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BIOS 255 / BIOS255: Anatomy & Physiology III / A&P III Midterm Exam (Fall 2020) Chamberlain College of Nursing

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BIOS-255 Anatomy & Physiology III A&P III Midterm 1. Which of the following is NOT a major function of the blood? a) Transportation of nutrients b) Regulation of blood pH c) Protection again... st infectious disease d) Transportation of heat e) Production of oxygen 2. Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding blood? a) The normal average temperature of blood is around 100.4F. b) The normal pH range for blood is 7.35-7.45. c) Hemocytoblasts are a common component of circulating blood. d) The primary circulating blood cell is the RBC. e) Blood is a liquid connective tissue consisting of cells and a liquid extracellular matrix. 3. The hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by... a) WBCs b) Platelets c) RBCs d) Plasma e) Plasma proteins 4. What percentage of blood plasma is water? a) 95.1% b) 91.5% c) 88.5% d) 4.9% e) 8.5% 5. Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance? a) Albumin b) Globulins c) Fibrinogen d) Myoglobin e) Hemoglobin 6. Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting? a) Albumin b) Globulins c) Fibrinogen d) Prostaglandins e) None of these choices 7. The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called... a) hematospermia b) hemopoiesis c) thrombocytosis d) hemostasis e) polycythemia 8. A megakaryoblast will develop into... a) a RBC b) a WBC c) a platelet d) either a WBC or a platelet e) none of these choices 9. During hemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into... a) proerythroblasts b) T lymphoblasts c) B lymphoblasts d) NK lymphoblasts e) all of these choices 10. Which of the following hormone stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow? a) erythropoietin (EPO) b) thrombopoietin (TPO) c) human growth hormone (HGH) d) calcitonin (CT) e) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 11. Approximately, how many hemoglobin molecules are found in each RBC? a) 50 million b) 100 million c) 280 million d) 320 million e) 430 million 12. Ferritin is a protein used to... a) transport iron in the blood b) store iron in the liver c) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes d) synthesize iron e) absorb iron across intestinal cells 13. The major function of RBCs is... a) nutrient transport b) cytokine stimulation c) blood cell proliferation d) gas transport e) disease resistant 14. Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, a RBC loses its nucleus and becomes a... a) proerythroblast b) megakaryocyte c) progenitor cell d) mature erythrocyte e) reticulocyte 15. Which of the following blood cells is a phagocyte? a) neutrophil b) platelet c) lymphocyte d) basophil e) erythrocyte 16. Which of the following blood cells is involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel? a) erythrocyte b) platelet c) lymphocyte d) basophil e) neutrophil 17. Which of the following blood cells releases granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions? a) eosinophil b) monocyte c) lymphocyte d) basophil e) neutrophil 18. Which of the following blood cells phagocytizes antigen-antibody complexes and are effective against parasitic worms? a) eosinophil b) monocyte c) lymphocyte d) basophil e) neutrophil 19. Which of the following blood cells are the main soldiers in the immune system defense of the body against microbial invaders? a) eosinophil b) macrophage c) lymphocyte d) basophil e) platelet 20. Which of the following cells is NOT an agranular leukocyte? a) monocytes b) macrophage c) lymphocyte d) basophil e) all of these choices 21. The process of a WBC squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called... a) emigration b) diaphysis c) adhesion d) opsonization e) phagocytosis 22. Which of the following chemical substances is NOT commonly released by mast cells? a) heparin b) histamine c) nitric oxide d) proteases e) all of these choices 23. Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of megakaryoblasts? a) erythropoietin b) thrombopoietin c) nitric oxide d) human growth hormone e) heparin 24. Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel? a) vascular spasm, clotting, polycythemia b) hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation c) emigration, clotting, hemolysis d) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting e) anemia, hemogenesis, platelet plug formation 25. The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are identical after formation of... a) thromboplastin b) prothrombinase c) clotting factor XII d) fibrin e) tissue factor 26. Which of the following clotting factors is involved in strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot? a) factor V b) factor VII c) factor XI d) factor XIII e) factor XIV 27. Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy? a) mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative b) mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive c) mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative d) mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive 28. Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2 by inhibiting platelet adhesion and release? a) heparin b) fibrinogen c) plasmin d) antithrombin e) prostacyclin 29. Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils? a) heparin b) fibrinoen c) thromboxane A2 d) prostacyclin e) plasmin 30. Which of the cells in the diagram will eventually develop into macrophages? - E 31. Which of the cells in the diagram will increase the number of nuclear lobes as they age? - A 32. Which of the cells in the diagram can be subdivide into categories of small and large versions of this cell type? - D 33. Which labeled cell in the diagram is a WBC? - C 34. Which labeled cell in the diagram is a pluripotent stem cell? - A 35. Which letter in the diagram indicates the correct position of a myeloid stem cell? - B 36. Which labeled cell in the diagram will develop into thrombocytes? - G 37. What does this figure represent? a) erythropoiesis b) RBC differentiation c) emigration d) clot formation e) clot retraction 38. Which of the following antibodies would you find in the plasma of a person with type O blood? a) anti-A b) anti-B c) anti-A and anti-B d) no antibodies to ABO blood group antigens e) not enough information to answer 39. What blood type is a person if their plasma contains only anti-A agglutinin? a) A b) B c) O d) AB e) not enough information is provided to answer question 40. List and briefly describe the major functions of blood. - 1) transportation of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, wastes, hormones and heat. - 2) regulation of pH via buffers, body temperature via properties of water in plasma, and water balance via osmotic pressure created by plasma proteins. - 3) protection via clotting, antibodies, phagocytosis, and complement. 41. Describe the negative feedback loop that controls the rate of erythropoiesis. Under what circumstances would you expect the rate of erythropoiesis to increase? How would it be possible to tell if the rate of erythropoiesis is elevated? - Hypoxia in the kidney leads to secretion of erythropoietin, which targets proerythroblasts in red bone marrow to mature into reticulocytes, which enter circulation to become RBCs thus increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. Tissue hypoxia is induced by any form of anemia (reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood), or when oxygen levels in the external environment are low (e.g., high altitudes). High levels of reticulocytes in the circulation are a strong indicator of increased erythropoiesis. 42. Explain the proposed role of hemoglobin in the regulation of blood flow and blood pressure. - The gaseous hormone nitric oxide (NO), produced by the endothelial cells that line blood vessels, binds to hemoglobin. Under some circumstances, hemoglobin release NO. The release NO causes vasodilation, an increase in blood vessel diameter that occurs when the smooth muscle in the vessel wall relaxes. Vasodilation improves blood flow and enhances oxygen delivery to cells near the site of NO release. 43. Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting? - Blood may come in contact with collagen in the surrounding basal lamina, which activates clotting factor XII, which ultimately leads to the formation of fibrin clots. Platelets also adhere to collagen exposed by damage to the endothelium and begin their release reaction. 44. When blood from a normal adult is centrifuged as shown in the figure, which of the following components occupies the greatest volume? a) plasma b) RBCs c) platelets d) buffy coat e) WBCs 45. What is the normal concentration range of the formed element that comprises the blood component labeled III in the figure? a) 400,000-1 million cells/L b) 150-200 cells/L c) 4.8-5.4 million cells/L d) 150,000-400,000 cells/L e) 5,000-10,000 cells/L 46. Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the highest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the figure? a) eosinophils b) monocytes c) lymphocytes d) neutrophils e) basophils 47. Which of the following blood cell types normally comprises the smallest percentage of the blood component labeled II in the diagram? a) eosinophils b) monocytes c) lymphocytes d) neutrophils e) basophils 48. Which of the following types of proteins is present at the highest percentage in the blood component labeled I in the figure? a) globulin b) albumin c) fibrinogen d) thrombin e) keratin 49. Which of the following types of proteins is present at the lowest percentage of the blood component labeled I in the figure? a) globulin b) albumin c) fibrinogen d) all of the protein listed are found in equal percentages e) none of the proteins listed are found in component I 50. Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to neutrophils? a) megakaryoblast b) proerythroblast c) T lymphoblast d) monoblast e) myeloblast 51. Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to the platelets? a) megakaryoblast b) proerythroblast c) T lymphoblast d) monoblast e) myeloblast 52. Which of the following formed elements found in the blood are derived from reticulocytes? a) platelets b) erythrocytes c) T lymphocytes d) monocytes e) basophils 53. Which of the following precursor cells give rise to agranular leukocytes? a) proerythroblast b) megakaryoblast c) lymphoblast d) myeloblast e) none of the selections are correct 54. Which of the following precursor cells give rise to granular leukocytes? a) proerythroblast b) megakaryoblast c) lymphoblast d) myeloblast e) none of the selections are correct 55. A high count of which of the WBCs shown in the figure may indicate bacterial infection, stress, or inflammation? - A 56. A high count of which of the WBCs shown in the figure may indicate viral infections? - D&E 57. A high count of which of the WBCs shown in the figure may indicate parasitic infection or autoimmune disease? - B 58. A high count of which of the WBCs shown in the figure may indicate cancer of hypothyroidism? - C 59. A high count of which of the WBCs shown in the figure may indicate fungal infection? - E 60. A low count of which of the WBCs shown in the figure may indicate pregnancy, ovulation, or hyperthyroidism? - C 61. A low count of which of the WBCs shown in the figure may indicate radiation exposure, or systematic lupus erythromatosus? - A 62. Low counts of which two cell types shown in the figure may result from treatment with cortisol? - D&E 63. Serum is a) the same as plasma b) plasma without the clotting factors c) the same as lymph d) formed during the first step in blood clotting e) pulmonary interstitial fluid 64. Reduced vitamin B12 absorption from the small intestine due to reduced intrinsic factor production in the stomach results in condition called a) hemorrhagic anemia b) aplastic anemia c) megaloblastic anemia d) pernicious anemia e) iron deficiency anemia 65. Destruction of red bone marrow due to radiation results in a) hemorrhagic anemia b) aplastic anemia c) megaloblastic anemia d) pernicious anemia e) iron deficiency anemia 66. A condition in which inadequate intake of vitamin B12 or folic acid causes production of large abnormal RBCs is called a) hemorrhagic anemia b) aplastic anemia c) megaloblastic anemia d) pernicious anemia e) iron deficiency anemia 67. Anemia is defined as a) a condition where blood does not clot properly. b) a condition where blood cells are lysed by the immune response. c) a condition where there is excessive bleeding. d) a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced. e) none of these choices. 68. List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel. - 1) vascular spasms occurs when circularly arranged smooth muscles in arteriole walls contract to reduce blood loss. 2) platelet plug formation starts when platelets making contact with collagen fibers from a damaged vessel. This will initiate a series of reactions, which leads to platelet activation and the release of their vesicular content that ultimately attracts more platelets to the area, eventually leading to the formation of a plus over the damaged area. 3) Blood clotting involves a cascade of enzymatic reactions following platelet plug formation. The clot enables the damaged vessel to heal and repair properly. 69. The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is a) 4 to 5 years b) 4 to 5 hours c) 5 to 9 days d) 120 days e) 120 weeks 70. Which of the following are characteristics of BOTH erythrocytes and thrombocytes? a) no nucleus b) large segmented nucleus c) cytoplasmic granules d) lifespan of 5 to 9 days e) develop from myeloblasts f) more than one answers selection is correct 71. Which of the following formed elements in blood are removed by fixed macrophages in the spleen and liver after only 5 to 9 days in the circulation? a) erythrocytes b) thrombocytes c) monocytes d) basophils e) eosinophils 72. A cord-blood transplant involves obtaining stem cells to transplant into the diseased patient from a) the spermatic cord of a donor's testes b) the spinal cord of the patient c) the umbilical cord of a donor shortly after birth d) the irradiated bone marrow of the patient e) the spinal cord of an aborted fetus 73. If type A blood is infused into a patient with type O blood, which of the following adverse reactions would you expect to observe in the patient? a) agglutination (clumping) of the transfused blood cells. b) complement-induced hemolysis of the transfused blood cells. c) released hemoglobin clogging the filtration membrane of the kidneys. d) more than one of the answer selection is correct. e) no adverse reactions would occur. 