluids is INCORRECT? a. When [H+] increases, the kidneys conserve HCO3– by reabsorbing more HCO3– and reducing its excretion in the urine. b. When [H+] increases, the kidneys secrete more H+ to be eliminated in the urine. c. When [H+] increases, the kidneys secrete more basic phosphate to buffer the H+ in the tubular filtrate. d. When [H+] decreases, the kidneys excrete more HCO3– into the urine. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 578 BLM: Higher Order 81. What happens if the [HCO3]/[CO2] ratio is 40/1? a. The kidneys will decrease H+ excretion and increase HCO3– excretion to compensate. b. Respiration will become shallow and slow to compensate. c. Respiration will become deep and rapid to compensate. d. a and b. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 578 BLM: RememberChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 82. Which statement about chemical buffer systems is INCORRECT? a. Chemical buffer system minimizes changes in the pH of a solution when an acid or base is added to or removed from the solution. b. They can act within a fraction of a second to buffer changes in hydrogen ion concentration. c. The direction of chemical reaction in buffer systems acts according to the law of mass action. d. They promote H+ excretion by the kidneys when acidosis is present. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 568 BLM: Higher Order 83. Which statement concerning osmolarity is correct? a. Hypertonic solution has a higher concentration of solutes and a lower concentration of H2O than an isotonic solution. b. When the body becomes dehydrated (H2O deficit), urinary output increases as compensatory measures. c. Sopressin secretion is decreased when a deficit of water develops in the body. d. Diabetes insipidus often leads to hypotonicity of the body fluids. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 558 BLM: Higher Order 84. Which statement most accurately describes the role of angiotensin II? a. It increases Na+ reabsorption by stimulating aldosterone secretion. b. It suppresses the thirst centre at the brain. c. It is activated when ECF volume and arterial blood pressure are increased. d. It decreases Na+ reabsorption by inhibiting the secretion of vasopressin. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 563 BLM: Remember 85. Which statement concerning transcellular fluid is correct? a. It is the sum of fluid within all of the cells. b. It consists of a number of small specialized fluid volumes, all of which are secreted by specific cells into a particular body cavity to perform a specialized function. c. It is important functionally and plays a crucial role in the body’s fluid balance. d. It includes the lymph fluid that returned from the interstitial fluid to the plasma. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 555 BLM: Remember Refer to the acid–base abnormality that would result from extensive pneumonia in which gas exchange is impaired. 86. If a patient has extensive pneumonia, what would be the patient’s PCO2 before compensation occurs? a. decreased b. increased c. normal ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 577 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 87. As a consequence of this change in PCO2, what would be the patient’s [H+] ? a. decreased b. increased c. normal ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 577 BLM: Higher Order 88. What would be the pH of the patient’s body fluids? a. below normal b. normal c. normal. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 577 BLM: Higher Order 89. Which acid–base abnormalities would be present? a. respiratory alkalosis b. respiratory acidosis c. metabolic alkalosis d. metabolic acidosis ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 577 BLM: Higher Order 90. Which [HCO3–]/[CO2] ratios might exist in this condition? a. 40/1 b. 10/1 c. 20/2 d. 20/5 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 577 BLM: Higher Order 91. Given the following logarithms, what would be the pH? log of 20 = 1.3 log of 40 = 1.6 log of 10 = 1.0 pK = 6.1 a. pH = 7.7 b. pH = 7.4 c. pH = 7.1 d. none of these answers ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 577 BLM: Higher Order 92. The first line of defence against this change in [H+] is the chemical buffer systems. Which primary buffer system will respond to this change? a. phosphate buffer system b. NH4+: NH3 buffer system c. protein buffer system d. haemoglobin buffer system ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 577 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 93. The second line of defence will be the respiratory mechanism of pH control. Which statement concerning respiratory response in this situation is correct? a. The respiratory mechanism of pH control cannot occur in this situation. b. Faster, deeper respirations will occur to compensate for the change in [H+]. c. Slower, shallower respirations will occur to compensate for the change in [H+]. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 577 BLM: Higher Order 94. The third line of defence will be the renal mechanism of pH control. Which of the following statements of the renal compensations will NOT occur in response to this condition? a. HCO3– excretion will increase. b. H+ excretion will increase. c. NH3 secretion is likely to occur. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 577 BLM: Higher Order TRUE/FALSE 1. Water is the most abundant component of the body, making up over 95 percent of body weight. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. The percentage of body water varies from person to person. ANS: T PTS: 1 3. The tissue with the lowest percentage of water is the skeleton. ANS: F PTS: 1 4. Water is freely permeable through all cell membranes. ANS: T PTS: 1 5. The body normally loses 10 grams of salt daily. ANS: F PTS: 1 6. Intracellular fluid is divided into two compartments, the plasma fluid and the interstitial fluid. ANS: F PTS: 1 7. Extracellular fluid volume depends primarily on the sodium load in the body. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 8. The main reason that extracellular fluid volume must be closely regulated is to prevent fluid shifts from occurring between the ICF and ECF. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. The main reason ECF volume must be regulated is to maintain proper cell volume. ANS: F PTS: 1 10. The secretion of aldosterone promotes the reabsorption of sodium. ANS: T PTS: 1 11. The ECF volume and osmolarity are regulated primarily by the kidneys. ANS: T PTS: 1 12. Cells in a hypertonic ECF tend to lose water by osmosis. ANS: T PTS: 1 13. Osmolarity is a measure of the concentration of the individual solute particles dissolved in a fluid. ANS: T PTS: 1 14. Each intracellular protein exerts more osmotic effect than each intracellular phosphate ion because the proteins are larger. ANS: F PTS: 1 15. Diabetes insipidus develops in the body from a deficiency of insulin. ANS: F PTS: 1 16. Diabetes insipidus often leads to hypertonicity of the body fluids. ANS: T PTS: 1 17. A hypertonic solution has a higher concentration of solutes and a lower concentration of H2O than an isotonic solution. ANS: T PTS: 1 18. A hypotonic solution has a lower concentration of solutes and higher concentration of water than a hypertonic solution. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 19. When the body becomes dehydrated (H2O deficit), both urinary output and thirst increase as compensatory measures. ANS: F PTS: 1 20. Vasopressin is normally secreted when a deficit of water develops in the body. ANS: T PTS: 1 21. The only cause of hypotonicity is drinking excess fluid. ANS: F PTS: 1 22. Hypertonicity in the ECF is sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus. ANS: T PTS: 1 23. Common symptoms of hypotonicity include dry skin, parched tongue, and sunken eyeballs. ANS: F PTS: 1 24. Control of salt balance in humans is accomplished primarily by control of salt intake via a well-developed salt hunger. ANS: F PTS: 1 25. Salt concentration in the body varies markedly between individuals depending on how much salt they consume. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. Renal regulation of salt is the primary means of achieving salt balance. ANS: T PTS: 1 27. Loss of water from the lungs is one example of sensible loss. ANS: F PTS: 1 28. In a normal, healthy person, H2O intake equals H2O output. ANS: T PTS: 1 29. Insensible water loss includes water lost from the lungs during expiration and water lost from the skin during sweating. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 30. Insensible H2O loss includes water lost as a result of metabolic reactions within the cells. ANS: F PTS: 1 31. The primary factor responsible for regulating H2O balance in the body is control of fluid intake via the thirst mechanism. ANS: F PTS: 1 32. The thirst centre is closely related to or perhaps identical to the cells that secrete vasopressin. ANS: T PTS: 1 33. Fluid consumption is influenced by other factors in addition to the thirst mechanism involving osmoreceptors. ANS: T PTS: 1 34. The hypothalamus controls both thirst and vasopressin secretion. ANS: T PTS: 1 35. If the pH of body fluids is 7.3, then alkalosis is present because neutral pH equals 7.0. ANS: F PTS: 1 36. If the pH of body fluids is 7.3, acidosis is said to exist even though a solution with a pH of 7.30 is chemically considered to be basic. ANS: T PTS: 1 37. A pH of 3 is 100 times as acidic as a pH of 5. ANS: T PTS: 1 38. The pH of arterial blood is lower than the pH of venous blood. ANS: T PTS: 1 39. A pH of less than 6.8 or greater than 8.0 is not compatible with life. ANS: T PTS: 1 40. Alkalosis eventually leads to unconsciousness and coma. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 41. Regulation of hydrogen ion concentration is important in the maintenance of proper enzyme function. ANS: T PTS: 1 42. As H+ increases, K+ secretion also increases because of the intimate relationship between H+ secretion and K+ secretion by the kidneys. ANS: F PTS: 1 43. Bicarbonate ions can combine with free H+, removing a source of acidity and opposing acidosis. ANS: T PTS: 1 44. Normally, the major source of H+ in the body is from the formation of sulfuric and phosphoric acid produced during metabolism of dietary proteins that contain sulfate and phosphate groups. ANS: F PTS: 1 45. The major source of H+ in the body fluids is the carbonic acid generated from metabolic production of CO2. ANS: T PTS: 1 46. A chemical buffer system consists of a pair of substances involved in a reversible reaction, one that can yield free H+ and one that can bind with free H+. ANS: T PTS: 1 47. Buffer systems contain strong acids such as HCl. ANS: F PTS: 1 48. A chemical buffer system enables a solution to resist a marked change in pH upon addition or loss of acid or base. ANS: T PTS: 1 49. Chemical buffer systems are the most powerful mechanism available for defending against changes in [H+] because they respond the fastest. ANS: F PTS: 1 50. The phosphate buffer system serves as an important urinary buffer. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 51. During respiratory compensation for metabolic alkalosis, breathing becomes slower and shallower. ANS: T PTS: 1 52. The kidneys are the first line of defence against changes in acid–base balance because they are the most powerful mechanism for maintaining pH. ANS: F PTS: 1 53. Basic phosphate is secreted by the kidney tubular cells to buffer hydrogen ion when the tubular fluid becomes too acidic. ANS: F PTS: 1 54. When [H+] decreases, the kidneys excrete less HCO3– into the urine. ANS: F PTS: 1 55. The kidneys secrete additional H+ and conserve HCO3– to compensate for increased H+ concentration in the body fluids. ANS: T PTS: 1 56. Slow, shallow breathing allows carbonic acid to build up in the blood, returning pH to normal. ANS: T PTS: 1 57. Respiratory alkalosis occurs as a consequence of hyperventilation, because CO2 is blown off more quickly than it is produced, decreasing the amount of carbonic acid in the body fluids. ANS: T PTS: 1 58. The respiratory system can compensate completely for metabolic acidosis. ANS: F PTS: 1 59. Carbon dioxide is unintentionally increased as a cause of respiratory acidosis but is deliberately increased as a compensation for metabolic alkalosis. ANS: T PTS: 1 60. H+ secretion is coupled to bicarbonate reabsorption. ANS: T PTS: 1 61. Bicarbonate ions that enter the plasma during HCO3– reabsorption are not the same HCO3– ions that were filtered. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 62. acidosis, ammonia plays a key role in allowing for continued renal H+ secretion. ANS: T PTS: 1 COMPLETION 1. On average, ____________________% of the body weight consists of H2O. ANS: -60 -sixty PTS: 1 2. The ____________________ fluid provides lubrication for the movements of the heart. ANS: pericardial PTS: 1 3. The quantity of any particular substance in the ECF is considered to be a readily available internal ____________________. ANS: pool PTS: 1 4. When total body input of a particular substance equals its total body output, a ____________________ balance exists. ANS: stable PTS: 1 5. The blood plasma and ____________________ make up the ECF. ANS: interstitial fluid PTS: 1 6. The true internal environment is the ____________________. ANS: interstitial fluid PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 7. The total load of ____________________ determines the total amount of water that will be retained in the ECF by osmosis. ANS: sodium PTS: 1 8. The force responsible for movement of H2O between the ECF and ICF is ____________________. ANS: osmotic pressure differences PTS: 1 9. Baroreceptors are sensitive to changes in the blood ____________________. ANS: pressure PTS: 1 10. The principal ECF cation is ____________________, which is accompanied primarily by the anion ____________________ and to a lesser extent ____________________. ANS: sodium, chloride, bicarbonate PTS: 1 11. ____________________ are too large to pass through the pores in the capillary and enter the interstitial fluid. ANS: Plasma proteins PTS: 1 12. The barrier between the plasma and interstitial fluid is the ____________________. ANS: blood vessel walls PTS: 1 13. Cells change in size by ____________________ when immersed in a hypertonic ECF. ANS: shrinking PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 14. An imbalance in the physical forces, ____________________ and ____________________, is primarily responsible for producing movement of fluid between the plasma and interstitial fluid. ANS: capillary blood pressure, plasma colloid osmotic pressure -plasma colloid osmotic pressure, capillary blood pressure PTS: 1 15. The barrier between the ECF and ICF is the ____________________. ANS: plasma membrane of cells PTS: 1 16. When an isotonic fluid is injected into the ECF compartment, it changes volume by ____________________ in size. ANS: increasing PTS: 1 17. Urine excretion is the most important ____________________ mechanism for controlling water balance. ANS: output PTS: 1 18. The major intracellular cation is ____________________. ANS: potassium PTS: 1 19. ___________________are responsible for the slightly negative charge associated with the plasma membrane. ANS: Proteins PTS: 1 20. Osmoreceptor input normally is the dominant factor for controlling the secretion of ____________________ from the pituitary. ANS: vasopressin PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 21. The amount of Na+ excreted depends on ____________________ minus ____________________. ANS: the amount of Na+ filtered, the amount of Na+ reabsorbed PTS: 1 22. A strong acid dissociates to form ____________________ ions in solution, which influence the pH. ANS: hydrogen PTS: 1 23. A(n) ____________________ is a substance that combines with H+ and removes them from solution. ANS: base PTS: 1 24. The amount of Na+ filtered is controlled by regulating the ____________________. ANS: GFR PTS: 1 25. The amount of Na+ reabsorbed is regulated primarily by the ____________________ system. ANS: renin-angiotensin-aldosterone PTS: 1 26. The pH of venous blood is usually about ____________________. ANS: 7.35 PTS: 1 27. Alkalosis occurs when the pH of the blood is above ____________________. ANS: 7.45 PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 28. The amount of free H2O reabsorbed is regulated primarily by the hormone ____________________. ANS: vasopressin. PTS: 1 29. ____________________ is a change in pH that causes overexcitability of the nervous system. ANS: Alkalosis PTS: 1 30. ____________________ are a special group of hydrogen-containing substances that dissociate in solution to liberate free H+ and anions. ANS: Acids PTS: 1 31. A chemical ____________________ is a mixture of two compounds that resist changes in the pH. ANS: buffer PTS: 1 32. A(n) ____________________ is a substance that can combine with a free H+, thus removing it from solution. ANS: base PTS: 1 33. The ____________________ are the group of molecules that are the most plentiful buffers in the body. ANS: proteins PTS: 1 34. Acidosis changes the rate and depth of breathing by ____________________ it. ANS: increasing PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 35. A pH of ____________________ is considered to be chemically neutral. The normal pH of plasma is ____________________. The pH range compatible with life is ____________________ to ____________________. ANS: 7.0, 7.4, 6.8, 8.0 PTS: 1 36. A chemical buffer system is a(n) ____________________ of chemical compounds involved in a reversible reaction, one that can yield free ____________________and one that can bind free ____________________, which together minimize changes in ____________________ when either an acid or a base in added to or removed from the solution. ANS: pair, H+, H+, pH PTS: 1 37. The filtration rate of H+ equals plasma [H+] times the ____________________. ANS: GFR PTS: 1 38. The secretion of H+ by the tubular cells of the kidney is influenced by the gas ____________________. ANS: carbon dioxide PTS: 1 39. Acidosis leads to the ____________________ secretion of H+ in the urine. ANS: increased PTS: 1 40. The two important urinary buffers are filtered phosphate buffers and secreted ____________________. ANS: ammonia PTS: 1 41. ____________________ acidosis results from the abnormal retention of carbon dioxide. ANS: Respiratory PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 42. An absence of the hormone ____________________ leads to the formation of keto acids in the body. ANS: insulin PTS: 1 43. ____________________ is the acid found in the stomach. ANS: HCl PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance MATCHING Indicate which fluid imbalance is being described by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. overhydration b. dehydration c. both overhydration and dehydration d. neither overhydration or dehydration 1. symptoms include dry skin, parched tongue, and sunken eyeballs 2. water enters the cells by osmosis 3. the body fluids have a lower concentration of solutes than normal 4. ECF and ICF become hypertonic 5. cells become swollen 6. no fluid shift occurs between the ECF and ICF 7. occurs with water deprivation 8. cells shrink 9. ECF and ICF become hypotonic 10. convulsions and coma may occur 11. this occurs as a consequence of diabetes insipidus 12. occurs with heavy vomiting 13. osmolarity of the body fluids is decreased. 14. this occurs as a consequence of excessive fluid intake 15. this occurs as a consequence of excessive vasopressin secretion 16. vasopressin secretion is stimulated as a compensatory mechanism 17. increased urinary output occurs as a compensatory mechanism 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 5. ANS: A PTS: 1 6. ANS: D PTS: 1 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 10. ANS: C PTS: 1 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 12. ANS: B PTS: 1 13. ANS: A PTS: 1 14. ANS: A PTS: 1 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 16. ANS: B PTS: 1 17. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance A person with diarrhea loses excessive salt and water from the body. This fluid loss results in Na+ depletion, dehydration, a decreased extracellular fluid volume, a reduction in plasma volume, and a decreased systemic arterial blood pressure. The following refer to the of events that occur to compensate for this fluid loss. By using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all), indicate whether each factor listed a. exhibits no change b. is increased c. is decreased 18. sympathetic activity to the afferent arterioles of the nephrons 19. calibre of the afferent arterioles 20. glomerular capillary blood pressure 21. net filtration pressure 22. GFR 23. amount of Na+ and H2O filtered 24. renin secretion 25. angiotensin I and II production 26. aldosterone secretion 27. amount of Na+ reabsorbed 28. amount of Na+ excreted 29. vasopressin secretion 30. permeability of distal and collecting tubules to H2O 31. amount of H2O reabsorbed 32. amount of H2O excreted 33. urinary volume 34. thirst 18. ANS: B PTS: 1 19. ANS: C PTS: 1 20. ANS: C PTS: 1 21. ANS: C PTS: 1 22. ANS: C PTS: 1 23. ANS: C PTS: 1 24. ANS: B PTS: 1 25. ANS: B PTS: 1 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 27. ANS: B PTS: 1 28. ANS: C PTS: 1 29. ANS: B PTS: 1 30. ANS: B PTS: 1 31. ANS: B PTS: 1 32. ANS: C PTS: 1 33. ANS: C PTS: 1 34. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance Indicate whether the item in question is referring to regulation of ECF volume or regulation of ECF osmolarity by using the following answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. refers to regulation of ECF volume b. refers to regulation of ECF osmolarity 35. is primarily important to prevent fluid shifts between the ECF and ICF 36. is primarily important in the long-term regulation of arterial blood pressure 37. depends primarily on Na+ balance 38. depends primarily on H2O balance 35. ANS: B PTS: 1 36. ANS: A PTS: 1 37. ANS: A PTS: 1 38. ANS: B PTS: 1 Match the buffer system with the correct characteristic by using the answer code: a. haemoglobin buffer system b. phosphate buffer system c. protein buffer system d. H2CO3:HCO3– buffer system 39. buffers H+ generated from carbonic acid 40. primary ECF buffer for noncarbonic acids 41. primary intracellular buffer 42. important urinary buffer 39. ANS: A PTS: 1 40. ANS: D PTS: 1 41. ANS: C PTS: 1 42. ANS: B PTS: 1 Indicate which acid–base abnormality is represented by the [HCO3–]/[CO2] ratio listed by using the answer code: a. uncompensated respiratory acidosis b. uncompensated metabolic acidosis c. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis d. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis 43. 20/2 44. 40/1 45. 10/1 46. 20/0.5 43. ANS: A PTS: 1 44. ANS: D PTS: 1 45. ANS: B PTS: 1 46. ANS: C PTS: 1Chapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance Indicate which type of acid–base imbalance might occur in each of the following situations by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis 47. fever 48. excessive ingestion of alkaline drugs such as NaHCO3 49. aspirin poisoning 50. anxiety 51. severe exercise 52. uremia 53. damage to the respiratory centre 54. severe diarrhea 55. pneumonia 47. ANS: B PTS: 1 48. ANS: D PTS: 1 49. ANS: B PTS: 1 50. ANS: B PTS: 1 51. ANS: C PTS: 1 52. ANS: C PTS: 1 53. ANS: A PTS: 1 54. ANS: C PTS: 1 55. ANS: A PTS: 1 Indicate the [CO2] and [HCO3–] levels in each of the following situations by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. [CO2] normal, [HCO3–] decreased below normal b. [CO2] normal, [HCO3–] increased above normal c. [CO2] increased above normal, [HCO3–] normal d. [CO2] decreased below normal,[ HCO3–] normal e. [CO2] decreased below normal, [HCO3–] decreased below normal f. [CO2] increased above normal, [HCO3–] increased above normal g. [CO2] decreased below normal, [HCO3–] increased above normal h. [CO2] increased above normal, [HCO3–] decreased below normal i. CO2] normal, [HCO3–] normal 56. uncompensated respiratory acidosis 57. compensated respiratory l acidosis 58. uncompensated metabolic acidosis 59. compensated metabolic acidosis 60. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis 61. compensated respiratory alkalosis 62. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis 63. compensated metabolic alkalosisChapter 13: Fluid and Acid–Base Balance 56. ANS: C PTS: 1 57. ANS: F PTS: 1 58. ANS: A PTS: 1 59. ANS: E PTS: 1 60. ANS: D PTS: 1 61. ANS: E PTS: 1 62. ANS: B PTS: 1 63. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement about mixing movements is correct? a. They promote digestion by mixing food with digestive juices. b. They facilitate absorption by exposing luminal contents to absorptive surfaces. c. They take place only in the stomach. d. They promote digestion by mixing food with digestive juices and facilitate absorption by exposing luminal contents to absorptive surfaces. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 587 BLM: Remember 2. Which statement concerning digestive motility is INCORRECT? a. It is accomplished by smooth muscle contractions. b. It is accomplished by smooth and voluntary muscle contractions. c. It may be propulsive in nature. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 587 BLM: Remember 3. Which one of the following is NOT included in gastric secretions? a. enzymes b. Bile c. mucus ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 588 BLM: Remember 4. What is the primary absorptive organ of the digestive system? a. salivary glands b. oral cavity c. stomach d. small intestine ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 588 BLM: Remember 5. Which statement concerning the intrinsic plexuses is INCORRECT? a. The myenteric plexus is located in the submucosa. b. The plexuses innervate smooth muscle cells and exocrine and endocrine gland cells. c. The plexuses are influenced by extrinsic nerves. d. The plexuses coordinate local digestive tract activity. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 592 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 6. Which statement concerning parasympathetic innervation of the digestive tract is INCORRECT? a. In general, parasympathetic stimulation is excitatory to the digestive system. b. Parasympathetic innervation to the digestive tract comes primarily through the vagus nerve. c. Parasympathetic innervation is part of the extrinsic nerve supply to the digestive tract. d. Parasympathetic stimulation of the salivary glands produces a saliva rich in mucus. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 593 BLM: Higher Order 7. Fats are digested to _______________ a. amino acids b. cellulose c. fatty acids and glycerol d. fructose ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 588 BLM: Remember 8. Proteins are primarily digested to and absorbed as _______________ a. amino acids b. cellulose c. fatty acids and glycerol d. monosaccharides ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 588 BLM: Remember 9. What is the digested product of milk sugar? a. glucose and fructose b. glucose and galactose c. sucrose and glucose d. maltose ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 588 BLM: Remember 10. Which statement of the Digestion of polysaccharides is not true? a. It is accomplished using enzymes. b. It utilizes hydrolysis. c. It utilizes dehydration. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 588 BLM: Remember 11. Which organ is NOT a digestive tract organ? a. esophagus b. stomach c. pancreas d. small intestine ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 589 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 12. Which tissue layer provides for primary digestive motility? a. mucosa b. submucosa c. muscularis mucosae d. muscularis externa e. mesentery ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 589 BLM: Remember 13. Which statement concerning the serosa is correct? a. It is the abdominal cavity containing the stomach. b. It is the blood supply to the stomach. c. It is the inner lining of the digestive tract. d. It is the outer connective tissue covering of the digestive tract. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 591 BLM: Remember 14. Which statement concerning the intrinsic nerve plexuses is correct? a. They produce spontaneous depolarization of the smooth muscle cells in the wall of the digestive tract. b. They are located in the mucosa. c. They coordinate local activity in the digestive tract. d. They are located in the brain stem. