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NR 511 Chamberlain university Questions with accurate answers. Week 2

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Question 1. A patient asks how to avoid contracting pharyngitis and tonsillitis. Which piece of advice is not appropriate for this patient? “Take antibiotics when well to avoid future infections.�... �� Question 2. Stacy, a nursing student, is to begin her series of hepatitis B vaccinations. You test her for a serological marker, and the results show hepatitis B surface antibodies (HBsAb). You tell Stacy that she: Is permanently immune to hepatitis B. Question 3. You are counseling Lillian, who is lactose intolerant, about foods to avoid. You know she misunderstands the teaching when she tells you she can have: Foods containing whey. Question 4. Susan, age 59, has no specific complaints when she comes in for her annual examination. She does, however, have type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM), slight hypertension, dyslipidemia, and central obesity. How would you diagnose her? As having metabolic syndrome. Question 5. Simon, age 72, states that he is worried because he has a bowel movement only every third day. You respond: “There is no such thing as a ‘normal’ pattern of defecation.” Question 6. Martina, age 34, has AIDS and currently suffers from diarrhea. You suspect she has which protozoal infection of the bowel? Cryptosporidiosis. - Cryptosporidiosis, a protozoal infection of the bowel, is common in immunocompromised clients. It causes villous atrophy and mild inflammatory changes and may secrete an enterotoxin. Question 7. Tina has a chronic hepatitis C infection. She asks you how to prevent its transmission. You respond: “Abstain from sex during your period.” - Because the hepatitis C virus is transmitted in blood, including menstrual blood, clients should abstain from sex during menstruation. You might also test Tina to see which genotype her hepatitis C is to see if she is a candidate for Harvoni or Epclusa. Question 8. Marcie just returned from Central America with traveler’s diarrhea. Which is the best treatment? Supportive care. - Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) is the most common cause of traveler’s diarrhea, which occurs after ingesting contaminated food or water. It is usually self-limiting, requiring no treatment other than supportive care. It is common in developing countries. Traveler’s diarrhea caused by E coli used to be frequently treated with a 3- to 5-day course of a quinolone antibiotic, such as ciprofloxacin (Cipro). Question 9. Your client’s 2-month-old daughter is admitted with gastroenteritis and dehydration after 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. When the father asks you what is causing the child’s diarrhea, how do you respond? “The infectious agent invaded the stomach lining and is affecting the balance of water and nutrients.” 1 Question 10. Sandy, age 52, presents with jaundice, dark urine, and light-colored stools, stating that she is slightly improved over last week’s symptoms. Which stage of viral hepatitis do you suspect? Icteric. - In the icteric stage of viral hepatitis, there is jaundice, dark urine, and light-colored stools. There are continued prodromal complaints, with gradual improvement. Question 11. When Sammy asks you what he can do to help his wife, who has dumping syndrome, what do you suggest he encourage her to do? Eat foods with a moderate fat and protein content. Question 12. You suspect that Harry has a peptic ulcer and tell him that it has been found to be strongly associated with: Infection by Helicobacter pylori. - About 90% of cases of peptic ulcers have been found to be caused by infection with the bacteria H pylori. Question 13. You are trying to differentiate between functional (acquired) constipation and Hirschsprung disease in a neonate. Distinguishing features of Hirschsprung disease include which of the following? Small ribbonlike stools. Question 14. Shelby has recently been diagnosed with pancreatitis. Of the following objective findings that can result from the pancreatic inflammatory process, which is known as Grey Turner sign? Bluish discoloration over the flanks. - Grey Turner sign is a bluish discoloration over the flanks. Question 15. You suspect that Nikki has a gastroduodenal ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori and plan to treat her empirically. What medications should you order? A proton pump inhibitor (omeprazole), tetracycline or amoxicillin, and metronidazole (Flagyl). - All of the drugs listed are used in the eradication of H pylori. Traditional 14-day “triple therapy” with a proton pump inhibitor (omeprazole), tetracycline or amoxicillin, and metronidazole (Flagyl) has consistently produced eradication rates of approximately 95% and is the least expensive therapy. Question 16. A 45-year-old homeless man presents to your urgent care clinic for evaluation. His chief complaint is diarrhea. The patient states he started to have diarrhea 2-3 days ago, and it is getting progressively worse. He also notes nausea without vomiting, dry mouth, and double vision. On exam you notice his pupillary reflex is absent. The patient states he lives on the street and eats mostly canned goods that he scavenges from a grocery store dumpster. What is the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms? Botulism. - This patient has a gastrointestinal illness associated with descending neurological symptoms after eating canned food; this is the presentation of botulism. 