74. Which of the following blood types is a person whose blood cells were agglutinated by both anti-A serum and anti-B serum, but not by anti-Rh serum? a) AB negative b) AB positive c) O negative d) O positive e) none of the selections are correct 75. Which of the following terms identifies the anatomical region found between the lungs that extends from the sternum to the vertebral column and from the first rib to the diaphragm? a. epicardium b. abdominal cavity c. pericardium d. mediastinum e. thoracic cavity 76. The membrane that surrounds and protects the heart is called the a. pericardium b. pleura c. myocardium d. mediastinum e. endocardium 77. the apex of the heart is normally pointed a. at the midline b. to the left of the midline c. to the right of the midline d. is different for males and females e. posteriorly 78. the outermost layer of the pericardium, which consists of inelastic dense irregular connective tissue, is called the a. parietal layer of the pericardium b. serous pericardium c. fibrous pericardium d. epicardium e. endocardium 79. which of the following is used to reduce friction between the layers of membranes surround the heart? a. synovial fluid b. endocardium c. pleural fluid d. pericardial fluid e. capillary endothelium 80. which layer of the heart wall consists of mesothelium and connective tissue? a. epicardium b. myocardium c. endocardium d. fibrous pericardium e. none of the above 81. which layer of the heart wall consists of cardiac muscle tissue? a. epicardium b. pericardium c. myocardium d. endocardium e. hypocardium 82. identify the pouch-like structure that increases the total filling capacity of the atrium a. ventricle b. coronary sulcus c. fossa ovalis d. interatrial septum e. auricle 83. identify the groove found on the surface of the heart and marks the boundary between the right and left ventricles a. coronary sulcus b. anterior interventricular sulcus c. posterior interventricular sulcus d. coronary sinus e. anterior intraventricular sulcus 84. identify the muscular ridges that are found on the anterior wall of the right atrium and extend into the auricles. a. pectinate muscles b. traveculae carneae c. coronary sulci d. papillary muscles e. chordae tendinae 85. through which structure does blood pass from the right atrium to the right ventricle? a. bicuspid valve b. interventricular septum c. tricuspid valve d. mitral valve e. ascending aorta 86. what type of tissue comprises the valves of the heart? a. dense connective tissue b. areolar connective tissue c. hyaline cartilage d. cardiac muscle tissue e. adipose tissue 87. blood leaving the left ventricle passes through which of the following structures? a. right atrium b. interventricular septum c. bicuspid valve d. aortic semilunar valve e. pulmonary semilunar valve 88. identify the structure found in a fetus that allows blood to flow directly from the pulmonary trunk into the aorta a. fossa ovalis b. foramen ovale c. trabeculae carneae d. descending aorta e. ductus arteriosus 89. why is the myocardium of the left ventricle thicker than the myocardium of the right ventricle? - the left ventricle muscular wall is thicker than the right ventricle because it has to generate higher pressure to overcome the greater resistance of the longer systemic circulation route versus the shorter pulmonary circulation route. 90. contraction of the ventricles of the heart leads to blood moving directly a. into arteries b. into capillaries c. into veins d. through an atrioventricular valve e. through the apex 91. contraction of the atria of the heart leads to blood moving directly a. tricuspid valve b. bicuspid valve c. pulmonary semilunar valve d. aortic semilunar valve e. mitral valve 92. explain how the heart pumps blood into two separate closed circuits that are arranged in series. - the two circuits are the pulmonary and systemic circuits. venous blood from the systemic circulation enters the right atrium. the blood moves from the right atrium into the right ventricle of the heart, which pumps blood through the pulmonary circuit eventually filling the left atrium. the blood moves from the left atrium into the left ventricle of the heart, which pumps blood through the systemic circuit back into the right atrium. 