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 592 BLM: Remember 15. What are carbohydrates absorbed as? a. polysaccharides b. disaccharides c. monosaccharides d. amino acids ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 588 BLM: Remember 16. Which statement concerning the enteric nervous system is correct? a. It includes the myenteric plexes. b. It includes the submucosal plexes. c. It includes vagal nerve efferents. d. It includes both myenteric and submucosal plexes. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 591 BLM: Remember 17. Which statement concerning the BER is correct? a. It is a basic eating reflex that ensures that food is moved along the digestive tract at an appropriate rate. b. It is a basic electrical rhythm consisting of spontaneous, rhythmic, wavelike fluctuations in membrane potential. c. It is a basic emptying reflex, which governs the rate of gastric emptying. d. It is a bowel evacuation reflex, or defecation reflex. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 591 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 18. About 9,500 ml of fluid is absorbed from the digestive tract daily. What is the ultimate source of most of this fluid? a. food and fluid ingested during meals b. stored within secretory cells of the digestive tract c. the plasma d. the accessory digestive organs ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 588 BLM: Remember 19. Which statement regarding control of digestive processes is INCORRECT? a. Short reflexes influence motility and secretion in localized areas. b. All elements of the short reflexes are contained within the digestive organ’s wall. c. Hormones play a role. d. Osmoreceptors monitor the acidity of the luminal contents. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 594 BLM: Higher Order 20. Which secretions are increased by chewing? a. salivary secretion b. gastric secretion c. intestinal hormones d. both salivary and gastric secretions ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 593 BLM: Remember 21. What does chewing accomplish? a. grinding and breaking up food b. mixing food with saliva to facilitate swallowing c. reflexively increasing intestinal hormones d. grinding up food and mixing with saliva to facilitate swallowing ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 594 BLM: Remember 22. Which statement concerning the salivary secretion is correct? a. It is entirely under neural control (i.e., there is no hormonal control of salivary secretion). b. It is a passive secretion. c. It is stimulated by the parasympathetic nervous system and inhibited by the sympathetic nervous system. d. It secretes hormones. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 595 BLM: Remember 23. What is NOT a function of saliva? a. It facilitates swallowing. b. It serves as a solvent for molecules that stimulate taste buds. c. It dissolves glucose to facilitate its absorption by the oral mucosa. d. It has antibacterial action. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 595 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 24. What is NOT a component of saliva? a. amylase b. mucus c. pepsin d. lysozyme ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 595 BLM: Remember 25. Which statement concerning the process of salivation is INCORRECT? a. Salivation is entirely under neural control. b. Parasympathetic stimulation and sympathetic stimulation both increase salivary secretion. c. The acquired salivary reflex occurs upon stimulation of chemoreceptors and/or pressure receptors in the mouth. d. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a watery saliva rich in enzymes. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 595 BLM: Remember 26. Which statement is entirely under nervous control and has no hormonal regulatory component? a. salivary secretion b. gastric secretion c. pancreatic secretion d. liver secretion ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 595 BLM: Remember 27. Which statement concerning swallowing is Not true? a. It includes the movement of the bolus from the mouth to the stomach. b. It includes only the movement of the bolus from the mouth to the esophagus. c. It is a sequentially programmed, multiple response, all-or-none reflex. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 595 BLM: Remember 28. Where is the swallowing centre located? a. cerebral cortex b. Medulla c. hypothalamus d. Throat ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 595 BLM: Remember 29. During the oropharyngeal phase of swallowing, how is food prevented from entering the other openings that communicate with the pharynx? a. elevation of the uvula, which lodges against the back of the throat b. closure of the nasopharyngeal sphincter c. the epiglottis blocking the opening between the vocal cords d. elevation of the larynx and closure of the vocal folds across the laryngeal opening ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 596 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 30. Why is the pharyngoesophageal sphincter normally closed? a. to prevent air from entering the esophagus during breathing b. to prevent gastric contents from refluxing back into the esophagus c. to prevent vomiting d. to prevent esophageal secretions from leaking into the stomach ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 596 BLM: Remember 31. What prevents food from entering the nasal passages during swallowing? a. elevation of the uvula b. contraction of the pharyngeal muscles c. positioning of the tongue d. tight apposition of the vocal cords over the glottis ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 596 BLM: Remember 32. What prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing? a. elevation of the uvula b. contraction of the pharyngeal muscles c. positioning of the tongue d. tight apposition of the vocal cords over the glottis ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 596 BLM: Remember 33. If peristalsis in the esophagus is insufficient to carry an especially large bolus of food through the esophagus to the stomach, what happens to dislodge this trapped food? a. A secondary peristaltic wave is initiated by the swallowing centre. b. A secondary peristaltic wave is initiated by distention of the esophagus, mediated by the intrinsic nerve plexuses. c. The food remains in the esophagus until the swallowing mechanism is voluntarily initiated once again. d. Increased esophageal mucus secretion occurs to lubricate the stuck bolus so that it can slide to the stomach. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 597 BLM: Remember 34. Why is the gastroesophageal sphincter normally closed? a. to prevent air from entering the esophagus during breathing b. to prevent gastric contents from refluxing into the esophagus c. to prevent vomiting d. to prevent esophageal secretions leaking into the stomach ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 597 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 35. What is the major chemical digestive activity occurring in the stomach? a. digestion of starch b. digestion of protein c. digestion of fat d. absorption of monosaccharides ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 598 BLM: Remember 36. Receptive relaxation refers to relaxation of the __________________ a. pharyngoesophageal sphincter during swallowing b. pyloric sphincter when the duodenum is prepared to receive the chyme c. external anal sphincter when the individual is receptive to the defecation reflex d. stomach as it starts to fill, thereby allowing an increase in volume with very little increase in pressure ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 598 BLM: Remember 37. Which factor will NOT influence the rate at which a meal will empty from the stomach? a. fat in the duodenum b. acid in the duodenum c. caffeine in the duodenum d. hypertonicity of the duodenal contents ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 606 BLM: Higher Order 38. Which statement concerning gastric mixing is NOT true? a. It occurs primarily in the body of the stomach. b. It occurs as a result of the stomach’s contents being tumbled back and forth in the antrum because of vigorous peristaltic contractions. c. It mixes the food with gastric secretions to convert it to a finely divided liquid form known as chyme. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 599 BLM: Higher Order 39. Which factor is the most potent stimulus for inhibition of gastric motility? a. fat in the duodenum b. acid in the duodenum c. acid in the stomach d. distention of the stomach ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 600 BLM: Remember 40. Where is the pyloric sphincter located? a. between the esophagus and stomach b. between the oral cavity and esophagus c. between the large intestine and rectum d. between the stomach and small intestine ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 598 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 41. What does bile act on? a. distention of the stomach b. gastrin c. carbohydrate in the stomach d. fat in the duodenum ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 612 BLM: Remember 42. Which statement is NOT true for peristaltic antral contractions? a. They occur at a rate of 10/min. b. They are responsible for emptying food into the duodenum. c. They are responsible for mixing food and gastric enzymes within the antrum. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 599 BLM: Remember 43. Which statement regarding gastric motility and emptying is INCORRECT? a. Increased fluidity allows more rapid emptying. b. Presence of acid and fat in the stomach initiates the enterogastric reflex. c. Increased gastric volume stimulates motility. d. Vagal activity stimulates motility. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 599 BLM: Higher Order 44. Which breakfast would remain in the stomach the longest? a. toast, orange juice, and coffee b. black coffee c. fried eggs, bacon, and hash browns d. bowl of cereal with skim milk ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 601 BLM: Higher Order 45. Which hormones act in the small intestine? a. secretin and cholecystokinin b. secretin and gastrin c. cholecystokinin and gastrin d. gastrin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 600 BLM: Remember 46. What is NOT secreted by the stomach in response to parasympathetic (acetylcholine) stimulation? a. pepsinogen b. HCl c. gastrin d. histamine ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 606 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 47. What does NOT happen during the cephalic phase of gastric secretion? a. Thinking about, seeing, smelling, and chewing food reflexively increases gastric secretion. b. Vagal stimulation of the gastric glands occurs. c. Secretin is released. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 606 BLM: Remember 48. What is secreted by the chief cells of the gastric mucosa? a. bicarbonate ions b. HCl c. pepsinogen d. sucrase ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 604 BLM: Remember 49. Which of the following is secreted by the parietal cells of the gastric mucosa? a. HCl b. pepsinogen c. both HCl and pepsinogen d. both HCl and intrinsic factor ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 605 BLM: Remember 50. Which statement concerning HCl secretion by the stomach is INCORRECT? a. HCl inactivates salivary amylase and the pancreatic enzymes. b. HCl activates pepsinogen. c. HCI establishes a high pH in the stomach. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 602 BLM: Remember 51. What does NOT slow gastric activities? a. enterogastric reflex b. enterogastrones c. secretin d. gastrin ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 605 BLM: Remember 52. Which statement concerning the stomach acid is INCORRECT? a. It is neutralized in the duodenum. b. It is neutralized with bicarbonate. c. It is neutralized by solutions secreted by the G cells. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 601 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 53. Which statement concerning the intrinsic factor is correct? a. It is secreted by the parietal cells in the stomach. b. It is necessary for absorption of vitamin B12. c. It is abundant in pernicious anemia. d. It is secreted by the parietal cells in the stomach and necessary for absorption of vitamin B12. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 603 BLM: Remember 54. When does pernicious anemia NOT occur? a. when the stomach has been removed b. when the colon has been removed c. when there is a deficiency of intrinsic factor ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 637 BLM: Higher Order 55. What is a precursor to an enzyme that functions in the stomach? a. Pepsinogen b. HCl c. intrinsic factor d. Gastrin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 604 BLM: Remember 56. What happens after pepsinogen is activated? a. It autocatalytically activates more pepsinogen. b. It activates the pancreatic proteolytic enzymes in the duodenal lumen after gastric emptying has occurred. c. It inhibits the pyloric gland area in a negative-feedback fashion. d. It inhibits the secretion of HCL. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 604 BLM: Remember 57. As food leaves the stomach, gastric secretion is reduced. Which factor does NOT contribute to this reduction? a. fat in the duodenum b. low gastric pH c. distention of the duodenum d. pepsinogen in the duodenum ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 604 BLM: Remember 58. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the pyloric gland area of the stomach antrum ? a. secretes gastrin. b. is inhibited when gastric pH falls too low. c. is stimulated by the presence of glucose. d. it inhibits the section of the HCL. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 602 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 59. What does the pyloric gland area of the stomach antrum secrete? a. Histamine b. Gastrin c. intrinsic factor d. somatostatin ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 602 BLM: Remember 60. Which statement concerning alcohol is NOT true? a. It stimulates gastric secretion. b. It can be absorbed more rapidly from the small intestine than from the stomach. c. It inhibits gastric emptying through the enterogastric reflex. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 608 BLM: Remember 61. Which statement regarding control of pancreatic secretion is INCORRECT? a. Gastrin stimulates release of neutralization solution. b. CCK stimulates release of enzymes. c. Secretin stimulates release of bicarbonate. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 611 BLM: Remember 62. What does NOT occur during vomiting? a. The diaphragm contracts. b. The abdominal muscles contract. c. The stomach contracts. d. Respiration is inhibited. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 601 BLM: Remember 63. What happens during vomiting? a. The diaphragm contracts. b. The thorax contracts c. The stomach contracts. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 601 BLM: Remember 64. Which statement concerning peptic ulcers is INCORRECT? a. They are usually caused by excessive neural stimulation. b. They are usually caused by bacterial infection. c. They compromise the mucosal barrier and stomach wall. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 609 BLM: Remember 65. Which statement concerning cholecystokinin is INCORRECT? a. It is secreted by the endocrine portion of the pancreas. b. It stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion. c. It causes contraction of the gallbladder. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 600 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 66. Which statement accurately describes chymotrypsinogen? a. Chymotrypsinogen is activated by enterokinase. b. Once activated, chymotrypsinogen is involved in protein digestion. c. Chymotrypsinogen is secreted by the endocrine pancreas. d. Chymotrypsinogen hydrolyzes starches and glycogen. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 610 BLM: Remember 67. Why is the intestinal hormone secretin released by endocrine cells in the duodenal mucosa? a. in response to distention of the stomach b. in response to carbohydrate in the duodenum c. in response to acid in the duodenum d. in response to gastrin secreted by the pyloric gland area of the stomach ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 611 BLM: Remember 68. Which substance is absorbed by the stomach? a. glucose b. caffeine c. aspirin d. amino acids ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 608 BLM: Remember 69. Which statement about pancreatic enzymes is INCORRECT? a. Trypsinogen is secreted in an inactive form. b. Pancreatic amylase digests carbohydrate. c. Pancreatic lipase is responsible for triglyceride digestion. d. Except for trypsinogen, other proteolytic enzymes are secreted in active form. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 610 BLM: Remember 70. Which statement is NOT a function of the liver? a. metabolic processing of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats b. secretion of proteolytic digestive enzymes c. detoxification and/or degradation of body wastes, hormones, drugs, and foreign compounds d. synthesis of plasma proteins essential to the clotting process ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 612 BLM: Remember 71. Which statement concerning secretin is correct? a. The most potent stimulus for secretin secretion is the presence of fat in the duodenum. b. Secretin stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion. c. Secretin stimulates the secretion of bicarbonate. d. Secretin stimulates the acinar cells. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 611 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 72. Which is the most potent choleretic? a. vagal stimulation b. bile salts c. CCK d. secretin ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 616 BLM: Remember 73. Which statement concerning bile salts is correct? a. They aid fat digestion. b. They aid fat absorption through micelle formation. c. They are secreted into the bile. d. They aid fat digestion and absorption through micelle formation. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 616 BLM: Remember 74. What stimulates gallbladder contraction? a. CCK b. secretin c. sympathetic stimulation d. gastrin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 616 BLM: Remember 75. Which statement is INCORRECT about the pancreas? a. It has endocrine tissue. b. It has exocrine tissue. c. It secretes an alkaline fluid. d. It secretes pepsinogen. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 608 BLM: Remember 76. Which of the following are NOT functions of aqueous NaHCO3 secreted by the pancreas into the duodenum? a. neutralization of acidic gastric contents emptied into the duodenum b. prevention of irritation of the duodenal mucosa c. active digestion of fat molecules into fatty acids ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 608 BLM: Higher Order 77. What is the most important stimulus for contraction of the gallbladder? a. CCK causes contraction of the gallbladder. b. Mechanical contraction of the small intestine causes bile to be forced out of the gallbladder. c. Sympathetic stimulation causes contraction of the gallbladder. d. An increase in bile secretion by the liver causes contraction of the gallbladder. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 616 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 78. Venous flow into the liver is via the __________ a. hepatic vein b. hepatic portal system c. sinusoidal system d. mesenteric system ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 612 BLM: Remember 79. What causes the typical coloration of the feces? a. bile salts b. undigested cellulose c. aqueous NaHCO3 secretion d. bilirubin ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 615 BLM: Remember 80. Which of the following is NOT true of the formation of a lipid emulsion ? a. facilitates digestion of fat by lipase b. is accomplished by bile salts c. takes place in the stomach ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 614 BLM: Remember 81. What enters the duodenum? a. pancreatic secretions b. Bile c. fatty acids from digested lipids d. pancreatic secretions and bile ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 614 BLM: Remember 82. Which statement is NOT TRUE for the small intestinal digestive enzymes? a. They are secreted into the lumen, where they perform their function. b. They act intracellularly within the brush borders. c. They complete the digestion of carbohydrates. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 621 BLM: Remember 83. What does NOT enter the duodenal lumen? a. trypsinogen b. bile salts c. disaccharidases d. gastric contents ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 610 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 84. What is the primary factor responsible for moving the chyme forward in the small intestine? a. mass movement b. migrating motility complex c. a gradient in the frequency of segmentation along the length of the small intestine d. sequential ring-like contractions that move progressively forward along the length of the small intestine in a stripping motion, pushing the chyme ahead of the contraction ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 617 BLM: Remember 85. Which statement concerning segmentation isNOT true? a. It is the primary motility in the small intestine during digestion of a meal. b. It is both mixing and propulsive. c. It refers to sequential ring-like contractions that sweep downward, creating a stripping motion that pushes the chyme forward. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 617 BLM: Higher Order 86. Why are epithelial cells continually being shed from the villi? a. The intracellular enzymes digest important cellular constituents, causing the cells to disintegrate and slough. b. The body needs a continual supply of protein derived from the digestion of these cells. c. New cells are continually being produced in the crypts at the base of the villi and migrate upward. d. Acid entering the small intestine from the stomach constantly destroys the small intestinal lining, causing the cells to slough. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 622 BLM: Remember 87. Which enzyme is NOT secreted into the duodenal lumen? a. aminopeptidase b. Lipase c. trypsinogen d. procarboxypeptidase ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 610 BLM: Remember 88. Which control mechanism does NOT bring about segmentation of the terminal portion of the small intestine? a. gastroileal reflex b. distention of the stomach c. cholecystokinin action ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 617 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 89. Where is digestion completed? a. stomach b. small intestine lumen c. on the brush borders of the small intestine epithelial cells d. Colon ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 621 BLM: Remember 90. Which statement correctly describes absorptive processes? a. Carbohydrate is absorbed by active transport in the small intestine and enters the blood. b. Fat is absorbed by active transport in the small intestine and enters the lymph. c. Protein is absorbed primarily by pinocytosis. d. The water-soluble vitamins are carried in the micelles, which are water soluble. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 622 BLM: Remember 91. What is absorbed by receptor mediated endocytosis in the terminal ileum? a. fatty acids and monoglycerides b. Bile c. vitamin B12 d. amino acids ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 605 BLM: Remember 92. Absorption of which of the following is linked to active sodium absorption at the basolateral border of the epithelial cell? a. Water b. cholesterol c. galactose d. water and galactose ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 624 BLM: Remember 93. What does NOT directly enter the blood upon being absorbed from the digestive tract? a. glucose b. monoglycerides and free fatty acids c. amino acids d. alcohol ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 624 BLM: Remember 94. Where is the primary site of absorption in the digestive system? a. stomach b. small intestine c. Colon d. esophagus ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 622 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 95. How long does it take for an epithelial cell to migrate from the base of the villi to the tip? a. three hours b. three days c. one day d. three months ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 622 BLM: Remember 96. Which statement does NOT correctly describes carbohydrate absorption by intestinal cells? a. The absorbable units of carbohydrate are disaccharides. b. Fructose is absorbed by facilitated diffusion. c. Glucose is absorbed by Na+ and energy-dependent secondary active transport. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 622 BLM: Remember 97. Which substance is a product from the chemical breakdown of starch? a. amino acids b. glucose c. monoglycerides d. bile salts ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 588 BLM: Remember 98. Which enzyme breaks down table sugar? a. maltase b. lactase c. sucrase d. enterokinase ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 588 BLM: Higher Order 99. What is NOT a brush border enzyme? a. enterokinase b. aminopeptidase c. lipase d. lactase ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 619 BLM: Remember 100. Which statement concerning lactose intolerance is correct? a. It is caused by lack of a specific disaccharidase. b. It is caused by lack of lactose. c. It results in bacterial metabolism of lactose. d. It is caused by lack of a specific disaccharidases resulting in bacterial metabolism of lactose. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 619 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 101. Which statement concerning chylomicrons is correct? a. They are aggregations of triglycerides formed within intestinal epithelial cells and covered with a layer of lipoprotein, which renders them water soluble. b. They are aggregations of bile salts, monoglycerides, and free fatty acids. c. They are small fat globules held apart by the action of bile salts. d. They are secreted in the succus entericus. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 624 BLM: Remember 102. Of the fluid entering the small intestine, what percentage is reabsorbed? a. 100 b. 95 c. 85 d. 50 ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 628 BLM: Remember 103. What is the intestinal feature responsible for increasing the absorptive surface area the most? a. circular folds b. villi c. microvilli d. crypts ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 620 BLM: Remember 104. Which statement concerning lipids is NOT true? a. They are broken down by pepsin. b. They are absorbed into lacteals. c. They enter as micelles. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 624 BLM: Remember 105. Which statement concerning fat-soluble vitamins is correct? a. They are digested by lipases. b. They are actively absorbed. c. They are absorbed in micelles. d. They are absorbed through the digestive tract. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 627 BLM: Remember 106. Which statement concerning the colon is INCORRECT? a. Absorption of salt and water converts the colonic contents into fecal material. b. Colonic bacteria digest cellulose for their own growth and reproduction. c. When mass movements of the colon propel feces into the rectum, stimulation of the stretch receptors in the rectal wall reflexively causes contraction of the internal and external anal sphincters to prevent defecation from occurring until an opportune time. d. No digestive enzymes are secreted by the colon. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 630 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 107. Which statement concerning the colon is INCORRECT? a. The colon has as much absorptive capacity as the small intestine. b. The final stages of carbohydrate and protein digestion occur in the colon. c. Colonic movements are slower than those in the small intestine. d. Most absorption occurs in the colon. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 630 BLM: Remember 108. What is the terminal portion of the colon? a. Ascending b. Descending c. Pyloric d. Sigmoid ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 630 BLM: Remember 109. Which statement concerning defecation reflex is NOT correct? a. It is initiated when mass movements force fecal material into the rectum, stimulating stretch receptors in the rectal wall. b. It involves relaxation of the internal anal sphincter and contraction of the sigmoid colon and rectum. c. It cannot be overridden by voluntary contraction of the external anal sphincter. d. a and b. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 631 BLM: Remember 110. What is the result of distention of the stomach? a. It triggers the gastrocolic reflex b. It encourages motility in the intestines c. It results in salivation d. It triggers the gastrocolic reflex and encourages motility in the intestines ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 631 BLM: Remember 111. Which statement is NOT a side effect of constipation? a. Headache b. Nausea c. gradual buildup of toxins d. lack of appetite ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 631 BLM: Remember 112. What are the symptoms of constipation (e.g., abdominal discomfort, headache, and nausea) due to? a. inhibition of gastric emptying b. absorption of toxins of bacterial origin from the colon c. prolonged distention of the large intestine by the fecal mass d. exhaustion due to frequent straining movements in an effort to initiate the defecation reflex ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 631 BLM: RememberChapter 14: The Digestive System 113. Which statement is INCORRECT? a. CCK causes relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. b. Bile is secreted by the liver and stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. c. The small intestinal epithelium actively secretes digestive enzymes into the intestinal lumen. d. Gastrin is not secreted during the cephalic phase of gastric secretion. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 633 BLM: Higher Order 114. What does not directly enter the blood upon being absorbed from the digestive tract? a. Glucose b. Alcohol c. monoglycerides and free fatty acids d. amino acids ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 624 BLM: Remember 115. What is NOT a component of pancreatic juice? a. Amylase b. Gastrin c. chymotrypsinogen d. trypsinogen ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 609 BLM: Remember 116. What is the major stimulus for secretion of secretin? a. the sight and aroma of food b. entry of a bolus into the esophagus c. distension of the stomach d. entry of acid chyme into the small intestine ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 611 BLM: Remember 117. What occurs during the cephalic phase of gastric digestion? a. CCK is secreted by the small intestine. b. Chemoreceptors detect fatty acids in the duodenum. c. Stretch receptors detect distension of the stomach. d. Sight, smell, thought, or taste of food trigger parasympathetic impulses. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 606 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 14: The Digestive System TRUE/FALSE 1. The major metabolic waste product eliminated in the feces is bilirubin. ANS: T PTS: 1 2. The outer muscle layer of the digestive tract consists of circular smooth muscle. ANS: F PTS: 1 3. The ultimate source of the fluids secreted into the digestive tract is the plasma. ANS: T PTS: 1 4. The large intestine consists of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. ANS: F PTS: 1 5. The function of mixing movements is to promote digestion and facilitate absorption. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. The contents of the digestive tract are technically outside the body. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. The main sympathetic nerve supply to the digestive tract is the vagus. ANS: F PTS: 1 8. In general, sympathetic stimulation is excitatory to digestive activity. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. The myenteric plexus is a nerve network located in the submucosa. ANS: F PTS: 1 10. The intrinsic nerve plexuses innervate smooth muscle and exocrine gland cells but do not influence endocrine gland cells within the digestive system. ANS: F PTS: 1 11. Slow-wave potentials are always accompanied by contractile activity. ANS: F PTS: 1 12. Stimulation of the taste buds increases gastric secretions. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 13. The only function of chewing is to break food up into smaller pieces and soften it by mixing it with saliva to facilitate swallowing. ANS: F PTS: 1 14. Deglutition refers to the process of chewing. ANS: F PTS: 1 15. After the food has been chewed and mixed with salivary secretion, it is referred to as chyme. ANS: F PTS: 1 16. Protein digestion is initiated by salivary amylase. ANS: F PTS: 1 17. Sympathetic stimulation inhibits salivary secretion. ANS: F PTS: 1 18. There is continuous salivary secretion due to constant low-level stimulation by the parasympathetic nerve endings within the salivary glands. ANS: T PTS: 1 19. Parasympathetic and sympathetic stimulation both increase salivary secretion, contrary to the usual antagonistic activity of these two components of the autonomic nervous system. ANS: T PTS: 1 20. Parasympathetic stimulation of the salivary glands produces a large volume of watery saliva high in enzyme concentration. ANS: T PTS: 1 21. The epiglottis opens the glottis during the swallowing reflex. ANS: F PTS: 1 22. Swallowing propels a bolus of food from the mouth through the pharynx and esophagus into the stomach via a complex, sequential, multiple-response reflex. ANS: T PTS: 1 23. The swallowing centre does not initiate and coordinate secondary peristaltic waves. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 24. The pharyngoesophageal sphincter is normally closed to prevent esophageal secretions from entering the pharynx during breathing. ANS: F PTS: 1 25. Respiration is inhibited throughout the entire time that swallowing is taking place. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. Salivary amylase and the pancreatic enzymes are inactivated by acid. ANS: T PTS: 1 27. The stomach mucosa is thrown into folds known as villi. ANS: F PTS: 1 28. The most important function of the stomach is to begin protein digestion. ANS: F PTS: 1 29. Peristaltic waves occur continuously in the stomach at a rate of three contractions per minute, keeping pace with the BER. ANS: F PTS: 1 30. Gastric secretion does not begin until the arrival of food in the stomach. ANS: F PTS: 1 31. Chyme is produced in the stomach. ANS: T PTS: 1 32. Gastric mixing takes place primarily in the antrum of the stomach. ANS: T PTS: 1 33. The rate of gastric emptying depends entirely on the volume and fluidity of gastric contents. ANS: F PTS: 1 34. The enterogastric reflex promotes gastric emptying. ANS: F PTS: 1 35. The rate of gastric emptying is influenced by factors both in the stomach and in the duodenum. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 36. The primary factor governing the rate of gastric emptying is the volume of the gastric contents. ANS: F PTS: 1 37. Factors in the duodenum influence the rate of gastric emptying. ANS: T PTS: 1 38. The presence of protein in the stomach stimulates the release of histamine, which in turn promotes HCl and pepsinogen secretion. ANS: F PTS: 1 39. Gastric secretion occurs only when food is present in the stomach. ANS: F PTS: 1 40. Enterogastrones are produced by the stomach. ANS: F PTS: 1 41. Gastrin is not secreted during the cephalic phase of gastric secretion. ANS: F PTS: 1 42. HCl activates pepsinogen. ANS: T PTS: 1 43. The parietal cells secrete both pepsinogen and intrinsic factor. ANS: F PTS: 1 44. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. ANS: T PTS: 1 45. H+ ions are actively secreted against a large concentration gradient into the stomach; Cl– secretion follows passively. ANS: F PTS: 1 46. As the gastric pH falls very low, the pyloric gland area is inhibited. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 47. The process of digestion starts as food enters the stomach. ANS: F PTS: 1 48. Vomiting is caused by reverse peristalsis. ANS: F PTS: 1 49. Pepsin formation in the stomach is autocatalytic. ANS: T PTS: 1 50. Alcohol can be absorbed by the stomach mucosa more quickly than by the small intestine mucosa. ANS: F PTS: 1 51. Vomiting is initiated by stimulation of chemoreceptors in the medulla. ANS: F PTS: 1 52. The enterogastric reflex and enterogastrones inhibit gastric motility but stimulate gastric secretion. ANS: F PTS: 1 53. The pancreas is the primary site of digestive enzyme production. ANS: T PTS: 1 54. Glucagon is produced by the liver. ANS: F PTS: 1 55. All the pancreatic enzymes are secreted in inactive form. ANS: F PTS: 1 56. The pancreas secretes enzymes involved in the digestion of all three categories of foodstuff. ANS: T PTS: 1 57. Chymotrypsinogen is activated by enterokinase. ANS: F PTS: 1 58. The principal clinical manifestation of pancreatic exocrine insufficiency is incomplete protein digestion resulting from the deficiency of the powerful pancreatic proteolytic enzymes. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 59. The liver receives venous blood coming directly from the digestive tract and arterial blood coming from the aorta. ANS: T PTS: 1 60. In cirrhosis, damaged hepatocytes are permanently replaced by an overgrowth of connective tissue. ANS: T PTS: 1 61. Glycogen is stored in the liver. ANS: T PTS: 1 62. Bile is secreted continuously by the gallbladder. ANS: F PTS: 1 63. Bile is secreted by the liver and stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. ANS: T PTS: 1 64. Bile salts are important in fat digestion and absorption. ANS: T PTS: 1 65. Bilirubin aids fat digestion and absorption. ANS: F PTS: 1 66. CCK causes relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. ANS: T PTS: 1 67. Bile salts are derivatives of cholesterol. ANS: T PTS: 1 68. The primary factor responsible for forward propulsion of chyme through the small intestine is mass movements. ANS: F PTS: 1 69. The ileocecal juncture serves as a barrier to prevent bacteria-laden contents of the large intestine from contaminating the small intestine. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 70. Excessive small intestinal motility can lead to constipation because there is less time for absorption to take place. ANS: F PTS: 1 71. The main motility seen in the small intestine during digestion of a meal is the migrating motility complex. ANS: F PTS: 1 72. The main function of the ileocecal valve/sphincter is to prevent small intestinal contents from entering the large intestine before digestion of food is completed. ANS: F PTS: 1 73. The small intestinal epithelium actively secretes digestive enzymes into the intestinal lumen. ANS: F PTS: 1 74. Digestive enzymes produced by the small intestine are not secreted into the lumen but act intracellularly. ANS: T PTS: 1 75. Microvilli establish a brush border in the small intestine. ANS: T PTS: 1 76. Migration of a new intestinal epithelial cell from the crypt at the base of the villus to the tip of the villus requires about three weeks. ANS: F PTS: 1 77. Protein digestion begins in the stomach under the influence of pepsinogen, continues in the duodenal lumen under the influence of pancreatic proteolytic enzymes, and is completed intracellularly in the small intestinal brush border. ANS: T PTS: 1 78. Most of the fluid presented to the small intestine for absorption has been ingested. ANS: F PTS: 1 79. Amino acids and glucose are both absorbed by secondary active transport by the small intestinal epithelial cells. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 80. Fat is absorbed into the lymph in the form of micelles. ANS: F PTS: 1 81. Sodium can be absorbed both actively and passively. ANS: T PTS: 1 82. Lipase breaks down proteins via hydrolysis. ANS: F PTS: 1 83. Chylomicrons are aggregates of bile salts, monoglycerides, and free fatty acids. ANS: F PTS: 1 84. Considerable vitamin absorption occurs passively in the stomach. ANS: F PTS: 1 85. Haustrations propel the feces one-third to three-quarters the length of the colon in a few seconds. ANS: F PTS: 1 86. Colonic secretion contains no digestive enzymes. ANS: T PTS: 1 87. Humans are not capable of digesting cellulose, but some of the enteric bacteria have this capability. ANS: T PTS: 1 88. Most of the digestive secretions do not remain in the fecal material. ANS: T PTS: 1 89. The primary absorption of nutrients, water, and electrolytes takes place in the large intestine, converting chyme to fecal material. ANS: F PTS: 1 90. During defecation, the internal anal sphincter relaxes. ANS: T PTS: 1 91. Defecation is a spinal reflex. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 92. Receptive relaxation refers to the voluntary relaxation of the external anal sphincter when the individual is receptive to the defecation reflex. ANS: F PTS: 1 93. Upon arrival of a new meal in the stomach, the gastrocolic reflex pushes the colonic contents into the rectum, triggering the defecation reflex to eliminate the remains of a preceding meal. ANS: T PTS: 1 94. Symptoms associated with constipation are attributable to toxins absorbed from the retained fecal material. ANS: F PTS: 1 COMPLETION 1. The four basic digestive processes are ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. ANS: motility, secretion, digestion, absorption (in any order) PTS: 1 2. In general, the parasympathetic nervous system is ____________________ [excitatory or inhibitory] to the digestive tract, whereas the sympathetic nervous system is ____________________ [excitatory or inhibitory]. ANS: excitatory, inhibitory PTS: 1 3. The ____________________ is the layer that lines the inside surface of the digestive tract. ANS: mucosa PTS: 1 4. The ____________________ is a common passageway for both the digestive and respiratory systems. ANS: pharynx PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 5. The primary wave of peristalsis in the esophagus is initiated by the ____________________. If this primary wave fails to push the bolus to the stomach, a secondary peristaltic wave is initiated by the ____________________. ANS: swallowing centre, intrinsic nerve plexus PTS: 1 6. The parotid glands are one of three pairs of ____________________ glands. ANS: salivary PTS: 1 7. Gastric storage takes place in the ____________________ [what part?] of the stomach, whereas gastric mixing takes place in the ____________________. ANS: body, antrum PTS: 1 8. The most potent stimulus for inhibiting gastric motility and emptying is ____________________. ANS: fat in the duodenal lumen PTS: 1 9. ____________________ is the ability of smooth muscle to maintain constant tension over a wide range of lengths. ANS: Plasticity PTS: 1 10. The three gastrointestinal hormones that function as enterogastrones are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. ANS: secretin, cholecystokinin, gastric inhibitory peptide -secretin, gastric inhibitory peptide, cholecystokinin -cholecystokinin, gastric inhibitory peptide, secretin -cholecystokinin, secretin, gastric inhibitory peptide -gastric inhibitory peptide, secretin, cholecystokinin -gastric inhibitory peptide, cholecystokinin, secretin PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 11. The most potent stimulus for gastrin release is __________________. Gastrin, in turn, is a powerful stimulus for __________________. The PGA is directly inhibited from releasing gastrin by __________________. ANS: protein in the stomach, hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen secretion, high hydrogen-ion concentration PTS: 1 12. The presence of ____________________ in the stomach is the main stimulus to enhance gastric secretion. ANS: protein PTS: 1 13. Carbohydrate digestion takes place in the ____________________ [what part?] of the stomach under the influence of ____________________ [what enzyme?], whereas protein digestion takes place in the ____________________ under the influence of ____________________. ANS: body, salivary amylase, antrum, pepsin PTS: 1 14. A(n) ____________________ ulcer is an erosion of the stomach wall. ANS: peptic PTS: 1 15. The pancreatic ____________________ secretion neutralizes acidic gastric contents in the duodenal lumen. ANS: aqueous alkaline PTS: 1 16. Secretin stimulates the pancreatic ____________________ cells to secrete ____________________, whereas CCK stimulates the pancreatic ____________________ cells to secrete ____________________. ANS: duct, aqueous alkaline fluid, acinar, digestive enzymes PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 17. The islets of ____________________ are the endocrine cells of the pancreas. ANS: Langerhans PTS: 1 18. When worn-out red blood cells are destroyed, the haemoglobin is degraded to a yellow pigment known as ____________________, which is excreted into the bile. ANS: bilirubin PTS: 1 19. Excessive accumulation of bilirubin in the body produces the condition of ____________________. ANS: jaundice PTS: 1 20. ____________________ cells are the resident macrophages of the liver. ANS: Kupffer PTS: 1 21. The primary mixing and propulsive motility of the small intestine is ____________________. ANS: segmentation PTS: 1 22. A(n) ____________________ is an aggregation of bile salts and lecithin. ANS: micelle PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 23. The three modifications of the small intestine mucosa that greatly increase the surface area available for absorption are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. ANS: -circular folds, villi, microvilli -circular folds, microvilli, villi -villi, microvilli, circular folds -villi, circular folds, microvilli -microvilli, circular folds, villi -microvilli, villi, circular folds PTS: 1 24. The ____________________ is the longest segment of the small intestine. ANS: jejunum PTS: 1 25. The extent of absorption of the electrolytes ____________________ and ____________________ is regulated depending on the body’s needs. ANS: iron, calcium -calcium, iron PTS: 1 26. _____________________ contractions are responsible for mixing the colonic contents, whereas ___________________ periodically propel the contents long distances. ANS: Haustral, mass movements PTS: 1 27. Colonic secretion consists of ____________________. ANS: an alkaline mucus solution PTS: 1 28. ____________________ are the microscopic projections of the absorptive cells of the small intestine. ANS: Microvilli PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System 29. Chylomicrons are large, coated droplets of ____________________. ANS: fat PTS: 1 MATCHING Match the control mechanism with the characteristic by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. autonomous smooth muscle function b. extrinsic (autonomic) nerves c. hormones d. intrinsic nerve plexuses 1. pathway by which factors outside the digestive system can influence digestion 2. travel via the blood to alter digestive motility and secretion 3. responsible for coordinating local activity within the digestive tract 4. responsible for establishing the rate of rhythmic contractility 5. coordinates activity between different regions of the digestive tract 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 2. ANS: C PTS: 1 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 5. ANS: B PTS: 1 Match the gastric cell with the correct characteristic by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. chief cells b. parietal cells c. mucous cells d. G cells of PGA 6. secrete HCl 7. secrete gastrin 8. serve as parent cells of all new cells of the gastric mucosa 9. secrete pepsinogen 10. secrete intrinsic factor 6. ANS: B PTS: 1 7. ANS: D PTS: 1 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 10. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System Indicate which hormone(s) is being described by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. both secretin and CCK b. secretin c. CCK d. gastrin 11. secreted by the pyloric gland area. 12. stimulated primarily by the presence of fat (fatty acids) 13. stimulated primarily by the presence of protein 14. secretion is inhibited by a low pH 15. inhibit(s) gastric secretion 16. stimulate(s) gastric secretion 17. inhibit(s) gastric motility 18. stimulate(s) pancreatic digestive enzyme secretion 19. stimulate(s) pancreatic aqueous NaHCO3 secretion 20. stimulate(s) gallbladder contraction 21. known as an enterogastrone 22. secreted by the small intestine mucosa 23. stimulate(s) the pancreatic acinar cells 24. stimulate(s) the pancreatic duct cells 25. stimulated primarily by the presence of acid 11. ANS: D PTS: 1 12. ANS: C PTS: 1 13. ANS: D PTS: 1 14. ANS: D PTS: 1 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 16. ANS: D PTS: 1 17. ANS: A PTS: 1 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 19. ANS: B PTS: 1 20. ANS: C PTS: 1 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 22. ANS: A PTS: 1 23. ANS: C PTS: 1 24. ANS: B PTS: 1 25. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System Indicate the site at which digestion of each of the three main categories of foodstuff commences and is completed by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. mouth b. stomach c. small intestine lumen d. intracellularly in the small intestine brush border e. colon 26. carbohydrate digestion begins 27. protein digestion begins 28. fat digestion begins 29. carbohydrate digestion is completed 30. protein digestion is completed 31. fat digestion is completed 26. ANS: A PTS: 1 27. ANS: B PTS: 1 28. ANS: C PTS: 1 29. ANS: D PTS: 1 30. ANS: D PTS: 1 31. ANS: C PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System Indicate which digestive secretion is being described in each question by writing the appropriate letter using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. bile salts b. pepsin(ogen) c. amylase d. lipase e. trypsin(ogen) 32. pancreatic enzyme that digests protein 33. gastric enzyme that digests protein 34. enzyme that digests fat 35. secreted by the salivary glands 36. recycled many times through enterohepatic circulation 37. exerts detergent action 38. pancreatic enzyme that digests carbohydrate 39. forms micelles to aid fat absorption 40. activated by enterokinase 41. activated by HCl 42. potent choloretic 32. ANS: E PTS: 1 33. ANS: B PTS: 1 34. ANS: D PTS: 1 35. ANS: C PTS: 1 36. ANS: A PTS: 1 37. ANS: A PTS: 1 38. ANS: C PTS: 1 39. ANS: A PTS: 1 40. ANS: E PTS: 1 41. ANS: B PTS: 1 42. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System Indicate the stimulus for the item in question by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. fat in the duodenum b. acid in the duodenum c. acid in the stomach d. protein in the stomach 43. stimulates secretion of CCK 44. stimulates secretion of secretin 45. most potent stimulus for inhibition of gastric motility 46. stimulates secretion of gastrin 47. directly inhibits secretion of gastrin 43. ANS: A PTS: 1 44. ANS: B PTS: 1 45. ANS: A PTS: 1 46. ANS: D PTS: 1 47. ANS: C PTS: 1 Indicate which item in the top column best describes the item in the bottom column by using the answer code: a. secretes NaHCO3 b. enzyme for protein digestion secreted by pancreas c. activates pepsinogen d. enzyme for fat digestion e. functions inside brush border f. secretes gastrin g. stimulates parietal and chief cells h. enzyme for carbohydrate digestion that functions primarily in the body of the stomach i. secreted by chief cells j. secretes pancreatic enzymes k. secreted by duodenal cells in response to the presence of acid l. stimulates pancreatic acinar cells 48. salivary amylase 49. HCl 50. cholecystokinin 51. trypsin(ogen) 52. lipase 53. gastrin 54. pepsin(ogen) 55. pyloric gland area 56. secretin 57. pancreatic acinar cell 58. aminopeptidase 59. pancreatic duct cellChapter 14: The Digestive System 48. ANS: H PTS: 1 49. ANS: C PTS: 1 50. ANS: L PTS: 1 51. ANS: B PTS: 1 52. ANS: D PTS: 1 53. ANS: G PTS: 1 54. ANS: I PTS: 1 55. ANS: F PTS: 1 56. ANS: K PTS: 1 57. ANS: J PTS: 1 58. ANS: E PTS: 1 59. ANS: A PTS: 1 Match the digestive enzyme with the correct characteristic by using the answer code: a. amylase b. trypsin c. chymotrypsin d. lipase 60. activation initiated by enterokinase 61. only enzyme for fat digestion 62. similar to digestive enzyme found in saliva 63. activation initiated by trypsin 60. ANS: B PTS: 1 61. ANS: D PTS: 1 62. ANS: A PTS: 1 63. ANS: C PTS: 1 Match the hormone with the action by using the answer code: a. gastrin b. secretin c. CCK d. gastric inhibitory peptide e. histamine 64. stimulates insulin secretion 65. relaxes ileocecal sphincter 66. induces bicarbonate secretion 67. causes gallbladder contraction 68. causes increased HCl production 64. ANS: D PTS: 1 65. ANS: A PTS: 1 66. ANS: B PTS: 1 67. ANS: C PTS: 1 68. ANS: E PTS: 1Chapter 14: The Digestive System ESSAY 1. Describe gastric regulation and emptying. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. How does chemical digestion of proteins occur? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. Describe the defecation reflex. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4. Indicate the causes and effects of constipation and diarrhea. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. What are the various outcomes with regards to the other digestive organs when the stomach distends? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What percentage of the energy found in nutrient molecules is transferred to ATP? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 640 BLM: Remember 2. What percentage of the energy found in nutrient molecules is lost as heat? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 640 BLM: Remember 3. Which statement is INCORRECT for internal work? a. It is energy required for active transport. b. It is energy required to pump blood. c. It is energy required to move the body in relation to the environment. d. It is energy used during synthetic reactions. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 639 BLM: Higher Order 4. Which statement concerning internal work is correct? a. It includes all of the energy-expending activities that must go on all of the time to sustain life. b. It refers to all energy expenditure by tissues other than skeletal muscles. c. It includes the energy expenditure required to move external objects. d. It refers to all energy expenditure by skeletal muscles. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 639 BLM: Remember 5. Suppose a young woman consumes 1,200 ml of O2 in a six-minute basal metabolic rate test period. What is her estimated basal metabolic rate? a. 72 kcal/hour b. 57.6 kcal/hour c. 12 kcal/hour d. 4 kcal/hour ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 640 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 6. What is the energy equivalent of oxygen? a. the number of calories contained in every litre of oxygen consumed b. the value that equates how much energy is liberated from food for every litre of oxygen consumed c. the oxygen consumption required for the processing and storage of ingested foodstuff d. the energy required to raise 1 g of H2O 1°C ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 641 BLM: Remember 7. Which of the following is correct for the energy equivalent of O2 ? a. 4.8 kilocalories of energy liberated per litre of O2 consumed b. used to indirectly measure the metabolic rate c. the energy required to raise 1 gm of H2O 1°C d. 4.8 kilocalories of energy equivalent per litre o O2 consumed and used to indirectly measure the metabolic rate ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 641 BLM: Remember 8. When does the lowest metabolic rate occur? a. during sleep b. during a basal metabolic rate determination c. during exercise d. after a meal ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 641 BLM: Remember 9. About how many kilocalories of energy is liberated by consumption of 3 litres of oxygen? a. 4.8 b. 9.6 c. 14.4 d. 19.2 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 641 BLM: Higher Order 10. What is NOT a requirement for measurement of the basal metabolic rate (BMR)? a. The person must not have exercised for at least 30 minutes. b. The person must not have eaten any food within 12 hours. c. The person must have slept at least seven hours the previous night. d. The person should be at mental rest during the measurement. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 641 BLM: Remember 11. What does NOT increases metabolic rate? a. Sleeping b. diet-induced thermogenesis c. Epinephrine d. epinephrine and diet-induced thermogenesis ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 641 BLM: RememberChapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 12. What increases the metabolic rate to the greatest extent? a. increased skeletal muscle activity b. increased mental effort c. increased dietary fibre intake d. increased brown fat deposition ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 641 BLM: Remember 13. Where in the brain is the satiety centre located? a. cerebellum b. hypothalamus c. medulla d. thalamus ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 642 BLM: Remember 14. How many kilocalories is 5,300 calories? a. 00.53 b. 0.53 c. 5.3 d. 53 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 640 BLM: Higher Order 15. What does NOT happen when a negative energy balance exists? a. The body must make use of stored energy reserves. b. The caloric content of the food ingested is less than the energy output. c. The caloric content of the food ingested exceeds the energy lost due to heat or work. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 642 BLM: Remember 16. If more energy is contained in the food eaten than is expended, what happens? a. A positive energy balance will exist. b. The excess energy will be stored in adipose tissue. c. All of the excess energy will be liberated. d. A positive energy balance will exist and the excess energy will be stored in adipose tissue. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 642 BLM: Remember 17. What is a theory of satiety involving the hormone leptin? a. hydrostatic theory b. glucostatic theory c. lipostatic theory d. ischymetric theory ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 643 BLM: RememberChapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 18. What is an important satiety signal? a. ADH b. leptin c. glucagon d. glucose ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 643 BLM: Remember 19. Which statement concerning control of food intake is INCORRECT? a. There are a pair of feeding centres and a pair of satiety centres in the hypothalamus that play a major role in controlling food intake. b. Stimulation of the feeding centres drives the individual to eat. c. Stimulation of the satiety centres brings about the feeling of having had enough to eat. d. Distention of the digestive tract constitutes the major input for regulating food intake. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 644 BLM: Higher Order 20. Which statement concerning leptin is correct? a. It is secreted by adipocytes. b. It leads to appetite suppression. c. It targets the thalamus. d. It is secreted by adipocytes and leads to appetite suppression. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 642 BLM: Remember 21. What does NOT act as a satiety signal? a. cholecystokinin b. increased glucose utilization c. orexins d. leptin ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 644 BLM: Remember 22. The leading theory for maintenance of body weight as a result of long-term matching of food intake to energy expenditure relates to what? a. amount of fat stored in adipose tissue b. extent of glucose utilization c. magnitude of cellular ATP production d. extent of gastrointestinal distention ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 645 BLM: RememberChapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 23. Which of the following is correct for the core temperature? a. It is normally maintained relatively constant around 100°F. b. It is the temperature of the abdominal and thoracic organs, the central nervous system, and the skeletal muscles. c. It is the temperature of the skin and subcutaneous fat. d. a and b. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 650 BLM: Remember 24. Which system does NOT impact the variance of “Normal” body temperature ? a. exercise b. the menstrual cycle c. glucose level in blood ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 650 BLM: Remember 25. Most people suffer convulsions when internal body temperature reaches what temperature? a. 99.5 F b. 101°F c. 102°F d. 106°F ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 650 BLM: Remember 26. Which statement concerning radiation is correct? a. It refers to heat emission from a warm object in the form of electromagnetic waves. b. It is only a source of heat loss for the body (i.e., the body can lose but not gain heat by radiation). c. It refers to the transfer of heat by direct contact between a warmer and cooler object. d. It involves the continued cycling of cool air over the body. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 651 BLM: Remember 27. Radiation and conduction are two types of heat exchange between the body and environment. What determines the magnitude of heat loss via these two processes? a. amount of sweating b. temperature difference between body surface and its surroundings c. absolute core temperature d. extent of evaporation from the body surface ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 651 BLM: Remember 28. When the surrounding temperature is low, how is heat NOT lost from the body? a. by means of radiation b. by means of conduction/convection c. by means of nonshivering thermogenesis d. by means of both radiation and conduction/convection ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 654 BLM: RememberChapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 29. How can a person lose heat to an environment warmer than the body? a. radiation b. evaporation c. conduction ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 652 BLM: Remember 30. What type of heat loss occurs by sitting on a cold car seat? a. radiation b. Convection c. Conduction d. evaporation ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 651 BLM: Remember 31. On average, about half of the body heat that is lost is due to what? a. Radiation b. Convection c. Conduction d. evaporation ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 651 BLM: Remember 32. Which statement about sweating is NOT true? a. It is an active evaporative heat-loss process under sympathetic nervous control. b. It is the only means of losing heat when the environmental temperature is warmer than body temperature. c. It is the only means by which evaporative heat loss can take place in the body. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 652 BLM: Remember 33. Heat can be lost directly to the external environment by the vasodilation of blood vessels in what body part? a. the hypothalamus b. the cerebellum c. the skin d. the cerebral cortex ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 654 BLM: Remember 34. Which statement regarding sweating is correct? a. It causes vasodilation of the skin vessels. b. It increases the insulative capacity of the skin so that less heat can be gained from the environment. c. It is the only heat-loss mechanism available to the body when the environmental temperature is so high that a normal temperature gradient between the skin and the environment cannot be established. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 652 BLM: RememberChapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 35. Which receptors relay thermal information to the temperature control centres? a. peripheral warm and cold thermoreceptors in the skin b. central thermoreceptors in the hypothalamus c. central baroreceptors in internal organs d. central thermoreceptors in the hypothalamus and peripheral thermoreceptors in the skin ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 653 BLM: Remember 36. What is NOT a means of increasing or conserving heat production? a. shivering b. skin vasodilation c. nonshivering thermogenesis d. increased muscle tone ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 656 BLM: Higher Order 37. What is the major means of increasing heat production in response to a cold environmental temperature? a. skin vasoconstriction b. wearing warm clothing c. increased muscle activity, such as through shivering and increased voluntary exercise d. formation of “goose bumps” ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 656 BLM: Remember 38. Which is NOT a means of generating or holding heat in the body? a. diminished sweating b. exercising c. shivering d. vasodilation of blood vessels in the skin ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 656 BLM: Remember 39. What is the major means of decreasing heat loss in response to a cold environmental temperature? a. skin vasoconstriction b. skin vasodilation c. increasing the temperature gradient between the skin and environment d. formation of “goose bumps” ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 654 BLM: RememberChapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 40. Which statement concerning nonshivering thermogenesis is correct? a. It is stimulated by epinephrine and thyroid hormone. b. It refers to the general increase in muscle tone in response to abrupt exposure to cold. c. It enhances the insulative capacity of the skin by promoting increased deposition of brown fat under the skin. d. It refers to the elevation of body temperature in response to pyrogen release. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 654 BLM: Remember 41. What is the means of heat energy emission from the surface of a warm body? a. Radiation b. conduction/convection c. Evaporation d. Shivering ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 654 BLM: Remember 42. What happens when vasodilation of the blood vessels in the skin occurs? a. The skin temperature becomes warmer than the core temperature. b. The insulative capacity of the skin is increased. c. Heat will be lost from the body if the air temperature is cooler than the skin temperature. d. The skin will be pale. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 654 BLM: Remember 43. Which statement is true of the vasoconstriction of the blood vessels to the skin? a. It is coordinated by the sympathetic nervous system. b. It lowers heat exchange with the environment. c. It occurs when core body temperature is elevated. d. It lowers heat exchange with the environment and is coordinated by the sympathetic nervous system ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 654 BLM: Remember 44. Which mechanism does NOT help to maintain body temperature on hot days? a. decreased muscle tone b. skin vessels’ vasoconstriction c. Sweating d. both by sweating and decreasing muscle tone ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 655 BLM: Remember 45. Upon cold exposure, what does NOT occur? a. skin vasoconstriction b. decreased muscle tone c. nonshivering thermogenesis d. behavioural adaptations ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 655 BLM: RememberChapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 46. Which statement about thermoregulation is INCORRECT? a. In a cold environment, the body will gain heat by conduction, convection, radiation, and evaporation. b. In a hot environment when the temperature of the environment exceeds that of the skin surface, evaporation is the only means for the body to lose heat. c. The temperature control centres in the hypothalamus receive afferent input from peripheral thermoreceptors in the skin and central thermoreceptors in the hypothalamus and internal organs. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 655 BLM: Higher Order 47. Which statement concerning thermoneutral zone is correct? a. It is maintained by sweating and shivering mechanisms. b. It is the temperature within the body core that remains constant despite changes in environmental temperature. c. It is the environmental temperature range within which core temperature can be kept constant by skin vasomotor responses without calling supplementary heat-production or heat-loss mechanisms into play. d. It is the controlled environment within a building equipped with both heating and air-conditioning. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 655 BLM: Remember 48. What happens in fever? a. Endogenous pyrogen released from neurons of the cerebral cortex in response to an infection elevates the hypothalamic “set point.” b. Cold response mechanisms are initiated by the hypothalamus to raise the body temperature to the new set point. c. Heat loss mechanisms are triggered to eliminate the excess heat from the body. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 655 BLM: Remember 49. What does not characterize heat exhaustion? a. reduced plasma volume b. extensive sweating c. rapidly rising body temperature d. fainting ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 657 BLM: Remember 50. What can release an endogenous pyrogen? a. pathogens b. platelets c. erythrocytes d. neutrophils ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 655 BLM: RememberChapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 51. Which is true about the development of fever ? a. results from resetting of the medullary thermoregulatory centre. b. may develop when mast cells release pyrogens. c. is mediated by prostaglandins. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 655 BLM: Remember 52. Which statement is INCORRECT? a. The most important factor influencing heat transfer by radiation is the relative humidity of the atmosphere. b. Skin vasoconstriction reduces the temperature of the skin. c. Sweating is the only mechanism for heat loss when body temperature is the same as environmental temperature. d. Upon exposure to heat, skin vasodilation occurs, which increases the temperature gradient between the skin and environment, thus promoting heat loss. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 654 BLM: Higher Order 53. Which statement is correct? a. Profuse sweating occurs during heat stroke as body temperature climbs rapidly. b. An elevated body temperature is always indicative of an infection. c. Aspirin reduces a fever by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins. d. Shivering is the main voluntary means of increasing the production of heat in the body. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 656 BLM: Remember 54. Which statement concerning hyperthermia is INCORRECT? a. Sustained exercise is the most common cause of hyperthermia. b. All causes of hyperthermia are pathological and fatal. c. Hyperthermia-associated abnormally high levels of thyroid hormone elevate the core temperature by increasing the rate of metabolic activity. d. Hyperthermia refers to all imbalances between heat gain and heat loss that increase body temperature. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 656 BLM: Higher Order 55. Which statement concerning obesity is INCORRECT? a. It means having an excess amount of body fat. b. It tends to run in families, suggesting there is a genetic association. c. In Canadian children, obesity has decreased between 1981 and 2001. d. Obesity rates are different for various populations and geographical locations within Canada. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 645 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 56. Which statement concerning obesity is correct? a. The percentage of body fat and body mass index are two commonly used determinants of obesity. b. The health risks are same for a person who is in the obese category and a person who is in the overweight category. c. Waist circumference (WC) is not a significant measurement in gathering a fat weight distribution. d. A link between obesity and heredity is not yet scientifically proven. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 645 BLM: Remember TRUE/FALSE 1. Energy cannot be created or destroyed, but it can be transformed from one form of energy into another. ANS: T PTS: 1 2. Internal work includes the expended energy when skeletal muscles are contracted to move external objects. ANS: F PTS: 1 3. Internal energy expenditure is the energy utilized by the skeletal muscles when external objects are moved. ANS: F PTS: 1 4. Most of the energy contained within food will be lost as heat. ANS: T PTS: 1 5. There is an obligatory increase in metabolic rate resulting from food intake. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. Metabolic rate equals energy expenditure/unit of time. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. Metabolic rate can be measured indirectly by measuring the rate of oxygen consumption. ANS: T PTS: 1 8. The basal metabolic rate is the body’s lowest metabolic rate. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 9. The most dominant factor influencing the BMR is the level of circulating, active thyroid hormone. ANS: T PTS: 1 10. As the level of circulating, active thyroid hormone increases, the BMR increases correspondingly. ANS: T PTS: 1 11. Weight loss occurs when the energy derived from the food consumed is less than the energy expended by the body. ANS: T PTS: 1 12. Leptin is a hormone released from adipose tissue. ANS: T PTS: 1 13. Leptin stimulates the release of melanocortins. ANS: T PTS: 1 14. The appetite centres stimulate feeding behaviour, whereas the satiety centres inhibit feeding behaviour. ANS: T PTS: 1 15. The feeding and satiety centres are located in the hypothalamus. ANS: T PTS: 1 16. An animal can be driven to overeat either by selective stimulation of the appetite centres or destruction of the satiety centres. ANS: T PTS: 1 17. Neuropeptide Y is a strong appetite inhibitor. ANS: F PTS: 1 18. A decrease of insulin in the blood may signal satiety. ANS: F PTS: 1 19. Fat people tend to eat more on a daily basis than thin people. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 20. The core temperature is maintained at a fairly constant level, but skin temperature is quite variable. ANS: T PTS: 1 21. Psychosocial influences can lead to obesity. ANS: T PTS: 1 22. Oral temperature is lower than the core temperature. ANS: T PTS: 1 23. Oral temperature is the same as core temperature. ANS: F PTS: 1 24. The normal core temperature is 37°C. ANS: F PTS: 1 25. The skin thermoreceptors are capable of regulating core temperature in the absence of the hypothalamic temperature control centres. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. The inner core includes the abdominal and thoracic organs. ANS: T PTS: 1 27. The temperature control centre in the posterior region of the hypothalamus is activated in response to cold exposure. ANS: T PTS: 1 28. Temperature-regulating mechanisms are not 100% effective. ANS: T PTS: 1 29. Skin vasoconstriction increases the skin’s insulative capacity. ANS: T PTS: 1 30. The transfer of heat between objects by conduction involves direct contact. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 31. Upon exposure to heat, skin vasodilation occurs, which increases the temperature gradient between the skin and environment, thus promoting heat loss. ANS: T PTS: 1 32. Heat loss from the body by evaporation occurs even in very cold weather. ANS: T PTS: 1 33. The most important factor influencing heat transfer by radiation is the relative humidity of the atmosphere. ANS: F PTS: 1 34. The nude body absorbs more radiant heat energy than the body covered in light-coloured clothing. ANS: T PTS: 1 35. Skin vasoconstriction reduces the temperature of the skin. ANS: T PTS: 1 36. Peripheral thermoreceptors monitor skin temperature. ANS: T PTS: 1 37. Sweating is the only mechanism for heat loss when body temperature is the same as environmental temperature. ANS: T PTS: 1 38. The body temperature is normally maintained at an elevated level during sustained exercise. ANS: T PTS: 1 39. Shivering is the main voluntary means of increasing the production of heat in the body. ANS: F PTS: 1 40. An elevated body temperature is always indicative of an infection. ANS: F PTS: 1 41. Heat exhaustion is accompanied by extensive sweating, whereas heat stroke is characterized by an absence of sweating. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 42. Profuse sweating occurs during heat stroke as body temperature climbs rapidly. ANS: F PTS: 1 43. The presence of skin blood vessels diminishes the effectiveness of the skin as an insulator. ANS: T PTS: 1 44. The thermoneutral zone for skin vasomotor activity is in the range of the upper 60s to mid-80s. ANS: T PTS: 1 45. Aspirin reduces a fever by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins. ANS: T PTS: 1 COMPLETION 1. ____________________ work refers to the energy expended by contracting skeletal muscles to accomplish movement of objects or the body within the external environment. ANS: External PTS: 1 2. ____________________ work constitutes all forms of biological energy expenditure that do not accomplish mechanical work outside the body. ANS: Internal PTS: 1 3. ____________________ tissue stores fat. ANS: Adipose PTS: 1 4. The ____________________ is the energy expenditure (i.e., rate of heat production) per unit of time. ANS: metabolic rate PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 5. ____________________ kilocalories of heat energy are released when one gram of glucose is oxidized. ANS: -Four -4 PTS: 1 6. The unit of heat energy used in energy balance is the ____________________. ANS: kilocalorie PTS: 1 7. The minimal waking rate of energy expenditure determined under standardized conditions is known as the ____________________. ANS: -basal metabolic rate -BMR PTS: 1 8. A(n) ____________________ energy balance occurs when the amount of energy in food intake equals the amount of energy expended by the muscles performing external work. ANS: neutral PTS: 1 9. ____________________ refers to the obligatory increase in metabolic rate incurred during the processing and storage of ingested foods. ANS: Diet-induced thermogenesis PTS: 1 10. The stimulation of gastric ____________________ receptors as food accumulates in the stomach can suppress the intake of food. ANS: stretch PTS: 1 11. Regulation of ____________________ is the most important factor in the long-term maintenance of energy balance and body weight. ANS: food intake PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 12. Norepinephrine and neuropeptide ____________________ increase carbohydrate metabolism. ANS: Y PTS: 1 13. The region of the brain primarily responsible for controlling food intake is the ____________________. ANS: hypothalamus PTS: 1 14. Among the several kinds of biologically important molecules, ____________________ store the most energy per gram. ANS: fats PTS: 1 15. A disorder characterized by a pathological fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image is ____________________. ANS: anorexia nervosa PTS: 1 16. ____________________ may serve as a satiety signal to stop eating before ingested food is actually digested, absorbed, and made available to meet the body’s energy needs. ANS: -Cholecystokinin -CCK PTS: 1 17. The core temperature in women is 0.5?0??9? higher in the last half of the menstrual cycle, from ____________________ to ____________________. ANS: ovulation, menstruation PTS: 1 18. The most important factor determining the extent of evaporation of sweat is the ____________________ of the air. ANS: humidity PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 19. The ____________________ serves as the body’s thermostat. ANS: hypothalamus PTS: 1 20. We lose or gain heat through ____________________ to the layer of air in direct contact with our bodies. ANS: conduction PTS: 1 21. The temperature-sensitive receptors that monitor skin and core temperature are termed ____________________. ANS: thermoreceptors PTS: 1 22. The amount of heat lost to the environment by radiation and conduction-convection is largely determined by the ____________________ between the skin and the external environment. ANS: temperature gradient PTS: 1 23. The ____________________ humidity is the most important factor influencing the evaporation of sweat. ANS: relative PTS: 1 24. The only means of heat loss when the environmental temperature exceeds core temperature is ____________________. ANS: sweating PTS: 1 25. ____________________ is the rhythmic, oscillating contraction of skeletal muscles. ANS: Shivering PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation 26. ____________________ refers to a state of collapse resulting from reduced blood pressure brought about as a consequence of overtaxing the heat loss mechanisms. ANS: Heat stroke PTS: 1 27. Freezing of exposed tissues produces the condition of ____________________. ANS: frostbite PTS: 1 28. An elevation in body temperature due to reasons other than an infection is known as ____________________. ANS: hyperthermia PTS: 1 29. In addition to temperature control, blood flowing to the skin supplies a source of ____________________. ANS: nutrition PTS: 1 30. The ____________________ signalling of the autonomic nervous system controls the vasomotor responses of the skin. ANS: sympathetic PTS: 1 31. A fever augments the inflammatory response and therefore inhibits the multiplication of ____________________ microorganisms. ANS: bacterial PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation MATCHING Match the items below in the right column with their descriptions in the left column by using the answer code: a. energy equivalent of oxygen b. external work c. calorie d. basal metabolic rate e. internal work 1. energy expended by contracting skeletal muscles to move external objects or to move the body 2. all forms of biological energy expenditure that do not accomplish work outside the body 3. amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of H2O 1°C 4. quantity of heat produced per litre of O2 consumed 5. minimal waking rate of internal energy expenditure 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 2. ANS: E PTS: 1 3. ANS: C PTS: 1 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 Match the method of heat exchange in the right column with its description in the left column by using the answer code: a. convection b. evaporation c. radiation d. conduction 6. emission of heat energy from the surface of a warm body in the form of electromagnetic waves 7. heat loss by means of conversion of water from a liquid to a gaseous state 8. transfer of heat between objects of differing temperatures that are in direct contact with each other 9. transfer of heat by air or water currents 6. ANS: C PTS: 1 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 8. ANS: D PTS: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation Match the term with the correct characteristic by using the answer code: a. hypothermia b. obesity c. frostbite d. hyperthermia e. anorexia f. heat stroke g. heat exhaustion 10. excessive fat content in adipose tissues stores 11. morbid fear of becoming overweight 12. state of collapse resulting from reduced blood pressure brought about as a consequence of overtaxing the heat loss mechanisms 13. heat loss mechanisms are absent despite the fact that the body temperature is rapidly rising 14. freezing of tissues as a result of cold exposure 15. elevation in body temperature due to reasons other than an infection 16. slowing of all body processes as a result of generalized cooling 10. ANS: B PTS: 1 11. ANS: E PTS: 1 12. ANS: G PTS: 1 13. ANS: F PTS: 1 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 15. ANS: D PTS: 1 16. ANS: A PTS: 1Chapter 15: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation ESSAY 1. Describe the mechanisms the body uses for coordinating food intake with energy output. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. Compare and contrast the various means by which the body loses and gains heat to/from the environment. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. Alcohol consumption causes peripheral vasoconstriction. Why is drinking wine in a hot tub not advised? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4. Describe the physiological changes that occur during heat stroke. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which endocrine gland secretes hormones containing iodine? a. adrenal cortex b. adrenal medulla c. pancreas d. thyroid ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 661 BLM: Remember 2. Which statement concerning thyroid hormones is correct? a. They regulate basal metabolic rate. b. They are released from the thyroid gland immediately after synthesis. c. They contain chromium and zinc as structural cofactors. d. They are tropic. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 661 BLM: Remember 3. Which statement concerning thyroid hormones is INCORRECT? a. They are derivatives of an amino acid. b. They are produced from tyrosine. c. They are secreted from parafollicular C cells. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 661 BLM: Remember 4. Which hormone is NOT produced by the thyroid gland? a. calcitonin b. thyroxine c. parathyroid hormone ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 661 BLM: Remember 5. Which biochemical event does NOT take place during thyroid hormone synthesis? a. One monoiodotyrosine molecule combines with one diiodotyrosine molecule to form one tri-iodothyronine molecule. b. Two iodine molecules combine with one tyrosine molecule to form one diiodotyrosine molecule. c. Two diiodotyrosine molecules combine to form one molecule of thyroxine. d. Four iodine molecules combine with one tyrosine molecule to form one tetraiodothyronine molecule. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 662 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 6. Which statement concerning the synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones is INCORRECT? a. The ―iodine pump‖ of the follicular cells is important for thyroid hormone production. b. Thyroid hormones are formed within a much larger molecule called thyroglobulin. c. Thyroid hormone synthesis is greatly stimulated by the presence of TSH. d. A one- to two-hour supply of thyroid hormone is stored within the colloid in the lumen of the follicle. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 662 BLM: Remember 7. Which statement concerning thyroxin is correct? a. It is formed by coupling one MIT and one DIT within the colloid. b. It is produced by the C cells of the thyroid gland. c. It exerts a calorigenic effect. d. It inhibits thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin in negative-feedback fashion. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 662 BLM: Remember 8. What does the ―iodine pump‖ refer to? a. a mechanism whereby target cells extract iodine-containing thyroid hormone from the blood b. an active transport mechanism that concentrates iodine in the thyroid c. a mechanism whereby T3 and T4 are released from thyroglobulin and pumped into the circulation d. a protein-binding process whereby T3 and T4 are pumped throughout the body bound to plasma proteins ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 662 BLM: Remember 9. What does NOT happen during thyroid hormone secretion? a. The follicular cells phagocytize a piece of colloid. b. T4 and T3 are split off thyroglobulin by lysosomal enzymes within the follicular cell and subsequently diffuse out of the cell into the blood. c. T4 and T3 are secreted by exocytosis of the colloid that has been internalized by the follicular cells. d. a and b ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 662 BLM: Higher Order 10. What happens to most of the secreted T4? a. It is phagocytized by target tissues. b. It is converted into T3 after being peripherally stripped of one of its I atoms. c. It is the major biologically active form of thyroid hormone at the cellular level. d. It is split to form two DIT molecules, which are excreted in the urine. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 664 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 11. Which of the following hormones targets osteoclasts when blood calcium levels are too low, thus causing an increase in the concentration of calcium in the blood? a. thyroid hormone b. Cortisol c. parathyroid hormone d. Calcitonin ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 698 BLM: Higher Order 12. Which of the following is NOT an effect of thyroid hormone? a. increased metabolic rate b. increased tissue responsiveness to catecholamines c. increased absorption of iodine from the digestive tract into the blood d. normal growth ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 664 BLM: Remember 13. Which statement concerning TSH is INCORRECT? a. It is inhibited by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). b. It is inhibited by T3 and T4. c. It promotes hypertrophy and hyperplasia of thyroid cells. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 665 BLM: Remember 14. Which is correct with regards to thyroid hormone secretion? a. The anterior pituitary controls daily regulation while the hypothalamus controls long-term patterns of secretion. b. TSH causes TRH to be secreted, which, in turn, stimulates T3 and T4 release. c. Thyroid hormone negatively feedback to the hypothalamus. d. Control is primarily neural. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 665 BLM: Remember 15. Which of the following would NOT decrease thyroid hormone production? a. a decrease in TSH production b. an iodine-deficient diet c. an increase in TRH production d. inhibition of the iodine pump ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 665 BLM: Higher Order 16. Which of the following are NOT plasma proteins to which thyroid hormone is bound in circulation? a. Albumin b. gamma globulin c. thyroxine-binding globulin ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 664 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 17. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of thyroid hormone? a. It increases the overall metabolic rate. b. It exerts a calorigenic effect. c. It binds to receptors on the surface of all body cells. d. It enhances glycogenolysis and lipolysis. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 664 BLM: Remember 18. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Graves’ disease? a. It is a symptom is exophthalmos. b. It is an autoimmune disease. c. It is caused by a goiter. d. There is an elevated basal metabolic rate. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 666 BLM: Remember 19. Hyperthyroidism can be due to all of the following EXCEPT ______________ a. too much TRH b. too much TSH c. lack of iodine d. too much T4 or T3 ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 665 BLM: Remember 20. Which statement concerning a goiter is correct? a. It is an enlarged thyroid. b. It always accompanies hypothyroidism. c. It is present only with iodine-deficient diets. d. It occurs only when TSH levels are elevated. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 667 BLM: Remember 21. Which statement concerning a goiter is NOT correct? a. It may occur with hyper- and hypothyroidism. b. It refers to an enlarged thyroid gland. c. It occurs only in the presence of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 667 BLM: Remember 22. Hypothyroidism may not occur when? a. occur secondarily to posterior pituitary failure. b. occur due to inadequate dietary supply of iodine. c. be due to failure of the thyroid gland itself. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 665 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 23. What is associated with hyperthyroidism? a. poor resistance to cold b. myxedema c. slow speech, poor memory d. exophthalmos ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 666 BLM: Remember 24. What is not a cause of hypothyroidism? a. lack of TRH b. iodine-deficient diet c. Grave’s disease d. lack of an enzyme necessary for one of the steps in the synthesis and release of thyroid hormone. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 665 BLM: Remember 25. Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with hyperthyroidism? a. elevated basal metabolic rate b. myxedema c. weakness d. excessive perspiration ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 666 BLM: Remember 26. A woman is found to have the following symptoms: a large goiter, muscle weakness, excessively emotional and irritable disposition, extreme weight loss, a constant feeling of being too warm in normal-temperature rooms, and bulging eyes. What is the provisional diagnosis? a. myxedema b. Cushing’s disease c. Conn’s syndrome d. Graves’ disease ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 666 BLM: Higher Order 27. Which of the following hormones decreases the concentration of calcium in the blood? a. thyroxine b. tri-iodothyronine c. Calcitonin d. parathyoid hormone ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 701 BLM: Remember 28. What does the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex secrete? a. aldosterone b. cortisol c. androgens and estrogens d. epinephrine ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 668 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 29. Which statement concerning adrenocortical hormones is INCORRECT? a. The glucocorticoids are examples. b. Some are steroids. c. They are all controlled primarily by TSH. d. They are secreted from the outer layer of the adrenal gland. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 668 BLM: Remember 30. What is the most abundant and physiologically important adrenal sex hormone? a. aldosterone b. cortisol c. dehydroepiandrosterone d. estradiol ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 671 BLM: Remember 31. What it the precursor to testosterone? a. aldosterone b. cortisol c. dehydroepiandrosterone d. estradiol ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 671 BLM: Remember 32. Which statement is correct for aldosterone? a. It causes conservation of sodium. b. It facilitates lipolysis. c. It promotes gluconeogenesis. d. It is regulated by ACTH. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 672 BLM: Remember 33. Which statement is correct for aldosterone? a. It enhances the ability of the kidneys to eliminate excess K+. b. It directly promotes H2O conservation by the kidneys. c. Its secretion is encouraged by angiotensin II. d. It is nonsteroidal. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 672 BLM: Remember 34. Which statement is correct for mineralocorticoids? a. They stimulate gluconeogenesis. b. They stimulate protein degradation. c. They act at the kidneys to promote sodium retention and enhance potassium elimination. d. They contribute to the pubertal growth spurt. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 668 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 35. Which of the following does NOT regulate aldosterone secretion? a. ACTH b. the renin-angiotensin system, which is activated by various factors related to a fall in plasma Na+ concentration/ECF volume/arterial blood pressure c. the direct effect of plasma K+ on the adrenal cortex ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 669 BLM: Remember 36. What would a drop in blood pressure be expected to lead to? a. increased plasma aldosterone levels b. increased glucocorticoid levels c. decreased plasma aldosterone levels d. decreased glucocorticoid levels ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 669 BLM: Remember 37. Plasma sodium levels are high in a patient, but his plasma potassium levels are low. As an underlying cause of this condition, what might you expect to find? a. decreased plasma aldosterone levels b. decreased plasma parathyroid hormone levels c. increased plasma aldosterone levels d. increased plasma parathyroid hormone levels ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 669 BLM: Higher Order 38. What is NOT an action of cortisol? a. increasing the conversion of glycogen to glucose b. stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver c. increasing protein degradation d. mobilizing fat from adipose tissue ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 669 BLM: Remember 39. Which two hormones are produced from the same large precursor molecule, pro-opiomelanocortin? a. aldosterone, cortisol b. cortisol, androgen c. cortisol, beta endorphin d. aldosterone, androgen ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 670 BLM: Remember 40. What does an increase in plasma levels of ACTH lead to? a. increased plasma cortisol levels b. increased plasma glucagon levels c. increased plasma vasopressin levels d. increased plasma parathyroid hormone levels ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 670 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 41. Which statement is NOT true for cortisol? a. It is the primary mineralocorticoid. b. Its excess is responsible for Cushing’s syndrome. c. It increases blood glucose, blood fatty acid, and blood amino acid levels. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 670 BLM: Remember 42. Which statement is NOT true of cortisol? a. It has immunosuppressive effects. b. It is an anti-inflammatory. c. It results in facultative potassium resorption. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 670 BLM: Remember 43. When a student experiences psychological and emotional stress, what won’t they secrete at higher levels? a. GRH b. ACTH c. cortisol ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 670 BLM: Higher Order 44. Which hormone exhibits a marked diurnal variation in secretion? a. aldosterone b. cortisol c. thyroid hormone d. epinephrine ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 670 BLM: Remember 45. What is NOT true of glucocorticoids? a. decreased gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis b. increased fat mobilization c. increased breakdown of muscle proteins ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 676 BLM: Remember 46. What is the major factor that promotes increased secretion of cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a. low Na+ concentration in the extracellular fluid b. physical and emotional stress c. angiotensin II d. increased blood amino acid concentration ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 677 BLM: Remember 47. Which statement is correct for adrenocorticotropic hormone? a. It is a tropic hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex. b. It stimulates the production of androgens by the testes. c. It is controlled in part by CRH from the hypothalamus. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 669 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 48. Which of the following is NOT the action of Glucocorticoids? a. carbohydrate conservation b. protein degradation c. increased metabolic rate d. mobilization of fats for energy ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 669 BLM: Remember 49. Which statement is NOT true for dehydrorpiandrosterone? a. It is the most abundant adrenal androgen. b. It is responsible for the development and maintenance of the female sex drive. c. It is controlled by the gonadotropic hormones. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 671 BLM: Remember 50. Which statement concerning adrenal androgens is NOT true a. It is normally secreted only in males, whereas adrenal estrogens are secreted in females. b. It is normally secreted in both males and females, but in insufficient amounts to cause masculinization. c. It is responsible for the female sex drive. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 671 BLM: Remember 51. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Cushing’s syndrome? a. hypernatremia b. hyperglycemia c. muscle weakness and fatigue d. poor wound healing ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 672 BLM: Remember 52. Because aldosterone encourages K+ secretion into the urine, what does conditions in which excess aldosterone is secreted result in? a. hyponatremia. b. hypokalemia. c. hypotension. d. idiopathic atrophy. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 674 BLM: Remember 53. Which of the following is NOT seen in Addison’s disease? a. marked Na+ loss in the urine b. lowered blood glucose levels c. K+ retention d. protein mobilization ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 674 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 54. Which of the following is characteristic of Conn’s syndrome? a. K+ increase in the blood b. Na+ depletion c. hypertension ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 672 BLM: Remember 55. Which of the following is characteristic of the adrenogenital syndrome? a. precocious pseudopuberty in prepubertal boys b. development of female-type external genitalia in male fetuses c. hirsutism in adult females d. a and c ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 672 BLM: Remember 56. Which of the following is NOT an effect of epinephrine? a. It constricts the respiratory airways. b. It elevates the concentration of blood sugar. c. It stimulates glycogenolysis in skeletal muscles. d. It stimulates hepatic gluconeogenesis. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 674 BLM: Higher Order 57. Which statement is correct for catecholamines? a. They are secreted by the adrenal cortex. b. They reinforce the parasympathetic nervous system. c. They are important in the maintenance of blood pressure. d. They promote glycogen storage. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 675 BLM: Remember 58. Which statement is NOT true for epinephrine? a. It is secreted by the adrenal cortex b. It is cosecreted with norepinephrine. c. It reinforces sympathetic nervous system activity. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 675 BLM: Remember 59. When catecholamines are secreted from the adrenal medulla, what is this a response to? a. increased secretion of ACTH from the anterior pituitary. b. direct sympathetic nervous system stimulation. c. decreased androgen secretion from the adrenal cortex. d. a tropic hormone secreted by the pituitary. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 664 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 60. Of the hormones secreted by the adrenal gland, which does NOT promote an increase in the blood glucose level? a. aldosterone b. cortisol c. epinephrine ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 667 BLM: Remember 61. Which statement concerning the adrenomedulla hormones is INCORRECT? a. Epinephrine accounts for 80 percent of adrenomedullary catecholamine output. b. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are stored within chromaffin granules in the adrenomedullary cells. c. Epinephrine and norepinephrine have about equal affinities for all the adrenergic receptor types. d. Epinephrine is at least 10 times more potent than norepinephrine at beta 2 receptors. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 674 BLM: Remember 62. Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted in response to stress? a. cortisol b. epinephrine c. insulin d. aldosterone ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 676 BLM: Remember 63. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the general adaptation syndrome? a. mobilization of energy reserves b. conservation of water and sodium c. increased systemic vasodilation ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 676 BLM: Remember 64. Which of the following nutrient molecules, when in excess quantities, can NOT be stored in adipose tissue as triglycerides? a. fat-soluble vitamins b. glucose c. amino acids ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 680 BLM: Remember 65. Where does glycogenesis occur? a. liver b. brain c. working muscle d. nonworking muscle ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 685 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 66. Which statement is INCORRECT for blood sugar levels? a. They must remain within normal range because the brain needs a constant supply of sugar. b. They increase in response to glucagon secretion. c. They increase in response to glycogenesis. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: Remember 67. Which statement is INCORRECT for gluconeogenesis? a. It refers to the conversion of amino acids into glucose. b. It results in an increase in blood glucose. c. It is stimulated by insulin. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 669 BLM: Remember 68. Which statement is INCORRECT for glycogenesis? a. It results in a storage form of glucose. b. It is stimulated by glucagon. c. It is stimulated by insulin. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 685 BLM: Remember 69. Which pituitary hormone increases the concentration of blood sugar? a. glucagon b. insulin c. cortisol d. growth hormone ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 694 BLM: Remember 70. What does NOT characterize the post absorptive state? a. There is a substantial reduction in blood glucose concentration compared to the absorptive state. b. Gluconeogenesis occurs. c. Glucose-sparing occurs. d. Insulin secretion is reduced. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 682 BLM: Remember 71. Which statement is true during the absorptive state? a. glycogenolysis is occurring. b. fats are the primary energy source. c. glucose is the main energy source. d. amino acid degradation is occurring. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 682 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 72. Which statement concerning somatostatin is INCORRECT? a. Somatostatin is produced by the hypothalamus. b. Somatostatin is produced by the pancreatic D cells. c. Somatostatin inhibits growth hormone secretion. d. Somatostatin is released in response to a fall in blood glucose and blood amino acids. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: Remember 73. Secretion of which hormone is stimulated by an increase in blood glucose? a. glucagon b. cortisol c. growth hormone d. insulin ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: Remember 74. Which statement is correct for insulin? a. It facilitates the transport of glucose into the glucose-dependent brain cells. b. It increases blood glucose levels to ensure adequate nourishment of the brain. c. It promotes fat storage in the body. d. It is stimulated by lowered blood glucose. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: Remember 75. Which statement is INCORRECT for insulin? a. It promotes the insertion of additional glucose transporters in the plasma membranes of insulin-dependent cells. b. It stimulates glycogenesis and inhibits glycogenolysis. c. Its secretion is increased in response to a fall in blood glucose concentration. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: Remember 76. Which of the following is NOT an outcome of insulin secretion? a. increased GLUT-4 mobilization b. promoting glucose uptake by neural tissue c. inhibiting lipolysis d. promoting glycogenesis ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: Remember 77. Which of the following does NOT stimulate insulin secretion? a. elevated blood amino acid concentration b. gastrointestinal hormones c. a fast-food hamburger d. starvation ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 78. Increased levels of which hormone would NOT result in increased blood fatty acid levels? a. glucagon b. growth hormone c. insulin d. epinephrine ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: Remember 79. Which statement is correct for insulin? a. It facilitates the entry of glucose into brain tissue. b. It promotes glucose output by the liver. c. It lowers blood glucose levels. d. It facilitates the entry of glucose into brain tissue and lowers blood glucose levels. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: Remember 80. Which of the following does NOT characterize diabetes mellitus? a. increased glucose utilization due to excessive glucose availability b. polyuria due to the osmotic effect of glucose in the urine c. acidosis due to the ketosis accompanying abnormal fat metabolism d. polydipsia due to dehydration ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 687 BLM: Remember 81. Which is NOT a result that occurs when diabetes is not treated? a. ketoacidosis b. dehydration c. inactivation of gluconeogenesis ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 687 BLM: Remember 82. Which of the following characterizes Type I but not Type II diabetes mellitus? a. hyperglycemia b. lack of insulin c. polyuria and polydipsia d. can usually be successfully managed by dietary control and weight reduction without the necessity of insulin injections ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 689 BLM: Remember 83. Which of the following is NOT an effect of glucagon? a. It diminishes the degradation of hepatic proteins. b. It enhances hepatic ketogenesis. c. It increases hepatic glucose production. d. It is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 692 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 84. If a patient is hyperventilating and has a blood sugar level of 800 mg/100 ml, what hormone should be injected for treatment? a. aldosterone b. insulin c. glucagon d. somatostatin ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 687 BLM: Higher Order 85. What is NOT a cause of coma (severely depressed CNS activity)? a. untreated hyperthyroidism. b. untreated diabetes mellitus. c. insulin excess. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 692 BLM: Remember 86. What does the nervous manifestations occurring in diabetes mellitus result in? a. arise as a result of depression of the brain due to acidosis produced by excessive fat metabolism and ketone accumulation. b. arise as a result of starvation of the brain tissue due to the inability of glucose to gain entry to the brain cells in the absence of insulin. c. occur early in the course of the disease before other symptoms become obvious. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 687 BLM: Remember 87. Which statement is NOT true of untreated diabetes mellitus? a. It results in increased urinary excretion of glucose. b. It results in metabolic acidosis. c. It results in dehydration. d. It results in decreased levels of fatty acids in the blood. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 690 BLM: Remember 88. What do the symptoms of insulin excess result from? a. the effects of acidosis on the nervous system b. excessive glucose utilization by the brain c. reduced availability of glucose for the brain as a result of hypoglycemia d. excessive protein breakdown ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 692 BLM: Remember 89. What occurs in reactive hypoglycemia? a. Too much glucose is transferred into the brain cells by an insulin excess. b. The brain cells do not receive an adequate supply of glucose, leading to symptoms of depressed CNS activity. c. An insulin deficiency exists. d. A glucagon excess exists. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 692 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 90. Which of the following hormones does NOT increase membrane transport of amino acids into body cells? a. cortisol b. growth hormone c. insulin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: Remember 91. Which hormone does NOT oppose the effects of insulin? a. aldosterone b. glucagon c. epinephrine ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: Remember 92. Which statement is correct for glucagon? a. It is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans. b. It is secreted in response to a fall in blood glucose. c. It is, in general, antagonistic to all other hormones in terms of metabolic effects. d. It increases fat stores by inhibiting the enzyme that catalyzes triglyceride breakdown. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 684 BLM: Remember 93. Which hormone does NOT increase blood glucose? a. growth hormone b. cortisol c. insulin ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 694 BLM: Remember 94. What is an effect of glucagon? a. decreased blood glucose levels b. increased breakdown of fats c. increased glycogenesis in the liver d. increased amino acid uptake by cells ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 692 BLM: Remember 95. Which hormone influences increased protein degradation? a. insulin b. glucagon c. epinephrine d. cortisol ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 695 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 96. In which of the following forms does Ca2+ exhibit profound effects on such things as neuromuscular excitability? a. free, unbound diffusible Ca2+ b. intracellular Ca2+ c. calcium phosphate crystals impregnated in the organic matrix of bone d. calcium bound to plasma proteins ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 696 BLM: Remember 97. Calcium is NOT important to the normal functioning of the body, so it is very important that the plasma Ca2+ concentration be well regulated. In which of the following ways does calcium play an important role? a. Calcium plays an important role in the absorption of vitamin D from the digestive tract. b. Calcium is important for maintaining the proper excitability of nerves and muscles. c. Calcium stimulates osteoblasts to lay down bone. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 695 BLM: Remember 98. Which of the following is FALSE concerning the control of calcium metabolism? a. PTH (parathyroid hormone) causes an increase in plasma calcium by activation of osteoclasts. b. PTH increases renal reabsorption of calcium. c. Vitamin D causes an increase in secretion of Ca2+ into the lumen of the digestive tract. d. Calcitonin causes a decrease in plasma calcium by decreasing Ca2+ movement from the bone fluid into the plasma and by suppressing bone resorption. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 696 BLM: Remember 99. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning PTH, calcitonin, and vitamin D? a. Vitamin D deficiency is the cause of rickets. b. PTH is the most important hormone in the control of calcium metabolism. c. Both calcitonin and PTH are produced in the follicle cells of the thyroid gland. d. Vitamin D is actually a hormone that increases calcium absorption in the intestine. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 696 BLM: Remember 100. Which statement is INCORRECT for calcium homeostasis? a. It involves the immediate adjustments required to maintain a constant free Ca2+ concentration on a minute-to-minute basis. b. It involves slowly responding adjustments required to maintain a constant total amount of Ca2+ in the body. c. It is maintained primarily by the actions of parathyroid hormone. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 696 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 101. Which statement concerning parathyroid hormone is INCORRECT? a. PTH causes localized dissolution of bone. b. PTH conserves Ca2+ by the kidney. c. PTH promotes urinary excretion of PO4. d. PTH directly stimulates Ca2+ absorption from the intestine. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 696 BLM: Remember 102. What characterizes hypoparathyroidism? a. hypocalcemia b. hypophosphatemia c. reduced neuromuscular excitability d. hyperkalemia ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 703 BLM: Remember 103. Which statement is correct for calcitonin? a. It enhances the effect of parathyroid hormone on bone and kidneys. b. It is synthesized in the skin in the presence of sunlight. c. A deficiency of calcitonin produces diabetes insipidus. d. It is secreted in response to hypercalcemia. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 701 BLM: Remember 104. Which statement is correct for calcitonin? a. It is stimulated by TSH. b. It is stimulated by TCSH. c. It is secreted by the C-cells of the thyroid gland. d. It is stored in the colloid of the thyroid follicles. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 701 BLM: Remember 105. Which statement concerning vitamin D is INCORRECT? a. It can be synthesized by the skin on exposure to sunlight. b. It must be modified by biochemical alterations within the liver and kidneys before it is biologically active. c. It enhances the effect of calcitonin on bone. d. It increases Ca2+ absorption in the intestine. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 701 BLM: Remember 106. What characterizes osteoporosis? a. reduced bone mass as a result of diminished laying down of the organic matrix of bone b. abnormal bone calcification c. hypocalcemia d. osteoblast hyperactivity ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 698 BLM: RememberChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 107. Which statement concerning plasma Ca++ regulation is FALSE? a. An increase in plasma PO4 concentration forces a reduction in plasma Ca2+ as a result of the inverse relationship between plasma PO4 and Ca2+ levels. b. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia. c. PTH enhances the rapid movement of calcium from the bone fluid into the plasma. d. Calcitonin decreases plasma Ca2+. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 702 BLM: Remember 108. What stimulates the release of PTH from the parathyroid gland? a. calcitonin from the anterior pituitary gland b. low levels of calcium ions in the blood c. TSH from the anterior pituitary gland d. low levels of glucose in the blood ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 702 BLM: Remember 109. Which one of the following statements is FALSE? a. PTH increases blood calcium level. b. Hormones are secreted into the bloodstream. c. Glucocorticoids are secreted from zona glomerulosa layer of adrenal medulla. d. Sex hormones (specifically eehydroepiandosterone) are secreted from adrenal cortex. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 660 BLM: Remember 110. Which statement is FALSE in relationship to osteoporosis? a. Osteoporosis is a major health problem that affects 1.4 million people in Canada. b. Estrogen suppresses bone resorption, which explains the decline in bone loss at menopause. c. Prevention of osteoporosis focuses on regular exercise, adequate calcium intake, and appropriate estrogen replacement therapy in postmenopausal women. d. Osteoporosis can result from overuse—that is, from increased mechanical loading of the skeleton. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 698 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 16: The Endocrine Glands TRUE/FALSE 1. Tri-iodothyronine and tetraiodothyronine are produced by the C-cells of the thyroid gland. ANS: F PTS: 1 2. The ―iodine pump‖ actively transports hormone-bound iodine from the thyroid gland into the circulation. ANS: F PTS: 1 3. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is produced by the thyroid gland. ANS: F PTS: 1 4. Thyroglobulin is found in the cytosol of the thyroid follicular cells. ANS: F PTS: 1 5. The thyroid gland stores enough thyroid hormone to supply the body’s needs for several months. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. Thyroid hormone is stored within the colloid attached to thyroglobulin. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. Most of the secreted T3 is converted into T4 outside the thyroid gland. ANS: F PTS: 1 8. Over 99 percent of the circulating thyroid hormone is bound to plasma proteins. ANS: T PTS: 1 9. Excess TSH stimulation causes hypertrophy in the thyroid gland. ANS: T PTS: 1 10. Hypothyroidism can occur even though the thyroid gland is perfectly normal. ANS: T PTS: 1 11. Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin stimulates both the secretion and growth of the thyroid similar to TSH. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 12. Because of the thyroid hormone’s growth-promoting effects, excessive growth is one outcome of excess thyroid hormone secretion in children. ANS: F PTS: 1 13. The presence of a goitre is always indicative of hyperthyroidism. ANS: F PTS: 1 14. Myxedema is associated with hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. ANS: F PTS: 1 15. ACTH stimulates the zona fasciculata and zona reticularis to a far greater extent than it stimulates the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. ANS: T PTS: 1 16. Cortisol is secreted by the zona glomerulosa, aldosterone by the zona fasciculata, and sex hormones by the zona reticularis. ANS: F PTS: 1 17. Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by hyperglycemia, muscle weakness, ―moon-face‖ and ―buffalo hump.‖ ANS: T PTS: 1 18. The symptoms of aldosterone hypersecretion include hypernatremia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypertension. ANS: F PTS: 1 19. Stress is the primary stimulus for mineralocorticoid secretion. ANS: F PTS: 1 20. Aldosterone and cortisol are both considered to be essential for life. ANS: F PTS: 1 21. Cortisol is the primary mineralocorticoid. ANS: F PTS: 1 22. The adrenocortical hormones cortisol and aldosterone are peptide hormones. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 23. In people who work during the day, cortisol levels in the plasma are normally higher in the morning than at night. ANS: T PTS: 1 24. One of the primary functions of cortisol secretion at normal physiological levels is its anti-inflammatory action. ANS: F PTS: 1 25. Adrenal androgens are normally secreted only in males, whereas adrenal estrogens are secreted only in females. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. The adrenal medulla is actually a modified part of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: T PTS: 1 27. Norepinephrine is released from sympathetic nerve terminals, whereas epinephrine is the most abundant secretory product of the adrenal medulla. ANS: T PTS: 1 28. Epinephrine is more potent than norepinephrine at beta 2 adrenergic receptors. ANS: T PTS: 1 29. Epinephrine and norepinephrine exert identical effects in all tissues. ANS: F PTS: 1 30. The primary energy source for the body during the post-absorptive state is glucose. ANS: F PTS: 1 31. Once a structural protein is synthesized, it remains a part of the cell for the duration of the cell’s life. ANS: F PTS: 1 32. Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in the liver play a major role in maintaining a constant blood glucose level between meals. ANS: T PTS: 1 33. Insulin is secreted by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 34. The absorptive state is directed by an increase in insulin secretion. ANS: T PTS: 1 35. Insulin increases glucose transport into all tissues. ANS: F PTS: 1 36. The blood glucose level is the primary controlling factor of insulin secretion. ANS: T PTS: 1 37. Insulin secretion is decreased and glucagon secretion is increased in response to a fall in blood glucose concentration. ANS: T PTS: 1 38. Insulin and glucagon secretion are both stimulated by an increase in blood amino acid concentration. ANS: T PTS: 1 39. Amino acids can be converted to glucose whereas fatty acids cannot. ANS: T PTS: 1 40. All forms of diabetes mellitus are characterized by a lack of pancreatic insulin secretion. ANS: F PTS: 1 41. Sympathetic stimulation inhibits the secretion of insulin. ANS: T PTS: 1 42. Obesity can precipitate overt Type II diabetes mellitus in individuals genetically predisposed. ANS: T PTS: 1 43. Both Type I and Type II diabetes must be treated by regular insulin injections. ANS: F PTS: 1 44. Osteoblasts communicate to osteoclasts via osteoprotegerin. ANS: T PTS: 1 45. Elevated blood amino acid levels stimulate the secretion of both insulin and glucagon even though they exert opposite effects on blood amino acid concentration. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 46. Protein-bound Ca2+ is the form of calcium that is important in neuromuscular excitability. ANS: F PTS: 1 47. The parathyroid gland secretes parathyroid hormone and calcitonin. ANS: F PTS: 1 48. Plasma Ca2+ concentration is one of the most tightly controlled variables in the body. ANS: T PTS: 1 49. The greater the physical stress and compression to which a bone is subjected, the greater the rate of bone deposition. ANS: T PTS: 1 50. An increase in plasma PO4 concentration forces a reduction in plasma Ca2+ as a result of the inverse relationship between plasma PO4 and Ca2+ levels. ANS: T PTS: 1 51. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia. ANS: F PTS: 1 52. PTH increases plasma Ca2+ and decreases plasma PO4. ANS: T PTS: 1 53. PTH enhances the rapid movement of calcium from the bone fluid into the plasma. ANS: T PTS: 1 54. Calcitonin decreases plasma Ca2+. ANS: T PTS: 1 55. The presence of vitamin D is necessary for PTH to exert its effect on promoting intestinal Ca2+ absorption. ANS: F PTS: 1 56. Vitamin D must be provided entirely by dietary sources. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 57. Plasma phosphate concentration is not as tightly controlled as plasma calcium concentration. ANS: T PTS: 1 COMPLETION 1. The ____________________ cells of the thyroid gland secrete the iodine-containing hormones ____________________ and ____________________, whereas the ____________________ cells of the thyroid secrete the Ca2+-regulating hormone ____________________. ANS: follicular, tri-iodothyronine, tetraiodothyronine, thyroxine, C, calcitonin follicular, tetraiodothyronine, tri-iodothyronine, thyroxine, C, calcitonin follicular, T3, tetraiodothyronine, thryoxine, C, calitonin follicular, tri-iodothyronine, tetraiodothyronine, T4, C, calcitonin PTS: 1 2. C cells between the follicles of the thyroid gland secrete the hormone ____________________. ANS: calcitonin PTS: 1 3. ____________________ and ____________________ are collectively referred to as thyroid hormone. ANS: T3, tetraiodothyronine Tri-iodothyronine, T4 Tri-iodothyronine, tetraiodothyronine T3, thyroxine PTS: 1 4. Thyroid hormone is a derivative of the amino acid _____________________. ANS: tyrosine PTS: 1 5. The calorigenic effect of the thyroid hormones is a _____________________ producing effect. ANS: heat PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 6. One atom of I attached to tyrosine yields _____________________ whereas the addition of two I atoms to tyrosine forms _____________________. ANS: monoiodotyrosine, diiodotyrosine MIT, DIT PTS: 1 7. Coupling of two DITs yields _____________________, whereas coupling of one DIT and one MIT results in the formation of _____________________. ANS: tetraiodothyronine, tri-iodothyronine T4, T3 thyroxine, tri-iodothyronine thyroxine, T3 tetraiodothyronine, T3 PTS: 1 8. The most abundant form of thyroid hormone secreted is _____________________, yet _____________________ is the most potent thyroid hormone. ANS: T4, T3 PTS: 1 9. _____________________ is the most important physiological regulator of thyroid hormone secretion. ANS: Thyroid-stimulating hormone TSH PTS: 1 10. An enlarged thyroid is called a _____________________. ANS: goitre PTS: 1 11. _____________________ is primarily controlled by the release of renin. ANS: Aldosterone PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 12. Hypernatremia is a body’s retention of _____________________. ANS: sodium PTS: 1 13. The outer portion of the adrenal gland is known as the ____________________, which secretes hormones belonging to the chemical class of ____________________. ANS: adrenal cortex, steroids PTS: 1 14. The inner portion of the adrenal gland is the ____________________, which secretes hormones belonging to the chemical class of _____________________. ANS: adrena medulla, catecholamines PTS: 1 15. In response to stress, the hypothalamus secretes _____________________, which ultimately results in cortisol secretion. ANS: CRH PTS: 1 16. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are stored in _____________________ granules in the adrenal gland. ANS: chromaffin PTS: 1 17. The chemical reactions involving the three classes of energy-rich organic molecules are collectively known as _____________________. ANS: intermediary metabolism fuel metabolism PTS: 1 18. _____________________ refers to the synthesis of larger organic molecules from smaller organic molecules. ANS: Anabolism PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 19. The _____________________ is the principal site for metabolic interconversions of nutrient molecules. ANS: liver PTS: 1 20. _____________________ is the primary trigger for the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells. ANS: Glucose PTS: 1 21. _____________________ is the hormone that causes glycogenolysis in response to decreasing blood sugar levels. ANS: Glucagon PTS: 1 22. Incomplete oxidation of fatty acids yields a group of compounds called _____________________, which can be utilized by the brain for energy during starvation. ANS: ketone bodies PTS: 1 23. The three hormonal factors that influence Ca2+ metabolism are _____________________, _____________________, and _____________________. ANS: parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, vitamin D PTH, calcitonin, vitamin D calcitonin, vitamin D, parathyroid hormone calcitonin, vitamin D, PTH vitamin D, parathyroid hormone, calcitonin vitamin D, PTH, calcitonin PTS: 1 24. Bone is a living tissue composed of an organic extracellular matrix impregnated with ____________________ crystals consisting primarily of ____________________ salts. ANS: hydroxyapatite, calcium phosphate PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 25. Calcitonin is produced by the ____________________ of the ____________________. ANS: C cells, thyroid gland PTS: 1 26. Vitamin D can be produced by the ____________________ upon exposure to sunlight. ANS: skin PTS: 1 27. Vitamin D must be activated by the ____________________ and ____________________. ANS: liver, kidneys kidneys, liver PTS: 1 28. The step in vitamin D activation accomplished by the ____________________ is subject to regulation by ____________________ and ____________________ ANS: kidneys, PTH, plasma phosphate kidneys, plasma phosphate, PTH PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands MATCHING Indicate the source of each of the hormones by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. alpha cells of islets of Langerhans in the pancreas b. beta cells of islets of Langerhans in the pancreas c. anterior pituitary d. hypothalamus e. adrenal cortex f. adrenal medulla g. parathyroid gland h. thyroid gland i. skin 1. aldosterone 2. insulin 3. glucagon 4. corticotropin-releasing hormone 5. vitamin D 6. cortisol 7. adrenocorticotropic hormone 8. tetraiodothyronine 9. parathyroid hormone 10. calcitonin 11. thyroid-stimulating hormone 12. T3 13. epinephrine 1. ANS: E PTS: 1 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 4. ANS: D PTS: 1 5. ANS: I PTS: 1 6. ANS: E PTS: 1 7. ANS: C PTS: 1 8. ANS: H PTS: 1 9. ANS: G PTS: 1 10. ANS: H PTS: 1 11. ANS: C PTS: 1 12. ANS: H PTS: 1 13. ANS: F PTS: 0Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands Match the hormone with the correct characteristic by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. ACTH b. aldosterone c. calcitonin d. cortisol e. DHEA f. epinephrine g. glucagon h. insulin i. parathyroid hormone j. thyroid hormone k. vitamin D 14. increases osteoblast activity 15. stimulates facultative reabsorption of Na+ 16. at highest blood concentration in the morning and lowest at night 17. a general reinforcer of sympathetic activity 18. stimulates cortisol secretion 19. secreted by pancreatic alpha cells 20. stimulates osteoclast activity 21. an iodine-containing tyrosine derivative 22. stimulates glycogenesis 23. directly promotes Ca2+ absorption from the small intestine 24. responsible for the female sex drive 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 15. ANS: B PTS: 1 16. ANS: D PTS: 1 17. ANS: F PTS: 1 18. ANS: A PTS: 1 19. ANS: G PTS: 1 20. ANS: I PTS: 1 21. ANS: J PTS: 1 22. ANS: H PTS: 1 23. ANS: K PTS: 1 24. ANS: E PTS: 0Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands Indicate which hormone abnormality is responsible for the symptoms listed by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. catecholamine excess b. catecholamine deficiency c. mineralocorticoid excess d. glucocorticoid excess e. mineralocorticoid glucocorticoid deficiency f. adrenal androgen excess in adult women g. adrenal androgen excess in prepubertal boys h. adrenal androgen excess before birth in female i. parathyroid hormone deficiency j. parathyroid hormone excess k. vitamin D deficiency l. vitamin D excess m. insulin deficiency n. insulin excess 25. high blood glucose, muscle weakness and fatigue, ―moon-face,‖ ―buffalo hump‖ 26. female masculinization; hirsutism 27. deformed bones, especially weight-bearing bones 28. hypernatremia, hypokalemia, high blood pressure and 29. precocious pseudopuberty 30. hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, thinning of bone, Ca2+-containing kidney stones, reduced excitability of neuromuscular system, cardiac disturbances 31. high blood pressure, rapid heart rate, excessive sweating, high blood glucose infants 32. female pseudohermaphroditism 33. hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, low blood pressure, low blood glucose, poor response to stress 34. hyperglycemia, glucosuria, polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, ketosis 35. extensive spasms of skeletal muscles, involving especially the extremities and larynx; fatal in severe cases 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 26. ANS: F PTS: 1 27. ANS: K PTS: 1 28. ANS: C PTS: 1 29. ANS: G PTS: 1 30. ANS: J PTS: 1 31. ANS: A PTS: 1 32. ANS: H PTS: 1 33. ANS: E PTS: 1 34. ANS: M PTS: 1 35. ANS: I PTS: 0Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands Identify the factors associated with each of the biochemical processes by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. gluconeogenesis b. glycogenesis c. glycogenolysis d. both gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis e. all of these answers 36. conversion of amino acids into glucose 37. conversion of glycogen into glucose 38. conversion of glucose into glycogen 39. stimulated by glucagon and cortisol 40. stimulated by insulin 41. increases the blood glucose concentration 42. decreases the blood glucose concentration 36. ANS: A PTS: 1 37. ANS: C PTS: 1 38. ANS: B PTS: 1 39. ANS: D PTS: 1 40. ANS: B PTS: 1 41. ANS: D PTS: 1 42. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands ESSAY 1. Describe the production and secretion of thyroid hormones. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. Describe the controls over secretion of minero- and gluco-corticoids. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. Contrast the metabolic events of the absorptive versus the postabsorptive states. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4. Describe how blood calcium levels are regulated. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. Indicate the causes of diabetes mellitus and its physiological effects. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands PROBLEM 1. Indicate the metabolic effects of each of the hormones below by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. increases b. decreases c. has no effect on Insulin _____ blood glucose _____ blood fatty acids _____ blood amino acids _____ muscle protein Glucagon _____ blood glucose _____ blood fatty acids _____ blood amino acids _____ muscle protein Epinephrine _____ blood glucose _____ blood fatty acids _____ blood amino acids _____ muscle protein Cortisol _____ blood glucose _____ blood fatty acids _____ blood amino acids _____ muscle protein Growth hormone _____ blood glucose _____ blood fatty acids _____ blood amino acids _____ muscle protein ANS: Insulin: b, b, b, a; Glucagon: a, a, c, c; Epinephrine: a, a, c, c; Cortisol: a, a, a, b; Growth hormone: a, a, b, a PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 2. Match the pancreatic feature with the correct characteristic by using the following answer code. a. islets of Langerhans b. alpha cells c. beta cells d. delta cells e. PP cells ____ produces a hormone that is also produced in the hypothalamus ____ a collection of endocrine cells ____ least common islet cell type ____ produces glucagon ____ produces a hormone that induces transporter recruitment ANS: d, a, e, b, c PTS: 1 3. Indicate the effect each item in the top column has on the secretion rate of the hormone in the bottom column by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. increases b. decreases c. has little or no effect on increased TSH _____ thyroid hormone increased TRH _____ TSH increased thyroid hormone _____ TSH decreased iodine in diet _____ thyroid hormone increased ACTH _____ aldosterone increased ACTH _____ cortisol stress _____ cortisol stress _____ epinephrine increased renin-angiotensin _____ aldosterone increased plasma K+ _____ aldosterone increased blood glucose _____ insulin increased blood glucose _____ glucagon increased plasma Ca2+ _____ parathyroid hormone increased plasma Ca2+ _____ calcitonin increased TSH _____ calcitonin increased plasma PO43– _____ parathyroid hormone ANS: a, a, b, b, c, a, a, a, a, a, a, b, b, a, c, c PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 4. Indicate which gland is associated with the following characteristics by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. adrenal cortex b. adrenal medulla c. thyroid d. parathyroid e. pancreas ____ is neuroendocrine ____ its zona glomerulosa produces aldosterone ____ regulates blood sugar levels ____ increases blood calcium levels ____ lowered activity from birth results in cretinism ____ produces catecholamines ____ activity always increases upon initiation of the general adaptation mode ____ its hormones require iodine ANS: b, a, e, d, c, b, b, c PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 5. Indicate which characteristics apply to the hormones by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. epinephrine b. cortisol c. aldosterone d. dehydroepiandrosterone ____ produced by the zona glomerulosa ____ produced by the zona fasciculata and zona reticularis ____ adrenal androgen ____ enhances K+ elimination ____ stimulates protein degradation ____ stimulates lipolysis ____ essential for life ____ exerts a glucose-sparing effect by inhibiting glucose uptake by many tissues but not the brain ____ important in the stress response ____ a catecholamine ____ a steroid ____ secretion is stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system ____ stored in chromaffin granules ____ promotes female sex drive ____ secretion is stimulated via the renin-angiotensin system ____ promotes Na+ retention ____ stimulates hepatic gluconeogenesis ____ stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis ____ inhibits CRH and ACTH in negative-feedback fashion ____ secretion is directly stimulated by an increase in plasma K+ ____ increases blood glucose levels ____ increases blood amino acid levels ____ increases blood fatty acid levels ____ exerts anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects at pharmacological levels ____ secretion is largely controlled by ACTH ____ secreted in excess in Conn’s syndrome ____ secreted in excess in Cushing’s syndrome ____ secreted in excess in adrenogenital syndrome ____ secreted in excess by a pheochromocytoma ____ deficient in Addison’s disease increases the heart rate ANS: c, b, d, d, c, b, a, b, c, b, a, b, c, a, b, c, d, a, a, d, c, c, b, a, b, c, a, b, b, a, b, b, b, d, c, b, d, a, b, c (and d), a PTS: 1Chapter 16: The Endocrine Glands 6. Match using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. osteoblast b. osteocyte c. osteoclast ____ dissolves bone ____ secretes organic matrix of bone ____ forms a membrane between the bone fluid and ECF across which Ca2+ efflux occurs ____ stimulated by PTH ____ inhibited by PTH ____ inhibited by calcitonin ANS: c, a, a, b, c, a, c PTS: 1 7. Match using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. Ca2+ homeostasis b. Ca2+ balance ____ important for maintaining constant total amount of Ca2+ in the body ____ important for maintaining a constant free plasma Ca2+ concentration ____ PTH contributes to its regulation ____ vitamin D contributes to its regulation ANS: b, a, a, b, b PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which structure below secretes male sex hormone? a. seminal vesicles b. prostate gland c. Sertoli cells d. interstitial cells ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 717 BLM: Remember 2. What is the primary reproductive organ in the male? a. testes b. prostate gland c. seminal vesicles d. bulbourethral glands ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 717 BLM: Remember 3. Which statement is correct for gonads? a. They consist of a pair of testes in males and ovaries in females. b. They produce gametes and secrete sex hormones. c. They refer to the externally visible genitalia in both sexes. d. a and b. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 710 BLM: Remember 4. What is a female accessory sex organ? a. bulbourethral gland b. clitoris c. labia minora d. ovary ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 711 BLM: Remember 5. What is NOT a function of the primary sex organs? a. production of estrogen b. production of testosterone c. production of progesterone d. production of seminal fluids ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 710 BLM: Higher Order 6. What is the correct order in which the glands add seminal fluid to migrating sperm cells in the male reproductive tract? a. bulbourethral glands, prostate, seminal vesicles b. bulbourethral glands, seminal vesicles, prostate c. prostate, bulbourethral glands, seminal vesicles d. seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbourethral glands ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 724 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 7. Which hormone is NOT responsible for the development and maintenance of the secondary sexual characteristics? a. testosterone b. estrogen c. progesterone ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 729 BLM: Remember 8. Which statement is correct for the Wolffian ducts? a. They degenerate in females. b. They develop into a male reproductive tract under the influence of testosterone. c. They develop into male external genitalia under the influence of dihydrotestosterone. d. a and b. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 716 BLM: Remember 9. Which statement concerning sex determination and sex differentiation is INCORRECT a. An XY combination of sex chromosomes is a genetic male. b. The secretion of testosterone by the fetal gonads induces the development of male external genitalia and reproductive tract. c. The secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonads induces the development of female external genitalia and reproductive tract. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 713 BLM: Higher Order 10. Which statement concerning sex differentiation is INCORRECT? a. A Y chromosome stimulates production of H-Y antigen by primitive gonadal cells. b. Ovaries must be present for feminization of the reproductive tract and external genitalia to occur. c. Secretion of testosterone and Müllerian-inhibiting factor by the fetal testes induces development of the reproductive tract and external genitalia along male lines. d. Early in development, embryos of both sexes have the same indifferent reproductive tissues capable of differentiating into either a male or female reproductive system depending respectively on the presence or absence of masculinizing factors. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 713 BLM: Higher Order 11. What is NOT associated with sex determination and differentiation in a male? a. degeneration of Wolffian ducts b. differentiation of indifferent gonadal tissue into testes under the influence of the sex-determining region of the Y chromosome c. production of H-Y antigen d. secretion of Müllerian-inhibiting factor ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 714 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 17: The Reproductive System 12. The embryonic genital tubercle develops into the _____ in males and the _____ in females. a. scrotum, labia majora b. glans penis, clitoris c. penis, labia minora d. Wolffian ducts, Müllerian ducts ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 715 BLM: Remember 13. Which factor is responsible for differentiating the embryonic gonads into testes? a. the sex-determining region of the X chromosome b. the sex-determining region of the Y chromosome c. autosomal chromosomes d. male gonadal-determining factor ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 715 BLM: Remember 14. Which statement concerning testosterone is INCORRECT? a. It is secreted by the Sertoli cells of the testes. b. It exerts a general protein anabolic effect. c. It causes enlargement of the larynx and thickening of the vocal cords. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 719 BLM: Remember 15. Which statement concerning testosterone is INCORRECT? a. Its secretion is stimulated by LH. b. It is secreted by the seminiferous tubules. c. It stimulates spermatogenesis. d. It promotes closure of the epiphyseal plate. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 719 BLM: Remember 16. Which statement concerning testosterone is INCORRECT? a. It is responsible for the male secondary sexual characteristics. b. It stimulates spermatogenesis. c. Its secretion is stimulated by FSH. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 719 BLM: Remember 17. Where are the sperm cells stored for maturation? a. prostate gland b. bulbourethral glands c. epididymis d. Leydig cells ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 722 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 18. What is NOT stimulated by testosterone? a. masculinization of the developing reproductive tract and external genitalia b. descent of the testes into the scrotum c. spermatid remodelling d. development and maintenance of male secondary sexual characteristics ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 719 BLM: Higher Order 19. Why are the testes located outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotal sac? a. to permit spermatogenesis b. to protect the gonads against injury c. to permit testosterone secretion d. to maintain the testes at a higher than normal body temperature for normal testicular function ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 717 BLM: Higher Order 20. Which structure serves as a common passageway for two tracts in the male? a. ductus deferens b. ejaculatory duct c. ureter d. urethra ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 710 BLM: Remember 21. Which statement concerning spermatogenesis isINCORRECT? a. It occurs in the seminiferous tubules. b. It begins with spermatocytes c. It is controlled by both testosterone and FSH. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 720 BLM: Remember 22. What directly controls spermatogenesis? a. LH b. FSH c. prostaglandins ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 720 BLM: Remember 23. Which statement is correct for a secondary spermatocyte? a. It is haploid with unduplicated chromosomes. b. It is haploid with duplicated chromosomes. c. It is diploid with unduplicated chromosomes. d. It is diploid with duplicated chromosomes. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 720 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 24. During spermatogenesis, one spermatogonium containing __________________ a. 46 chromosomes yield 16 spermatozoa, each containing 23 chromosomes. b. 46 chromosomes yield 1 spermatozoon containing 23 chromosomes and a polar body containing the other 23 chromosomes. c. 46 chromosomes yield 2 spermatozoa, each containing 23 chromosomes. d. 46 chromosomes yield 1 spermatozoon containing 46 chromosomes. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 720 BLM: Higher Order 25. Which of the following female structures has a similar tissue composition as the penis? a. cervical canal b. clitoris c. fallopian tube d. labia majora ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 711 BLM: Remember 26. What does NOT occur during spermatogenesis? a. FSH is required for spermatid remodelling. b. LH is required for spermatid remodelling. c. Testosterone is essential for both mitosis and meiosis of the germ cells. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 720 BLM: Higher Order 27. What is NOT a function of Sertoli cells? a. providing a blood–testes barrier b. phagocytizing cytoplasm extruded from sperm during their development c. secreting testosterone d. secreting androgen-binding protein ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 721 BLM: Remember 28. What is the acrosome of the spermatozoon? a. It contains the sperm’s genetic information. b. It contains mitochondria for energy production. c. It is a fructose-filled vesicle that provides energy for the spermatozoa. d. It contains enzymes that enable the sperm to penetrate the ovum. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 720 BLM: Remember 29. What is NOT a function of the Sertoli cells? a. secreting seminiferous tubule fluid b. phagocytizing cytoplasm extruded from developing sperm and destroying defective sperm c. secreting melatonin d. secreting inhibin ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 720 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 17: The Reproductive System 30. Which statement concerning GnRH is INCORRECT? a. It stimulates both FSH and LH secretion. b. It is stimulated by testosterone. c. It has low-level activity during the prepubertal period. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 722 BLM: Remember 31. During spermatogenesis, what does the first meiotic division and second meiotic division yield? a. primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes b. secondary spermatocytes, spermatids c. spermatids, spermatozoa d. spermatogonia, primary spermatocytes ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 720 BLM: Remember 32. Which statement is correct for inhibin? a. It is produced by the Sertoli cells. b. It is produced by the developing sperm cells. c. It signals the pituitary gland. d. a and c. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 722 BLM: Remember 33. A reduction in the secretion of what hormone may serve as the trigger for the onset of puberty? a. inhibin b. melatonin c. adrenal androgens d. gonadotropin-releasing hormone ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 723 BLM: Remember 34. Which structure is inferior to the bladder in male? a. epididymis and vas deferens b. seminal vesicles c. prostate gland d. penis ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 724 BLM: Remember 35. Which statement is correct for the prostate gland? a. It secretes prostaglandins. b. It supplies fructose, which is utilized by the sperm for energy production. c. It secretes an alkaline medium that is important to neutralize acidic vaginal secretions. d. It secretes a mucus-like substance for lubrication. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 724 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 36. Which statement is correct for the prostate gland? a. It secretes an alkaline solution that neutralizes the acidic vaginal secretions. b. It secretes mucus for lubrication. c. It provides a site for final maturation for fertility and motility for the spermatozoa. d. It contains portions of the ductus deferens. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 724 BLM: Remember 37. Which statement is correct for the seminal vesicles? a. They store sperm prior to ejaculation. b. They supply fructose to be utilized by the sperm for energy. c. They secrete FSH. d. They play a primary role in lubricating the urethra. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 724 BLM: Remember 38. Which of the following is NOT a function of the seminal vesicles? a. supplying fructose, which serves as the primary energy source for ejaculated sperm b. secreting prostaglandins c. secreting fibrinogen d. secreting an alkaline fluid that neutralizes the acidic vaginal secretions ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 724 BLM: Remember 39. Which structure consists of diploid chromosome number? a. primary spermatocyte b. secondary oocyte c. secondary spermatocyte d. spermatid ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 731 BLM: Remember 40. Which statement is correct for prostaglandins? a. Prostaglandins are produced by most body tissues. b. Prostaglandins are derivatives of arachidonic acid. c. Prostaglandins act locally within or near their site of production. d. Prostaglandins promote sperm transport by stimulating smooth muscle contractions. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 724 BLM: Remember 41. Which statement is correct for prostaglandins? a. They are present in the semen and are secreted by the prostate gland. b. They may be involved in sperm transport within both the male and female reproductive tracts. c. They exert a powerful inhibitory effect on uterine musculature. d. They exert influences only on the reproductive system. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 724 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 42. Which is the correct sequence of the structures sperm travels through prior to ejaculation? a. ductus deferens, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra b. urethra, ductus deferens, epididymis, ejaculatory duct c. epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra d. epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 724 BLM: Remember 43. Which statement concerning erection is NOT true? a. It involves dilation of the arterioles supplying the sponge-like vascular spaces of the penis. b. It results from cGMP production induced by nitric oxide. c. It occurs when the seminiferous tubules of the penis become engorged with sperm. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 726 BLM: Remember 44. About how many sperm does an average human ejaculate contain? a. 20–30 million b. 100–120 million c. 100–120 thousand d. 300–400 million ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 728 BLM: Remember 45. Which of the following is NOT a component of the overall ejaculatory response? a. Arterioles supplying the penis dilate, causing the erectile tissue to fill with blood and the penis to become erect. b. The smooth muscles of the prostate, reproductive ducts, and seminal vesicles contract, resulting in emission. c. Semen is expelled from the penis by a series of rapid contractions of skeletal muscles at the base of the penis. d. Rhythmical contractions and accompanying systemic responses are associated with a pleasant sensation known as orgasm. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 728 BLM: Remember 46. What is the proper sequence of phases in the sexual response cycle? a. plateau, excitement, orgasmic, resolution b. excitement, plateau, orgasmic, resolution c. plateau, orgasmic, excitement, resolution d. resolution, plateau, orgasmic, excitement ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 726 BLM: Remember 47. GnRH is secreted from the _____ and stimulates _____ secretion. a. anterior pituitary, FSH b. anterior pituitary, ADH c. posterior pituitary, FSH d. posterior pituitary, LH ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 733 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 48. What does NOT occur in the female sexual response cycle? a. erection b. tightening of the outer third of the vagina c. “tenting” of the upper two-thirds of the vagina ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 728 BLM: Remember 49. Which of the following is correct concerning the number of primary oocytes in a female? a. The number is decreased continually throughout her reproductive life from puberty to menopause. b. The number is constant during her reproductive life because those that are lost are continuously replaced by an equal number of new primary oocytes. c. The number increases at the time of menopause. d. The number contains haploid number of chromosomes. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 729 BLM: Remember 50. Which statement is correct for FSH? a. It is an anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates antrum formation in developing ovarian follicles. b. It is produced by developing ovarian follicles. c. It is sometimes referred to as ICSH in males. d. It is secreted only in females. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 733 BLM: Remember 51. What happens during oogenesis? a. Thousands of primary oocytes are formed. b. One primary oocyte yields 16 mature ova. c. One primary oocyte yields one mature ovum. d. Each ovum contains 46 chromosomes at the time of ovulation. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 731 BLM: Remember 52. Which layer of the uterus is shed each month with menstruation? a. stratum functionalis of endometrium b. myometrium c. perimetrium d. stratum basalis of endometrium ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 737 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 53. One primary spermatocyte containing _____ chromosomes yields _____ spermatozoa containing _____ chromosomes, whereas one primary oocyte containing _____ chromosomes yields _____ ova (ovum) containing _____ chromosomes. a. 46, 2, 23, 46, 2, 23 b. 46, 4, 23, 46, 1, 23 c. 46, 4, 23, 46, 4, 23 d. 23, 1, 23, 23, 1, 23 ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 720 BLM: Remember 54. Which statement concerning spermatogenesis and oogenesis is INCORRECT? a. One primary spermatocyte or one primary oocyte containing 46 chromosomes respectively yields two spermatozoa or two ova, each containing 23 chromosomes. b. There is a continual supply of spermatogonia through mitotic activity. c. The first meiotic division involved in oogenesis is completed just prior to ovulation. d. It takes anywhere from about 11 to 50 years for the process of oogenesis to be completed. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 731 BLM: Remember 55. Which statement concerning oogenesis is correct? a. The first meiotic division occurs just prior to ovulation, and the second meiotic division is triggered by fertilization. b. Oogenesis is triggered by release of GnRH. c. Ogonia proliferate mitotically throughout the reproductive life of a female. d. a and b. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 731 BLM: Remember 56. What is LH NOT responsible for? a. reinitiation of meiosis in the oocytes of developing follicles b. promoting estrogen synthesis by the follicular cells c. triggering ovulation ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 733 BLM: Remember 57. Ovulation occurs with peak concentrations of which of the following secreted into the blood? a. estrogen b. FSH c. LH d. progesterone ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 733 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 58. Which statement is correct for the corpus luteum? a. It develops from the polar body after ovulation. b. It develops from the fertilized ovum through a process of division and differentiation. c. It develops from the ruptured follicle after ovulation. d. During pregnancy, it is stimulated by estrogen and progesterone secretion from the placenta. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 733 BLM: Remember 59. An increase in the secretion of what initiates the beginning of the ovarian cycle? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. LH d. FSH ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 733 BLM: Remember 60. Which of the following statements is not true about polar bodies being formed in oogenesis? a. to produce four gametes each with adequate amounts of nutrients b. to produce one functional gamete with maximal nutrient content c. to dispose of extra chromosomes ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 731 BLM: Higher Order 61. Which of the following does NOT occur during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle? a. the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle b. the menstrual phase of the uterine cycle c. estrogen secretion d. progesterone secretion ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 731 BLM: Remember 62. Which ovarian hormone is secreted during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle? a. FSH b. estrogen c. progesterone d. LH ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 731 BLM: Remember 63. Which hormone is NOT secreted by the corpus luteum? a. FSH b. estrogen c. progesterone d. both estrogen and progesterone ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 733 BLM: Higher OrderChapter 17: The Reproductive System 64. Which statement concerning control of ovarian hormone secretion is INCORRECT? a. Low levels of estrogen inhibit the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary in negative-feedback fashion. b. Under the influence of estrogen from developing follicles, FSH and LH secretion both continue to decline throughout the follicular phase. c. Both estrogen and progesterone are required to completely inhibit tonic LH secretion. d. A high level of estrogen stimulates LH secretion and initiates the LH surge. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 734 BLM: Higher Order 65. Which factor does NOT contribute to follicular development and estrogen secretion? a. FSH b. LH c. progesterone ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 734 BLM: Remember 66. What is the proper sequence of the menstrual (uterine) cycle? a. menstrual phase, progestational phase, proliferative phase, ovulation b. menstrual phase, proliferative phase, ovulation, progestational phase c. proliferative phase, menstrual phase, ovulation, progestational phase d. ovulation, menstrual phase, proliferative phase, progestational phase ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 735 BLM: Remember 67. Which is NOT true of the proliferative phase of the menstrual (uterine) cycle ? a. occurs when the ovarian cycle is in the follicular phase. b. lasts from menstruation to ovulation. c. occurs when the endometrium is shedding ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 735 BLM: Remember 68. What does NOT occur during the menstrual phase of the uterine cycle? a. A new ovarian follicular phase is beginning. b. Estrogen and progesterone levels reach their highest concentration. c. Vasoconstriction of the uterine vessels occurs in response to release of a uterine prostaglandin. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 735 BLM: Remember 69. Which of the following hormones causes the endometrial glands to fill with glycogen and endometrial blood vessels to become more numerous? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. FSH d. LH ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 737 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 70. During which phase of the uterine cycle is the secretion of progesterone at a significant level? a. menstrual phase b. proliferative phase c. secretory, or progestational, phase ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 737 BLM: Remember 71. What does NOT initiate menstruation? a. a rapid increase in estrogen levels b. a rapid drop in estrogen levels c. a rapid drop in progesterone levels ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 738 BLM: Remember 72. What is the normal site of fertilization? a. ovary b. uterus c. oviduct d. vagina ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 740 BLM: Remember 73. During fertilization, sperm bind to specific receptor sites on the surface of what? a. zona pellucida b. corona radiata c. plasma membrane of the ovum d. polar body ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 742 BLM: Remember 74. What does NOT characterizes fertilization? a. a sperm’s fertilin proteins binding to the ovum’s integrin molecules b. a block to polyspermy c. multiple sperms penetrating the ovum ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 742 BLM: Remember 75. Which statement is INCORRECT for implantation? a. It is accomplished as the trophoblastic cells break down the endometrial tissue. b. It occurs during the secretory, or progestational, phase of the menstrual cycle. c. It occurs within 24 hours after ovulation. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 743 BLM: Remember 76. During the secretory phase, if the corpus luteum secretes high levels of estrogen what are the levels of progesterone? a. high b. low c. coprus luteum does not secret estrogen. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 739 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 77. When does implantation normally occur? a. in the oviduct. b. about three days after fertilization. c. during the secretory, or progestational, phase. d. about three days before fertilization ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 743 BLM: Remember 78. Which statement concerning implantation is INCORRECT? a. Implantation is accomplished by enzymatic activity of the trophoblastic layer of the blastocyst. b. The endometrium at the site of implantation is converted into the nutrient-rich decidua. c. Implantation occurs within 24 hours after fertilization. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 743 BLM: Remember 79. What happens in the blastocyst? a. The trophoblast is destined to become the fetus. b. The trophoblast is destined to become the fetal portion of the placenta. c. The trophoblast is destined to become the inner cell mass. d. The blastocoele serves the functions of the digestive system, lungs, and kidneys for the fetus. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 743 BLM: Remember 80. Which statement is NOT true for the trophoblast? a. It is destined to become the fetus. b. It is responsible for accomplishing implantation. c. It is destined to become the fetal portion of the placenta. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 744 BLM: Remember 81. What is the trophoblast of the blastocyst destined to become? a. the fetus b. the fetal portion of the placenta c. the inner cell mass d. the amniotic sac ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 744 BLM: Remember 82. The placenta performs the functions of all of the following systems for the fetus EXCEPT a. digestion. b. respiration. c. circulation. d. kidneys. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 745 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 83. Which statement concerning the placenta is correct? a. The placenta secretes human chorionic gonadotropin, estrogen, and progesterone. b. The placenta serves the functions of the circulatory, respiratory, and digestive systems for the fetus. c. Maternal and fetal blood are mixed together within the placenta. d. The olacenta is fully formed in 4 weeks. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 745 BLM: Remember 84. Which statement is correct for human chorionic gonadotropin? a. It is secreted by the corpus luteum of pregnancy. b. Human chorionic gonadotropin in the urine is the basis of pregnancy diagnosis tests. c. It stimulates placental secretion of estrogen and progesterone. d. It continues to secrete throughout the pregnancy. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 749 BLM: Remember 85. What is the source of estrogen and progesterone during the first 10 weeks of pregnancy? a. ovarian follicle b. placenta c. corpus luteum of pregnancy d. anterior pituitary ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 749 BLM: Remember 86. Which of the following is correct for the normal sequence of developmental stages? a. blastocyst, morula, zygote, embryo, fetus b. blastocyst, zygote, embryo, morula, fetus c. morula, fetus, embryo, blastocyst, zygote d. zygote, morula, blastocyst, embryo, fetus ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 743 BLM: Remember 87. The presence of what hormone in the urine forms the basis of pregnancy diagnosis tests? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. prolactin d. human chorionic gonadotropin ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 750 BLM: Remember 88. Which statement is INCORRECT for human chorionic gonadotropin? a. It is secreted by the corpus albicans. b. It is secreted by the developing placenta. c. It reaches its highest level within the first 2 months of gestation. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 749 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 89. Which statement concerning human chorionic gonadotropin is INCORRECT? a. It is secreted by the placenta. b. It maintains the corpus luteum of pregnancy. c. It is secreted by the corpus luteum of pregnancy. d. The presence of chorionic gonadotropin in the urine is the basis of pregnancy diagnosis tests. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 749 BLM: Remember 90. Which statement is correct for the third stage of labour? a. It involves dilation of the cervix to 10 cm. b. It refers to the actual birth of the baby. c. It occurs when the entire uterine contents shift downward and the fetus’s head is positioned against the cervix. d. It involves delivery of the placenta. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 754 BLM: Remember 91. According to the leading proposal, what initiates parturition? a. parasympathetic stimulation b. an increase in uterine responsiveness to oxytocin as a result of an increased concentration of myometrial oxytocin receptors c. a drop in oxytocin secretion d. a negative-feedback loop established between progesterone and oxytocin ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 755 BLM: Remember 92. Which statement concerning oxytocin is correct? a. It is not important for stimulating uterine contractions. b. It causes contraction of the myoepithelial cells surrounding the alveoli of the breast. c. It stimulates synthesis of milk by the milk glands. d. It is secreted from the ovary. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 757 BLM: Remember 93. Which of the following statements is NOT true of CRH? a. It induces fetal cortisol production. b. It results in fetal lung development. c. It causes uterine contractions. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 752 BLM: Remember 94. Which statement concerning oxytocin is INCORRECT? a. It is an extremely potent uterine muscle stimulant. b. It is involved in a positive feedback cycle during parturition. c. It is produced in the posterior pituitary gland ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 752 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 95. What does NOT stimulate uterine contractions? a. oxytocin from the posterior pituitary b. prostaglandin from the decidua c. progesterone from the placenta ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 753 BLM: Remember 96. During pregnancy, what does NOT stimulate mammary gland development? a. FSH b. progesterone c. prolactin ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 756 BLM: Remember 97. Which statement concerning suckling is INCORRECT? a. It induces milk secretion due to prolactin release. b. It induces milk ejection due to oxytocin release. c. It stimulates LH and FSH secretion. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 757 BLM: Remember 98. Which statement concerning estrogen is INCORRECT? a. It promotes fat deposition. b. It promotes closure of the epiphyseal plates. c. It stimulates duct development in the breasts. d. It causes the cervical mucus to become thick and sticky. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 739 BLM: Remember 99. Which statement concerning progesterone is correct? a. It exerts a strong inhibitory influence on the uterine musculature. b. It is responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sex characteristics. c. It promotes duct development in the breasts. d. High levels of progesterone initiate the onset of labour. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 750 BLM: Remember 100. How do birth control pills act as contraceptives? a. by preventing development of the endometrium into a suitable site for implantation b. by preventing ovulation and inhibiting GnRH and thus FSH and LH secretion c. by killing sperm d. by increasing muscular contractions in the female reproductive tract so that ovulated eggs are flushed out before they have a chance to be fertilized ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 746 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System 101. Which statement is correct with regards to the morula? a. The ,morula is surrounded by the zona pallucida. b. If the morula fails to descend into the uterus and continues to develop and implant in the lining of oviduct ectopic, then tubal pregnancy will result. c. The morula is formed when blastocyst continues to proliferate and differentiate. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 743 BLM: Remember 102. What is NOT true of the control of milk ejection ? a. includes the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland b. involves contraction of myoepithelial cells of the mammary gland c. requires intact sensory nerves from the mammary gland ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 757 BLM: Remember 103. Which pair of items is NOT correctly associated? a. androgen binding protein–Leydig cells b. follicular stimulating hormones–Sertoli cells c. blood testis barrier–Sertoli cells d. spermatogonia–acrosome formation ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 722 BLM: Higher Order 104. When a woman is taking the contraceptive pill, or when she is pregnant, the levels of ovarian steroids and pituitary gonadotropins are most similar to those that normally occur during the _______________ a. menstrual phase b. follicular phase c. luteal phase d. proliferative phase ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 746 BLM: Remember 105. Which factor does NOT contribute to parturition? a. The increasing ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) secretion by the fetal pituitary causes the fetal adrenal glands to secrete more cortisol, which diffuses into the maternal circulation. b. Cortisol increases oxytocin and progesterone secretion, increasing plasma progesterone levels. c. The uterus stretches as the pregnancy progresses, initiating nerve impulses that stimulate oxytocin secretion from the posterior pituitary lobe. d. The number of oxytocin receptors on uterine muscle fibres increases, causing the uterus to become more sensitive to the effects of oxytocin. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 751 BLM: RememberChapter 17: The Reproductive System TRUE/FALSE 1. Normal functioning of the reproductive system is not aimed toward homeostasis and is not necessary for survival of the individual. ANS: T PTS: 1 2. Secondary sexual characteristics refer to the external characteristics not directly involved in reproduction that distinguish males and females. ANS: T PTS: 1 3. Normally, sperm exits from the testis by passing through the epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra. ANS: T PTS: 1 4. Human cells have 23 pairs of sex chromosomes. ANS: F PTS: 1 5. Each gamete contains 23 chromosomes. ANS: T PTS: 1 6. In the absence of masculinizing factors, a female reproductive tract and external genitalia develop regardless of the genetic sex of the individual. ANS: T PTS: 1 7. An XY combination of sex chromosomes is a genetic male. ANS: T PTS: 1 8. A human body cell normally has 46 autosomes. ANS: F PTS: 1 9. An XX combination of sex chromosomes will always produce an anatomic female. ANS: F PTS: 1 10. Testosterone is directly responsible for differentiating the external genitalia into the penis and scrotum. ANS: F PTS: 1 11. The Müllerian ducts persist in female fetuses and develop into the uterus and oviducts. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 12. In an embryo with an XX combination of sex chromosomes, the presence of estrogen from the embryonic ovary induces the development of female external genitalia and reproductive tract. ANS: F PTS: 1 13. Cryptorchidism is the descending of the testis through the inguinal canal. ANS: F PTS: 1 14. Males and females produce testosterone and estrogen. ANS: T PTS: 1 15. Fetal testes secrete testosterone, and fetal ovaries secrete estrogen. ANS: F PTS: 1 16. Testosterone in the male and progesterone in the female are responsible for the development and maintenance of secondary sexual characteristics. ANS: F PTS: 1 17. In the male, the primary reproductive organs include the testes, the prostate gland, the seminal vesicles, and the bulbourethral glands. ANS: F PTS: 1 18. The significance of the scrotal location of the testes is to provide a warmer temperature for sperm production to occur. ANS: F PTS: 1 19. The Sertoli cells are located in the testis. ANS: F PTS: 1 20. The scrotal location of the testes provides the cooler environment essential for spermatogenesis. ANS: T PTS: 1 21. Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac is known as cryptorchidism. ANS: T PTS: 1 22. Testosterone promotes closure of the epiphyseal plate. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 23. Development and maintenance of the male body configuration results from the general protein anabolic effect of testosterone. ANS: T PTS: 1 24. Spermatogonia line the lumen of the seminiferous tubule. ANS: F PTS: 1 25. The release of GnRH inhibits the secretion of FSH. ANS: F PTS: 1 26. Several hundred million sperm may reach maturity daily. ANS: T PTS: 1 27. One spermatogonium containing 46 chromosomes yields two spermatozoa each containing 23 chromosomes. ANS: F PTS: 1 28. The human testis contains many Leydig cells (interstitial cells) at various stages of differentiation, some of which have only half the normal number of chromosomes. ANS: F PTS: 1 29. The ductus deferens passes through the inguinal canal. ANS: T PTS: 1 30. The developing sperm cells arising from a single primary spermatocyte remain joined by cytoplasmic bridges until development is complete so that a Y-bearing sperm can be provided with essential products coded for by the X chromosome. ANS: T PTS: 1 31. The sperm’s genetic information is located in the head of the sperm. ANS: T PTS: 1 32. The acrosome is an enzyme-filled vesicle at the tip of the head of the spermatozoon that enables the sperm to penetrate the ovum. ANS: T PTS: 1 33. The Sertoli cells provide nourishment for the developing sperm cells. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 34. A high local concentration of testosterone within the seminiferous tubules is essential for sustaining sperm production. ANS: T PTS: 1 35. The Leydig cells secrete testosterone in response to stimulation by luteinizing hormone. ANS: T PTS: 1 36. Inhibin is produced by the Sertoli cells and selectively inhibits the secretion of FSH from the anterior pituitary gland. ANS: T PTS: 1 37. The secondary oocyte normally has a diploid chromosome number. ANS: F PTS: 1 38. The pubertal process is initiated by an increase in GnRH activity. ANS: T PTS: 1 39. In a sexually mature individual, pulses of GnRH are secreted once a day. ANS: F PTS: 1 40. At puberty, the hypothalamus becomes more sensitive to feedback inhibition by testosterone. ANS: F PTS: 1 41. During the ovarian cycle, the corpus luteum converts into a follicle. ANS: F PTS: 1 42. The seminal vesicles store sperm prior to ejaculation. ANS: F PTS: 1 43. The prostate gland provides fructose to be utilized by the sperm for energy. ANS: F PTS: 1 44. A surge in LH halts estrogen synthesis. ANS: T PTS: 1 45. Vasectomy invariably results in a decrease in testosterone secretion. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 46. Prostaglandins are secreted into the semen by the prostate gland. ANS: F PTS: 1 47. Prostaglandins are found only in the semen. ANS: F PTS: 1 48. Although discovered in the semen, prostaglandins are ubiquitous locally acting chemical messengers that exert widespread effects throughout the body. ANS: T PTS: 1 49. The endometrium is the layer of smooth muscles of the uterus. ANS: F PTS: 1 50. Erection is a vascular phenomenon that involves decreased sympathetic and increased parasympathetic activity to the penile arterioles, resulting in arteriolar vasodilation and filling of the erectile tissue with blood. ANS: T PTS: 1 51. Erection can occur only upon stimulation of the mechano receptors in the glans penis. ANS: F PTS: 1 52. Ovarian estrogen production decreases during climacteric. ANS: T PTS: 1 53. During ejaculation, the sphincter at the neck of the bladder reflexively opens to allow semen to enter the urethra. ANS: F PTS: 1 54. Ejaculation is a two-part reflex involving (1) contraction of the smooth muscle of the reproductive tract and accessory sex organs (emission) and (2) contraction of the skeletal muscles at the base of the penis (expulsion). ANS: T PTS: 1 55. Orgasm is very similar in males and females with the exception of no ejaculation in females. ANS: T PTS: 1 56. Erection and ejaculation are both spinal reflexes. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 57. The fimbriae are the dilated portion of the uterus. ANS: F PTS: 1 58. During ejaculation, the sphincter at the neck of the bladder is opened to permit entry of sperm into the urethra. ANS: F PTS: 1 59. Parasympathetic stimulation is required for erection, whereas sympathetic stimulation is necessary for ejaculation. ANS: T PTS: 1 60. During the female sexual response, the lower third of the vagina expands to accommodate entry of the penis. ANS: F PTS: 1 61. Mucus secretions from the male provide the primary lubricant for intercourse. ANS: F PTS: 1 62. A high level of estrogen stimulates myometrial contraction. ANS: T PTS: 1 63. One primary oocyte containing 46 chromosomes yields one ovum containing 46 chromosomes. ANS: F PTS: 1 64. One primary oocyte containing 46 doubled chromosomes yields only one ovum containing 23 unpaired chromosomes. ANS: T PTS: 1 65. There is a limited lifetime supply of primary oocytes, which are present at the birth of a baby girl. ANS: T PTS: 1 66. The blastocoele is a fluid-filled cavity. ANS: T PTS: 1 67. Oogonia continually multiply to replenish the ovarian supply of gamete precursor cells. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 68. The first meiotic division of a primary oocyte occurs within a mature follicle just prior to ovulation. ANS: T PTS: 1 69. The process of oogenesis (from undifferentiated germ cell to released ovum) takes anywhere from 11 to 50 years to complete. ANS: T PTS: 1 70. The corpus luteum develops from old follicular cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 71. Developing follicles that fail to reach maturity to ovulate undergo atresia and form scar tissue. ANS: T PTS: 1 72. The hormone hCG diminishes the life span of the corpus luteum. ANS: F PTS: 1 73. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum has a life span of about two weeks. ANS: T PTS: 1 74. Ovulation usually occurs 14 days following follicle development. ANS: T PTS: 1 75. Low levels of estrogen inhibit the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, whereas high levels of estrogen stimulate the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary. ANS: T PTS: 1 76. High levels of estrogen directly stimulate the LH-secreting cells of the anterior pituitary. ANS: T PTS: 1 77. The plasma concentration of estrogen reaches a higher level during the follicular phase than during the luteal phase, despite the fact that the follicle and corpus luteum both secrete estrogen. ANS: T PTS: 1 78. The second meiotic division occurs within the ovary before ovulation takes place. ANS: F PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 79. Estriol is the main estrogen product secreted from the ovaries. ANS: F PTS: 1 80. Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone are secreted by the gonads. ANS: F PTS: 1 81. The corpus luteum develops from the polar body. ANS: F PTS: 1 82. The endometrium is composed primarily of smooth muscle that thickens under the influence of estrogen. ANS: F PTS: 1 83. The secretory phase of the uterine cycle lasts from menstruation to ovulation. ANS: F PTS: 1 84. The glycogen stored in the endometrial glands is broken down by the trophoblast to provide nourishment during the early stages of the developing embryo. ANS: T PTS: 1 85. The delivery of the placenta is the third stage of labour. ANS: T PTS: 1 86. There is an increase in estrogen secretion after menopause due to an increase in GnRH secretion. ANS: F PTS: 1 87. The vagina is the site of fertilization. ANS: F PTS: 1 88. Sperm are able to penetrate the zona pellucida only after binding with specific receptor sites on the surface of this layer. ANS: T PTS: 1 89. The fimbriae and cilia usually guide the egg into the oviduct following ovulation. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 90. If several sperm fertilize a single ovum as it is dividing, twins or even triplets, may result. ANS: F PTS: 1 91. Progesterone causes the cervical mucus to become thick and sticky. ANS: T PTS: 1 92. An important function of the placenta is to serve as an anatomical barrier against maternal immune cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 93. Implantation normally occurs within 24 hours after fertilization. ANS: F PTS: 1 94. The inner cell mass of the blastocyst is destined to become the fetus. ANS: T PTS: 1 95. Oxytocin is secreted by the hypothalamus. ANS: T PTS: 1 96. Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted by the corpus luteum of pregnancy. ANS: F PTS: 1 97. Some of the precursors for secretion of hormones by the placenta come from the fetal adrenal cortex. ANS: T PTS: 1 98. The placenta provides a site for maternal and fetal blood to thoroughly mix to allow O2 and nutrients to be delivered to the fetus and CO2 and other waste products to be removed from the fetus. ANS: F PTS: 1 99. Blood is exchanged between the mother and fetus across the placenta. ANS: F PTS: 1 100. Secretion of progesterone inhibits GnRH secretion. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 101. The placenta secretes hCG, which causes the ovaries to maintain cyclic follicular development (ovulations) during pregnancy. ANS: F PTS: 1 102. The third and final stage of labour involves the actual birth of the baby. ANS: F PTS: 1 103. Parasympathetic stimulation of the uterine muscle is involved in the process of parturition. ANS: F PTS: 1 104. Oxytocin is a powerful stimulant of uterine muscle contractility. ANS: T PTS: 1 105. When the entire uterine contents shift downward during late gestation so that the baby’s head is brought into contact with the cervix, this is often mistaken as the onset of labour, so-called “false labour.” ANS: F PTS: 1 106. As uterine contractions push the fetus against the cervix during parturition, oxytocin release from the posterior pituitary is reflexively increased, which further increases uterine contractions. ANS: T PTS: 1 107. Estrogen stimulates duct development in the breasts. ANS: T PTS: 1 108. Suckling stimulates oxytocin and prolactin secretion. ANS: T PTS: 1 109. The oral contraceptive inhibits follicle development. ANS: T PTS: 1 110. The IUD prevents ovulation. ANS: F PTS: 1 111. RU 486 is a progesterone antagonist. ANS: T PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System COMPLETION 1. The ____________________ are the primary reproductive organs. In males they consist of a pair of ____________________ and in females a pair of ____________________. ANS: gonads, testes, ovaries PTS: 1 2. In both sexes, the primary reproductive organs produce the reproductive cells, or ____________________ which are ____________________ in the female and ____________________ in the male, as well as secrete the sex hormones, which are ____________________ and ____________________ in the female and ____________________ in the male. ANS: -gametes, ova, spermatozoa, estrogen, progesterone, testosterone -gametes, eggs, sperm, estrogen, progesterone, testosterone PTS: 1 3. Forty-four of the 46 chromosomes in a human body cell are ____________________. ANS: autosomes PTS: 1 4. The reproductive tract includes a system of ducts plus ____________________, which secrete into these passageways. ANS: accessory sex glands PTS: 1 5. The externally visible portions of the reproductive system are referred to as ____________________. ANS: external genitalia PTS: 1 6. The ____________________ refer to the many external characteristics not directly involved in reproduction that distinguish males and females. The hormone ____________________ in males and the hormone ____________________ in females are responsible for the development and maintenance of these characteristics. ANS: secondary sexual characteristics, testosterone, estrogen PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 7. The ____________________ cells, or cells of Leydig, produce testosterone. ANS: interstitial PTS: 1 8. The single gene within the Y chromosome that is responsible for sex determination is the ____________________. ANS: sex-determining region of the Y chromosome PTS: 1 9. The reproductive tract develops from the ____________________ ducts in males and from the ____________________ ducts in females. ANS: Wolffian, Müllerian PTS: 1 10. The nucleus is located in the ____________________ of the sperm. ANS: head PTS: 1 11. The genital swellings develop into the ____________________ in males and the ____________________ in females. ANS: scrotum, labia minora PTS: 1 12. The embryonic ____________________ gives rise to the glans penis in males and the clitoris in females. ANS: genital tubercle PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 13. The three major stages of spermatogenesis are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. ANS: -mitotic proliferation, meiosis, packaging -mitotic proliferation, packaging, meiosis -meiosis, packaging, mitotic proliferation -meiosis, mitotic proliferation, meiosis packaging, mitotic proliferation, meiosis PTS: 1 14. A(n) ____________________ is the cutting and tying off of the ductus deferens. ANS: vasectomy PTS: 1 15. The ____________________ of the testes secrete testosterone under the hormonal influence of ____________________. ANS: -interstitial cells of Leydig, luteinizing hormone -interstitial cells of Leydig, LH PTS: 1 16. An undescended testis is known as a(n) ____________________. ANS: cryptorchid PTS: 1 17. The ____________________ of a spermatozoon contains the sperm’s genetic information; the ____________________ is an enzyme-filled vesicle for penetrating an ovum; power-generating mitochondria are concentrated in the sperm’s ____________________; the ____________________ is a whip-like structure composed of microtubules. ANS: head, acrosome, midpiece, tail PTS: 1 18. The four phases of the sexual cycle in both sexes (in order) are ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________ phases. ANS: excitement, plateau, orgasmic, resolution PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 19. The entire process of movement of the sperm and sex gland secretions out of the male reproductive tract is called __________________; emptying of semen into the urethra is known as ________________; forceful ejection of sperm from the penis is called __________________. ANS: ejaculation, emission, expulsion PTS: 1 20. A tubal pregnancy occurs with prenatal development in the ____________________. ANS: oviduct PTS: 1 21. Prostaglandins are locally acting chemical messengers derived from the plasma-membrane component called ____________________. ANS: arachidonic acid PTS: 1 22. A surge in ____________________ secretion from the anterior pituitary triggers ovulation. ANS: -luteinizing hormone -LH PTS: 1 23. Following ovulation, the ruptured follicle is transformed into the ____________________. ANS: corpus luteum PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System MATCHING Match the three levels of sexual distinction between males and females by using the answer code. a. refers to the apparent anatomic sex of the individual b. refers to the combination of sex at the time of conception c. refers to the development of testes or ovaries 1. genetic sex 2. gonadal sex 3. phenotypic sex conception 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 2. ANS: C PTS: 1 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 Indicate from what primitive reproductive tissue each structure in question differentiates by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. genital tubercle b. urethral folds c. genital swellings d. Wolffian ducts e. Müllerian ducts 4. scrotum 5. labia minora 6. glans penis 7. female reproductive tract 8. clitoris 9. penis 10. labia majora 11. male reproductive tract 4. ANS: C PTS: 1 5. ANS: B PTS: 1 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 7. ANS: E PTS: 1 8. ANS: A PTS: 1 9. ANS: B PTS: 1 10. ANS: C PTS: 1 11. ANS: D PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System Indicate the chromosomal composition of each of the stages of developing sperm by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. contains a full set of 23 pairs of chromosomes b. contains a full set of 23 pairs of doubled chromosomes c. contains a half set of doubled chromosomes d. contains a set of 23 single unpaired chromosomes 12. spermatogonium 13. primary spermatocyte 14. secondary spermatocyte 15. secondary oocyte 16. spermatid 17. spermatozoan 18. polar body 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 13. ANS: B PTS: 1 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 15. ANS: C PTS: 1 16. ANS: D PTS: 1 17. ANS: D PTS: 1 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 Indicate which description in the right column matches the item in the left column by using the answer code: a. special milk produced during the first five days postpartum b. evacuated from the uterus as “afterbirth” c. super-rich endometrial tissue at the implantation site d. the two-cell layered trophoblastic tissue that forms the fetal portion of the placenta e. the intervening membrane between the developing oocyte and surrounding granulosa cells 19. chorion 20. colostrum 21. zona pellucida 22. decidua 23. placenta 19. ANS: D PTS: 1 20. ANS: A PTS: 1 21. ANS: E PTS: 1 22. ANS: C PTS: 1 23. ANS: B PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System Indicate whether the following functions are attributable to estrogen or progesterone by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. estrogen b. progesterone c. both estrogen and progesterone 24. responsible for developing and maintaining female secondary sexual characteristics 25. stimulates duct development in the breasts 26. inhibits uterine contractility 27. causes cervical mucus to become thick and sticky 28. induces endometrial secretory capacity 29. promotes thickening of the myometrium 30. promotes antiperistaltic contractions in the oviduct 31. inhibits prolactin’s ability to promote milk secretion 24. ANS: A PTS: 1 25. ANS: A PTS: 1 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 27. ANS: B PTS: 1 28. ANS: B PTS: 1 29. ANS: A PTS: 1 30. ANS: A PTS: 1 31. ANS: C PTS: 1 Indicate which item best matches the description in each question by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all). There is only one correct response for each. a. erection b. acrosome c. Leydig cells d. seminal vesicles e. oviduct f. uterus g. inner cell mass h. seminiferous tubules i. midpiece of sperm j. head of sperm k. vagina l. prostate gland m. trophoblast n. corpus luteum o. epididymis p. ovarian follicle q. ejaculation r. tail of sperm s. Sertoli cells t. endometrium u. placentaChapter 17: The Reproductive System 32. formation is stimulated by LH after ovulation 33. site of spermatogenesis 34. stores sperm prior to ejaculation 35. occurs as a result of vascular engorgement 36. site of fertilization 37. destined to become the fetus 38. fills with glycogen and becomes richly vascularized under the influence of progesterone 39. tissue that secretes testosterone 40. contains enzymes utilized for penetration of ovum 41. secretes human chorionic gonadotropin 42. secretes prostaglandins into semen 43. responsible for final maneuvring for penetration of ova 44. supplies fructose utilized by sperm for energy 45. destined to become the fetal portion of the placenta 46. semen expelled from penis 47. consists primarily of the nucleus that contains the sperm’s genetic information 48. serves as a route by which nutrients reach developing sperm cells 49. organ of exchange between mother and fetus 50. secretes alkaline fluid to neutralize acidic vaginal secretions 51. portion of blastocyst responsible for accomplishing implantation 52. structure within which an ovum develops prior to ovulation 53. site of final maturation of sperm for motility and fertility in the male 54. contains mitochondria for energy production within sperm 55. secretes estrogen but not progesterone 56. secretes estrogen and progesterone during the first 10 weeks of gestation 57. secretes estrogen and progesterone during the last seven months of gestation 32. ANS: N PTS: 1 33. ANS: H PTS: 1 34. ANS: O PTS: 1 35. ANS: A PTS: 1 36. ANS: E PTS: 1 37. ANS: G PTS: 1 38. ANS: T PTS: 1 39. ANS: C PTS: 1 40. ANS: B PTS: 1 41. ANS: U PTS: 1 42. ANS: D PTS: 1 43. ANS: R PTS: 1 44. ANS: D PTS: 1 45. ANS: M PTS: 1 46. ANS: Q PTS: 1 47. ANS: J PTS: 1 48. ANS: S PTS: 1 49. ANS: U PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System 50. ANS: L PTS: 1 51. ANS: M PTS: 1 52. ANS: P PTS: 1 53. ANS: O PTS: 1 54. ANS: I PTS: 1 55. ANS: P PTS: 1 56. ANS: N PTS: 1 57. ANS: U PTS: 0 ESSAY 1. Describe regulation of spermatogenesis. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 2. Describe the regulation of the ovarian and uterine cycles. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 3. Discuss the pros and cons of estrogen replacement therapy following menopause. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 4. Describe the endocrine events associated with fertilization and early development. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 5. Discuss the various modes of contraception and their effectiveness. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1Chapter 17: The Reproductive System PROBLEM 1. Write the appropriate letter in the blank by using the answer code (options may be used more than once or not at all): a. A is greater than B. b. B is greater than A. c. A and B are approximately equal. [Show More]

Last updated: 1 year ago

Preview 1 out of  pages