2 Question 17. A 75-year-old male presents for a routine physical. He is obese and has no abdominal pain or recent injuries or problems. He has no complaints. He lies supine for his abdominal exam. He is nontender to palpation and has a normal exam. When he sits up you see a large mass protrude from his abdomen. It is central to his abdomen and inferior to his rib cage. It disappears when he is sitting up fully. What is the patient’s diagnosis? Ventral (epigastric) hernia. - This is the hernia described in the question; most of these hernias are asymptomatic. Question 18. A 50-year-old female presents to the urgent care clinic complaining of left lower quadrant pain. She has associated nausea and vomiting, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 102.5°F, pulse 110, blood pressure 150/90, pulse oximetry 99% on room air. What is the best test to evaluate this patient? Computed tomography (CT) scan with oral contrast. - This is the best diagnostic choice. While diverticulitis is likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms, a CT of the abdomen would show if the patient has any gynecologic etiology (such as ovarian cyst or tumor) of this pain. Question 19. The screening guidelines for colon cancer recommend which of the following for the general population? Colonoscopy starting at age 50. Question 20. Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholecystitis? Younger age. - The risk of cholecystitis actually increases with age. Question 21. Zena just had a hemorrhoidectomy. You know she has not understood your teaching when she tells you she will: Decrease her dietary fiber for 1 month. - For clients who have just had a hemorrhoidectomy, teaching would include advising them to maintain an adequate intake of dietary fiber to maintain stool bulk. Question 22. Timothy, age 68, complains of an abrupt change in his defecation pattern. You evaluate him for: Colorectal cancer. - A middle-aged or older client with an abrupt change in defecation pattern must be evaluated for colorectal cancer. Question 23. Anson tells you he thinks his antacids are causing his diarrhea. You respond: “Antacids may contain magnesium, which decreases bowel transit time and may contain poorly absorbed salts that draw fluid into the bowel.” Question 24. Lucy, age 49, has pain in both the left and right lower quadrants. What might you suspect? Pelvic inflammatory disease. - The pain associated with pelvic inflammatory disease can be palpated in both the right and left lower quadrants. Question 25. You elicit costovertebral angle tenderness in Gordon, age 29. Which condition do you suspect? Inflammation of the kidney. Question 26. A mother brings in her 4-year-old child, who she states has acute abdominal pain and a rash. Which of the following do you initially rule out? Appendicitis. 3 Question 27. Harvey just came back from Mexico. Which pathogen do you suspect is responsible for his diarrhea? Escherichia coli. Question 28 To differentiate among the different diagnoses of inflammatory bowel diseases, you look at the client’s histological, culture, and radiological features. Mary has transmural inflammation, granulomas, focal involvement of the colon with some skipped areas, and sparing of the rectal mucosa. What do you suspect? Crohn disease. - Crohn disease would show transmural inflammation, granulomas, focal involvement of the colon with some skipped areas, and sparing of the rectal mucosa. The key words are “skipped areas of mucosal involvement.” Question 29. Which of the following medications/drugs are not known to cause heartburn or dyspepsia? Tylenol. Question 30. Icterus due to hyperbilirubinemia is seen when the serum level of bilirubin is greater than? 2.5 mg/dL. - A bilirubin level greater than 2.5-3 mg/dL is associated with yellowing of the eyes. Question 31. What is the best diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis of celiac disease? Anti-tTG IgA. - This is the most sensitive and specific test for diagnosing celiac disease. Question 32. All of the following medications are used for the control of nausea and vomiting. Which medication works by affecting the chemoreceptor trigger zone, thereby stimulating upper gastrointestinal motility and increasing lower esophageal sphincter pressure? Antidopaminergic and cholinergic agents, such as metoclopramide (Reglan). - Metoclopramide (Reglan) is used for diabetic gastroparesis and postoperative nausea and vomiting. It works by affecting the chemoreceptor trigger zone, thereby stimulating upper gastrointestinal motility and increasing lower esophageal sphincter pressure. Question 33. You auscultate Julie’s abdomen and hear a peritoneal friction rub. Which condition do you rule out? Irritable bowel syndrome. - Irritable bowel syndrome does not produce a friction rub. Question 34. Which is the most common presenting symptom of gastric cancer? Weight loss. - Weight loss is usually the presenting symptom of gastric cancer. Question 35. Tom has just been diagnosed with celiac disease. Which of the following might you tell him? A strict gluten-free diet is the only treatment for celiac disease. - A strict gluten-free diet is the only treatment for celiac disease. Question 36. Samantha, age 28, is 100 lb overweight and wants to have a gastroplasty performed. In discussing this with her, you explain that by having this procedure she may: Develop diarrhea. - Diarrhea is a common problem after a gastroplasty because of the induced malabsorption. 