93. what of the following chambers of the heart contain deoxygenated blood? a. left atrium and left ventricle b. left atrium c. right atrium and right ventricle d. right ventricle only e. left atrium and right ventricle 94. which of the following blood vessels is used to distribute oxygenated blood to the myocardium? a. coronary artery b. coronary vein c. coronary sinus d. vena cava e. myocardial vein 95. cardiac muscle fibers are electrically connected to neighboring fibers by a. desmosomes b. tight junctions c. gap junctions d. interneurons e. chordae tendinae 96. which of the following type of muscle contains the largest number of mitochondria per cell? a. smooth muscle b. skeletal muscle c. cardiac muscle d. all the muscle types contain approximately the same number e. mitochondria are not found in muscle cells 97. briefly describe why cardiac tissue cannot repair itself after damage - cardiac muscle lacks stem cells and mature cardiac muscle fibers cannot go through mitosis. 98. which network of specialized cardiac muscle fibers provide a path for each cycle of cardiac excitation to progress through the heart? a. systemic circuit b. intercalated discs c. cardiovascular center d. cardiac conduction system e. pulmonary circuit 99. which of the following correctly lists the sequence of structures that a cardiac action potential follows in order to excite normal contraction of the heart? a. bundle of his, purkinje fibers, atrioventricular (AV) node. b. sinoatrial (SA) node, purkinje fibers, AV node, bundle of his. c. purkinje fibers, AV node, SA node, bundle of his. d. SA node, AV node, bundle of his, purkinje fibers. e. bundle of his, SA node, AV node, purkinje fibers. 100. in comparison to skeletal muscle fibers, the contractile fibers of the heart are depolarized for ____ period of time. a. a shorter b. a longer c. the same 101. the volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta each minute is called the a. cardiac output b. cardiac input c. stroke volume d. heart rate e. pulse pressure 102. which term refers to the period of time during a cardiac cycle when contraction of a chamber occurs and pressure within the chamber rises? a. filling b. systole c. repolarization d. diastole e. fibrillation 103. during which of the following periods does the largest volume of blood enter the arteries? a. atrial diastole b. ventricular diastole c. atrial systole d. ventricular systole 104. the second heart sound (dupp) closely follows which of the events listed below? a. valvular stenosis b. semilunar valves opening c. atrioventricular valves closing d. semilunar valves closing e. atrioventricular valves opening 105. which structure in the heart initiates action potentials that stimulate contraction of the heart at constant rate of about 100 beats per minute? a. cardiac accelerator nerves b. atrioventricular node c. cardiovascular center d. sinoatrial node e. bundle of his 106. stimulation of which nerve reduces heart rate? a. cardiac accelerator nerve b. hypoglossal nerve c. spinal accessory d. vagus nerve e. phrenic nerve 107. which of the following would lead to a decreased heart rate? a. increased norepinephrine release b. increased thyroid hormone release c. increased potassium levels in plasma d. increased calcium levels in plasma e. increased sympathetic stimulation 108. which part of the brain contains the cardiovascular center that regulates heart rate? a. midbrain b. cerebrum c. medulla oblongata d. cerebellum e. thalamus 109. which wave in an electrocardiogram represents repolarization of the ventricles? a. R wave b. T wave c. S wave d. P wave e. Q wave 110. Which of the following selections lists conditions that would lead to increased stroke volume? a. increased preload, increased afterload, increased contractility. b. decreased preload, decreased afterload, decreased contractility. c. increased preload, decreased afterload, increased contractility. d. decreased preload, increased afterload, increased contractility. e. increased preload, increased afterload, decreased contractility. 111. which of the following electrocardiogram (EKG) waves represents atrial depolarization? a. R wave b. T wave c. S wave d. P wave e. Q wave 112. which portion of the heart wall is responsible for the pumping action? - I 113. in the diagram, where are the trabeculae carneae? - G 114. in the diagram, where is the left auricle of the left atrium? - G 115. right atrium - blue fibers 116. in the diagram, which labeled structure is the pulmonary semilunar valve? - A 117. in the diagram, which labeled structures are atrioventricular valves? - B and D 118. describe what is happening during the phase of the cardiac action potential labeled 2 in the diagram. - phase 2 is the plateau phase which occurs due to opening of slow voltage-gated calcium channels, which allow continued inflow of Ca2+ from ICF into the cytosol. this continuous inflow of Ca2+ causes sustained depolarization of the cardiac muscle cells. 119. briefly describe what is happening at stage of the ECG labeled 5 in the diagram. - the contractile fibers of the ventricles are repolarizing, which generates the T waves in the ECG. 120. which phases of a heartbeat shown in the diagram involve repolarization of the heart's four chambers? - 3 & 5 121. which of the labeled diagrams shows coarctation of the aorta? - A 122. which of the labeled diagrams shows an atrial septal defect? - C 123. which of the labeled steps in the diagram represent formation of the primitive heart tube? - C 124. which of the labeled steps in the diagram represent formation of the endocardial tubes? - B 125. which blood vessel shown in the figure carries oxygenated blood to the lower thoracic cavity and the abdominal cavity of the body? - F 126. which labeled structure shown in the diagram is a remnant of fetal circulation that is not directly involved in adult circulation? - D 127. which labeled blood vessel in the diagram is an artery carrying deoxygenated blood? - E 128. which labeled blood vessel shown in the diagram is the left common carotid artery? - A 129. which labeled structure shown in the diagram is a pouch-like extension that serves to slightly increase the capacity of an atrium? - G 130. what labeled structure in the figure is the ligamentum arteriosum? - D 131. what labeled structure in the figure increases the blood volume capacity of an atrium? - G 132. which structure in the figure is labeled B? - left subclavian artery 133. which structure in the figure is labeled A? - left common carotid artery 134. which labeled structure in the figure acts as the natural pacemaker of the heart? - A 135. which labeled structure in the figure is the AV node? - B 136. which labeled structure in the figure represents the only potential pathway for conducting action potentials from the atria to the ventricles? - C 137. which labeled structure in the figure carries the cardiac action potential directly into the contractile fibers of the ventricular myocardium? - E 138. discuss the common nutrient sources used by cardiac muscle to produce ATP in a resting individual. - at rest, the heart relies exclusively on aerobic cellular respiration. at rest, the heart's ATP comes mainly from oxidation of fatty acids (60%), and glucose (35%) with smaller contributions from lactic acid, amino acids, and ketone bodies. 139. define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias. - the term arrhythmia or dysrhythmia refers to an abnormal rhythm as a result of a defect in the conduction system of the heart. arrhythmias are categorized by their speed, rhythm, and origination of the problem. bradycardia refers to a slow heart rate (below 50 bpm); tachycardia refers to a rapid heart rate (over 100 bpm); and fibrillation refers to rapid, uncoordinated heartbeats. Arrhythmias that originate in the atria are called supraventricular or atrial arrhythmias; those that originate in the ventricles are called ventricular arrhythmias. 140. cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected from the ___ ventricle into the ___ each minute. a. left, aorta b. right, aorta c. left or right, aorta or pulmonary trunk d. right, pulmonary trunk e. both left and right aorta are correct 141. the difference between a person's maximum cardiac output and resting cardiac output is called the a. stroke volume b. peripheral resistance c. afterload d. cardiac reserve e. venous return 142. what is the function of the foramen ovule during fetal life? a. allowing blood to flow directly from the right atrium into the left atrium. b. allow blood to flow directly from the right ventricle into the left ventricle. c. serves as a valve in the vena cava to regulate venous blood flow. d. prevents back flow of blood from aorta into the left ventricle. e. prevents back flow of blood from pulmonary trunk into the right ventricle. 143. isovolumetric contraction is the phase of the cardiac cycle in which a. the semilunar valves are open. b. ventricular repolarization occurs. c. atrial depolarization occurs. d. oxygenated blood leaves the heart into the systemic circulation. e. ventricular pressure increases and ventricular volume remains the same. 144. which of the following chambers of the heart is surrounded by the thickest layer of myocardium? a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle e. right auricle 145. heart murmurs are often heard in individuals with abnormalities in the ___ of the heart. a. valves b. myocardium c. SA node d. AV node e. endocardium 146. in comparison to a sedentary individual, a well-trained athlete will usually have all the following characteristics EXCEPT a. a higher cardiac reserve b. a higher resting cardiac output c. a higher stroke volume d. hypertrophy of the heart e. resting bradycardia 147. during heart transplants, the ___ nerves are severed resulting in faster resting heart rate (approximately 100 bpm) after the transplant. a. glossopharyngeal b. cardiac accelerator c. vagus d. phrenic e. cervical