4 Question 37. Rose has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). You know she misunderstands your teaching when she tells you she will: Have a snack before retiring so that the esophagus and stomach are not empty at bedtime. - Rose should not have a snack before retiring. Clients with GERD should be instructed to avoid coffee, alcohol, chocolate, peppermint, and spicy foods; eat smaller meals; stop smoking; remain upright for 2 hours after meals; elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-in blocks; and refrain from eating for 3 hours before retiring. Question 38. In a 2-month-old infant with vomiting and diarrhea, the most effective way of determining a fluid deficit is to check for: Decreased peripheral perfusion. - In a 2-month-old infant with vomiting and diarrhea, the most effective way of determining a fluid deficit is to check for decreased peripheral perfusion, dry oral mucous membranes, and sunken fontanels. The body compensates for loss of fluid by shifting the interstitial fluid into the intravascular space, thereby maintaining perfusion of vital organs. If the fluid loss continues, circulating volume is diminished and vasoconstriction occurs in the peripheral vessels, resulting in decreased perfusion. Question 39. Olive has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. Which laboratory test value(s) would you expect to be decreased? Vitamin A, B complex, and C levels. - Folic acid and serum levels of most vitamins, including A, B complex, C, and the fat-soluble vitamins, are decreased in Crohn’s disease as a result of malabsorption. Question 40. You are doing routine teaching with a patient who has a family history of colorectal cancer. You know she misunderstands the teaching when she tells you she will: Increase her fluid intake. - Increasing fluid intake has not been shown to decrease the risk of colorectal cancer. Current recommendations to aid in preventing colorectal cancer include decreased fat consumption, increased fiber consumption, and the daily use of aspirin. Question 41. Dottie brings in her infant, who has gastroesophageal reflux. What do you tell her about positioning her infant? “Always position infants on their back to prevent sudden infant death syndrome.” - Babies with gastroesophageal reflux should, from birth, be placed to sleep on their back on a firm, flat mattress that is not elevated. Elevating the sleeping surface for back-sleeping babies does not reduce reflux and is not recommended. In addition, these babies should be fed a formula thickened with rice cereal and held in an upright position for 1 hour after feeding, as gravity helps prevent reflux. Question 42. To differentiate among the different diagnoses of inflammatory bowel diseases, you look at the client’s histological, culture, and radiological features. Mary has transmural inflammation, granulomas, focal involvement of the colon with some skipped areas, and sparing of the rectal mucosa. What do you suspect? Crohn disease. - Crohn disease would show transmural inflammation, granulomas, focal involvement of the colon with some skipped areas, and sparing of the rectal mucosa. The key words are “skipped areas of mucosal involvement.” 5 Question 43. Marian, age 52, is obese. She complains of a rapid onset of severe right upper quadrant abdominal cramping pain, nausea, and vomiting. Your differential diagnosis might be: Cholecystitis. - A rapid onset of severe right upper quadrant (RUQ) abdominal cramping pain with nausea and vomiting is a classic presentation of acute cholecystitis; 90% to 95% of clients with acute cholecystitis also have gallstones. Other symptoms include low-grade fever, epigastric tenderness, guarding, and pain on inspiration during palpation of the RUQ (Murphy sign). The 7 F’s of cholecystitis are fair, fat, 40, female, fertile, fat intolerant, and flatulent. Question 44. Which of the following is not true regarding hepatitis C? If hepatitis is asymptomatic it doesn’t cause cirrhosis or liver cancer. Question 45. What is the recommended treatment to eradicate a Helicobacter pylori infection? Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 2 weeks. - This is the recommended treatment to eradicate H pylori. Question 46. A 25-year-old male presents complaining of hematochezia. The patient states he has noticed this for 2 days. He states there is a streak of bright blood along his stool every time he has a bowel movement. The patient has no pain with his bowel movements. He admits to eating a poor diet. The patient has no abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting. On physical exam the patient has a positive fecal occult blood test but has no noticeable rectal bleeding or lesions. What is the likely diagnosis? Internal hemorrhoid. Question 47. Margie, age 52, has an extremely stressful job and was just given a diagnosis of gastric ulcer. She tells you she is sure it is going to be malignant. How do you respond? “About 95% of gastric ulcers are benign.” - About 95% of gastric ulcers are benign even though some of these seem to look malignant on x-ray. Question 48. Cydney has been given a diagnosis of ascariasis. Which symptoms would you expect to see? Low-grade fever, productive cough with blood-tinged sputum, wheezing, and dyspnea. - Ascariasis is the most common intestinal helminth (parasitic worm). It causes pulmonary manifestations, such as low-grade fever, productive cough with blood-tinged sputum, wheezing, and dyspnea, because the larvae are transmitted to the lungs from the vascular system. The larvae burrow through alveolar walls, migrating up the bronchial tree to the pharynx, and then down the esophagus, back to the intestine. Question 49. You suspect appendicitis in Andrew, who is 18. With his right hip and knee flexed, you slowly rotate his right leg internally to stretch a muscle. He states that it is painful over his right lower quadrant. Which sign did you elicit? Obturator sign. - Obturator sign is elicited when, with the patient’s right hip and knee flexed, the examiner slowly rotates the right leg internally, which stretches the obturator muscle. Pain over the right lower quadrant (RLQ) is considered a positive sign. 6 Question 50. Marty, age 52, notices a bulge in his midline every time he rises from bed in the morning. You tell him that it is a ventral hernia, also known as an: Epigastric hernia. - A ventral hernia, also known as an epigastric hernia, occurs along the midline between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus. The fibers along the linea alba are brought together in a patchwork-type closure; the defect exists within this decussation. As these fibers weaken, the contents can herniate through the abdomen. Epigastric hernias are 3 times more likely to occur in men than women. Question 51. Bobby, age 6, has constant periumbilical pain shifting to the right lower quadrant, vomiting, a small volume of diarrhea, absence of headache, a mild elevation of the white blood cell count with an early left shift, and white blood cells in the urine. You suspect: Appendicitis. - Constant periumbilical pain shifting to the right lower quadrant; vomiting following the pain; a small volume of diarrhea; no systemic symptoms, such as a headache, malaise, or myalgia; a mild elevation of the white blood cell count with an early left shift; and white blood cells (WBCs) or red blood cells (RBCs) in the urine are indications of appendicitis. The WBC count becomes high only with gangrene or perforation of the appendix. The urine may have WBCs or RBCs if the bladder is irritated and ketonuria if there is prolonged vomiting. Question 52. Melva, age 63, presents with an acute exacerbation of pancreatitis, and you are going to admit her to the hospital. Which is the most important factor in determining a negative long-term outcome for her? Infection. - The most important factor in determining long-term negative outcomes for pancreatitis is the presence of infection. Despite best practices, mortality associated with severe acute pancreatitis remains approximately 20% to 25% because of systemic complications. Question 53. A 54-year-old female presents to your primary care office for routine reevaluation for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She has been treated with diet modifications and 6 weeks of omeprazole without improvement of her symptoms. What is the next step in management of this patient’s GERD? Order an endoscopy. - This is the next step in treatment in order to evaluate the etiology of the patient’s GERD and consider biopsy if necessary. Question 54. What would you expect to see on an abdominal series that would lead toward a diagnosis of smallbowel obstruction? Air-fluid levels. - This finding on an abdominal x-ray is the hallmark of a small-bowel obstruction. Question 55. Nausea is difficult to discern in a young child. What question might you ask to determine if a child has nausea? “Are you hungry?” - To elicit information concerning nausea in a young child, ask the child about hunger because a young child cannot usually differentiate between hunger and mild nausea 7 Question 56. Matt, age 26, recently returned from a camping trip and has gastroenteritis. He says that he has been eating only canned food. Which of the following pathogens do you suspect? Clostridium botulinum. - C botulinum is an anaerobic, gram-positive bacillus that produces toxins. It is widely distributed in the soil and vegetation. Improperly processed home-canned low-acid vegetables and contaminated meats are the usual cause of food-borne botulism. Question 57. Ruby has a colostomy and complains that her stools are too loose. What food(s) do you suggest to help thicken the stools? Cheese. - Cheese, bread, pasta, rice, pretzels, and yogurt all help to thicken stools. Question 58. Ellie, age 42, has a seizure disorder and has been taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for years. Which supplement should she also be taking if no other problems exist? Folic acid. - Clients taking phenytoin (Dilantin) should also be taking 0.4 to 1 mg/d of folic acid because Dilantin promotes a folate deficiency. Question 59. Melva, age 63, presents with an acute exacerbation of pancreatitis, and you are going to admit her to the hospital. Which is the most important factor in determining a negative long-term outcome for her? Infection. - The most important factor in determining long-term negative outcomes for pancreatitis is the presence of infection. Despite best practices, mortality associated with severe acute pancreatitis remains approximately 20% to 25% because of systemic complications. Question 60. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis? Gallstone obstruction of the pancreatic duct and alcoholism. - Both gallstones and alcoholism are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis. Question 61. Treatment for achalasia may include: Balloon dilation of the lower esophageal sphincter. - Achalasia is an absence of peristalsis of the esophagus and a high gastroesophageal sphincter pressure. After initial noninvasive treatments, clients may require a balloon dilation of the lower esophageal sphincter. Question 62. A 7-year-old male presents with his mother to the urgent care clinic complaining of abdominal pain. He started to complain of pain prior to going to bed; however, it has gotten progressively worse and is now preventing him from sleeping. He is nauseous but hasn’t vomited and didn’t eat dinner due to the pain. The patient appears pale and is complaining of right-sided abdominal pain. His vitals are as follows: blood pressure 130/85, pulse 120, temperature 100.5°F, pulse oximetry 98% on room air. On physical exam he is tender in the right lower quadrant. His complete blood count (CBC) shows a white blood cell count (WBC) of 17.0. What is the patient’s likely diagnosis? Appendicitis. - This is the clinical scenario typical for appendicitis. Question 63. Which oral medication might be used to treat a client with chronic cholelithiasis who is a poor candidate for surgery? Ursodiol (Actigall). 8 Question 64. The metabolism of which drug is not affected in Marsha, age 74? Alcohol. Question 65. Rose, a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), has many other concurrent conditions. In teaching Rose about medications to avoid, what do you recommend she refrain from using? Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Question 66. Marvin, a known alcoholic with cirrhosis, is frequently admitted for coagulopathies and occasionally receives blood transfusions. His wife asks you why he has bleeding problems. How do you respond? “There is an interruption of the normal clotting mechanism.” HEENT Eye Problems Question 1. Which of the following statements about macular degeneration is not true? Macular degeneration is characterized by gradual loss of peripheral vision. - This is how open-angle glaucoma is characterized. Macular degeneration is gradual loss of central vision. Question 2. You prescribe Levaquin (levofloxacin) for a severe sinus infection. What is not a possible adverse reaction to this medication? Stevens-Johnson syndrome. - Stevens-Johnson syndrome is usually caused by allopurinol and beta-lactam antibiotics. Question 3. Which of the following is not a complication of untreated group A streptococcal pharyngitis? Hemolytic anemia. - This is a complication of mononucleosis. Question 4. What is the most common cause of epistaxis? Digital trauma. Question 5. Which of the following is not recommended for hoarseness? Oral steroids. Question 6. Aaron, age 4, is brought in to the clinic by his father. His tympanic membrane is perforated from otitis media. His father asks about repair of the eardrum. How do you respond? “The eardrum, in most cases, heals within several weeks.” - Most perforated tympanic membranes seen with acute otitis media heal within several weeks. Question 7. A 44-year-old banker comes to your office for evaluation of a pulsating headache over the left temporal region, and he rates the pain as an 8 on a scale of 1 to 10. The pain has been constant for the past several hours and is 9 accompanied by nausea and sensitivity to light. He has had frequent, though less severe, headaches for many years, and they are usually relieved by over-the-counter medicines. He is unclear as to a precipitating event but notes that he has had visual disturbances before each headache and he has been under a lot of stress in his job. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis of this type of headache? Migraine. - Migraines are classically preceded by an aura and accompanied by nausea, vomiting (sometimes), and photophobia. They are usually unilateral. Question 8. Mrs. Johnson, a 54-year-old accountant, presents to the office with a painful red eye without discharge. You should suspect: Iritis. Question 9. Mandy, 44, was given a diagnosis of flu 1 day ago and wants to start on the “new flu medicine” right away. What do you tell her? “I’ll start you on oseltamivir (Tamiflu) today. It may shorten the course of the disease and perhaps lessen the severity of your symptoms.” Question 10. Marcia, age 4, is brought in to the office by her mother. She has a sore throat, difficulty swallowing, copious oral secretions, respiratory difficulty, stridor, and a temperature of 102°F but no pharyngeal erythema or cough. What do you suspect? Epiglottitis. - A symptom cluster of severe throat pain with difficulty swallowing, copious oral secretions, respiratory difficulty, stridor, and fever but without pharyngeal erythema or cough is indicative of epiglottitis. Question 11. Mr. Clark, age 78, is being treated with timolol maleate (Timoptic) drops for his chronic open-angle glaucoma. While performing a new client history and physical, you note that he is taking other medications. Which medication would you be most concerned about? Atenolol (Tenormin), a beta blocker for high blood pressure. - If a client is taking timolol maleate (Timoptic) drops for chronic open-angle glaucoma, you should be most concerned if the client is also taking atenolol (Tenormin), a beta blocker, for high blood pressure. Because timolol maleate drops are beta-adrenergic blockers, additional beta blockers can cause worsening of congestive heart failure or reactive airway disease, as well as acute delirium. Question 12. You are assessing a first grader and find that the tonsils are touching the uvula. How would you grade this finding? Grade 3. - Grade 3 indicates the tonsils are touching the uvula. Tonsils are enlarged to 2, 3, or 4 with an acute infection. Question 13. Nystatin (Mycostatin) is ordered for Michael, a 56-year-old banker who has an oral fungal infection. What instructions for taking the medication do you give Michael? 10 “Swish and swallow the medication.” Question 14. Mario, a 17-year-old high school student, came to the office for evaluation. He is complaining of persistent sore throat, fever, and malaise not relieved by the penicillin therapy prescribed recently at the urgent care center. As the nurse practitioner, what would you order next? A Monospot test. - If a client has a persistent sore throat, fever, and malaise not relieved by penicillin therapy, a Monospot test should be performed to rule out mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr virus). Question 15. Cynthia, a 31-year-old woman with a history of depression, is seen in the office today for complaints of headaches. She was recently promoted at her job, and this has caused increased stress. She describes the headache as a tightening (viselike) feeling in the temporal and nuchal areas. The pain is bilateral and tends to wax and wane. It started approximately 2 days ago and is still present. What kind of headache is she describing? Tension headache. - Tension headache is the most common type of headache. These headaches are usually bilateral and tend to wax and wane but have a characteristic pressure/tightening (viselike grip) in the forehead, temporal, or nuchal areas and can last from minutes to weeks. Tension headache may be associated with stress, depression, or anxiety disorders. Question 16. Regular ocular pressure testing is indicated for older adults taking: High-dose inhaled glucocorticoids. - Although regular ocular pressure testing is indicated on a routine basis for all older adults, it is especially important for clients taking an extended regimen of high-dose inhaled glucocorticoids because prolonged continuous use increases the risk of ocular hypertension or open-angle glaucoma. Question 17. In a young child, unilateral purulent rhinitis is most often caused by: A foreign body. - In a young child, unilateral purulent rhinitis is most often caused by a foreign body. The key word here is unilateral. Question 18. Samantha, age 12, presents with ear pain. When you begin to assess her ear, you tug on her normalappearing auricle, eliciting severe pain. This leads you to suspect: Otitis externa. - When severe pain is elicited by tugging on a normal-appearing auricle, an acute infection of the external ear canal (otitis externa) is suspected. Question 19. Ellen, a 56-year-old social worker, is seen by the nurse practitioner for complaints of fever; left-sided facial pain; moderate amounts of purulent, malodorous nasal discharge; and pain and headache when bending forward. The symptoms have been occurring for approximately 6 days. On physical assessment, there is marked redness and swelling of the nasal passages and tenderness/pai [Show More]

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Shaken Baby Syndrome can cause which of the following conditions? (A) Hypoglycemia (B) Abdominal bruising (C) Subdural hematoma (D) Lower extremity fracture - ✔✔(C) Subdural hematoma Which la...

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 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > NREMT - Everything you need to know. Questions with Accurate Answers. Guaranteed Comprehension. Rated A+ (All)

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NREMT - Everything you need to know. Questions with Accurate Answers. Guaranteed Comprehension. Rated A+

Medical Direction - ✔✔Oversight of the patient-care aspects of an EMS system by the Medical Director. Protocols - ✔✔lists of steps, such as assessments and interventions, to be taken in different s...

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