spinal 148. a corrective cardiac procedure in which a large piece of a patient's own latissimus dorsi muscle is wrapped around the heart and stimulated by an implanted pacemaker to assist the pumping action of a damaged heart. a. myocardiac infarction b. tetrology of Fallot c. cardiomyopathy d. cardiomegaly e. cardiomyoplasty 149. which of the following blood vessels carries blood away from the heart to other organs? a. arteries b. capillaries c. venules d. arterioles e. veins 150. which of the following blood vessels carries blood from the tissues back to the heart? a. arteries b. arterioles c. aorta d. veins e. capillaries 151. which layer of the arterial wall is responsible for vasoconstriction? a. tunica interna b. tunica media c. tunica externa d. tunica albuginea e. tunica fascia 152. which layer of the arterial wall is primarily composed of elastic and collagen fibers? a. tunica interna b. tunica media c. tunica externa d. tunica albuginea e. tunica fascia 153. when an artery or arteriole is damaged, its smooth muscle layer contracts producing a. tear in the vessel b. new vessel branching off the artery or arteriole c. a vascular spasm d. tetanus e. increased blood flow to the damaged vessel 154. elastic arteries function as a. vasodilators b. conduits to the tissues of the trunk only c. barriers to microcirculation d. pressure reservoirs e. vasoconstrictors 155. in resting individuals, which vessels serve as a large blood reservoir from which blood can be quickly diverted to other vessels as needed? a. arteries and arterioles b. arterioles and capillaries c. venules and capillaries d. veins and venules e. aorta and veins 156. which type of blood vessel plays a key role in regulating blood flow into capillaries? a. arteries b. arterioles c. venules d. veins e. aorta 157. which of the following structures are found in veins but NOT in arteries? a. tunica externa b. tunica media c. tunica interna d. valve e. lumen 158. capillaries are also referred to as a. exchange vessels b. vasoconstrictors c. vasodilators d. pressure reservoirs e. distributing vessels 159. which of the following is the most important method of capillary exchange? a. diffusion b. transcytosis c. bulk flow d. primary active transport e. secondary active transport 160. which of the following structures is used to control the flow of blood through a capillary bed? a. thoroughfare channels b. precapillary sphincters c. postcapillary sphincters d. venules e. valves in veins 161. which of the following types of tissues contains continuous capillaries? a. skeletal muscle b. smooth muscle c. connective tissue d. lungs e. all of the above 162. the alternate route of blood flow to a body part through an anastomosis is called a. a thoroughfare channel b. a blood reservoir c. a detour route d. collateral circulation e. microcirculation 163. the largest driving force for pulling fluid from the interstitial spaces back into capillaries is a. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure b. interstitial fluid osmotic pressure c. blood colloid osmotic pressure d. blood hydrostatic pressure e. glomerular hydrostatic pressure 164. the pressure-driven movement of fluids and solutes from blood into interstitial fluid is called a. reabsorption b. filtration c. bulk flow d. osmosis e. transcytosis 165. the volume of blood that circulates through the systemic (or pulmonary) blood vessels per minute is called a. stroke volume b. tidal volume c. cardiac output d. cardiac reserve e. total peripheral resistance 166. cardiac output is dependent on both a. heart rate and stroke volume b. stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance c. heart rate and systemic vascular resistance d. blood type and stroke volume e. blood pressure and heart rate 167. which of the following would NOT result in an increase in arterial blood pressure? a. increased blood volume b. increased sympathetic stimulation c. increased heart rate d. increased stroke volume e. increased arteriolar vasodilation 168. which of the following would NOT result in an increase in systemic vascular resistance? a. decreased diameter of systemic arterioles b. increased blood viscosity c. decreased length of the systemic circulatory route d. increased vasoconstriction of systemic arterioles e. increased RBC count 169. which of the following characteristics of blood depends mostly on the ratio of RBCs to plasma volume? a. total blood volume b. blood viscosity c. venous return d. clotting time e. immunoglobulin profile 170. which of the following is NOT a contribution of the cardiovascular system to other body systems? a. blood delivers clotting factors and WBCs that aid in hemostasis when skin is damaged. b. blood delivers calcium and phosphate ions that are needed for building bone extracellular matrix. c. blood carries carbon dioxide to body tissues and removes oxygen for use by other organs. d. blood carries newly absorbed nutrients and water to the liver. e. blood circulates cells and chemicals that carry out immune functions. 171. the cardiovascular center is located in the a. thoracic cavity b. cerebral cortex c. cerebellum d. medulla oblongata e. hypothalamus 172. all of the following aid in venous return of blood to heart EXCEPT a. the skeletal muscle pump b. the respiratory pump c. blood viscosity d. venoconstriction e. venous valves 173. which of the following would be a normal response of the cardiovascular system to a decreased frequency of action potentials arising from the baroreceptors? a. increased systemic vascular resistance b. increased parasympathetic stimulation c. decreased heart rate d. decreased stroke volume e. decreased cardiac output 174. which of the following hormones would NOT stimulate changes that lead to an increase in arterial blood pressure? a. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) b. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c. aldosterone d. angiotensin e. epinephrine 175. when chemoreceptors in blood vessels detect high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, they stimulate all of the following changes EXCEPT a. increased vasoconstriction of arterioles b. increased blood pressure c. decreased respiratory rate d. increased sympathetic stimulation of arterioles and veins e. increased vasoconstriction of veins 176. the myogenic response of smooth muscle results in a. more forceful contractions when stretched b. more forceful contractions when relaxed c. tetany d. relaxation of smooth muscle when stretched e. formation of new desmosomes 177. in which of the following types of blood vessels is blood pressure NOT pulsing? 1. arteries 2. capillaries 3. arterioles 4. venules a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. both 2 and 4 178. abnormal conditions such as atherosclerosis and patent ductus arteriosus cause a large increase in the a. blood colloid osmotic pressure b. central venous pressure c. pulse pressure d. venular hydrostatic pressure e. capillary hydrostatic pressure 179. this type of shock is due to decreased blood volume a. hypovolemic b. cardiogenic c. vascular d. obstructive e. neurogenic 180. which of the labeled layers in the diagram of the arterial wall consists mainly of elastic fibers and smooth muscle fibers? - B 181. which of the labeled layers in the diagram of the arterial wall is composed of a simple squamous epithelium, a basement membrane and a layer of elastic tissue? - A 182. which labeled structure in the figure is a metarteriole? - B 183. which labeled structure in the figure is a capillary? - D 184. which labeled structure in the figure is precapillary sphincter? - C 185. which of the capillaries shown in the figure has an incomplete or absent basement membrane? - C 186. which of the types of capillaries shown in the figure is commonly found in the kidneys, villi of the small intestine, choroid plexuses, and some endocrine glands? - B 187. what physiological process is depicted in this figure? - skeletal muscle pump 188. what do following arteries have in common: superficial temporal artery, brachial artery and common carotid artery? a. they are all areas where Korotkoff sounds cannot be heard. b. they are all only found on the left side of the body. c. they are all common pulse points. d. they all contain baroreceptors. e. they all deliver blood to structures in the head. 189. which of the following would NOT occur in response to hypovolemic shock? a. activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) system. b. secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). c. activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS. d. release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). e. release of local vasodilators 190. all the veins of the systemic circulation eventually drain into the a. superior vena cava b. inferior vena cava c. coronary sinus d. superior and inferior vena cava e. superior and inferior vena cava and coronary sinus 191. the pulmonary trunk divides into a. brachiocephalic trunk and left subclavian artery b. right and left subclavian arteries c. right and left pulmonary veins d. right and left pulmonary arteries e. right and left common carotid arteries 192. in fetal circulation, what is the opening between the right and left atria called? a. ductus venousus b. umbilicus c. fossa ovalis d. foramen ovale e. ductus arteriosus 193. which of the following vessels is a pulse point found at the wrist? a. radial artery b. subclavian artery c. axillary artery d. cephalic artery e. palmar artery 194. which of the following vessels supplies blood to the intestine? a. radial artery b. subclavian artery c. mesenteric artery d. coronary artery e. popliteal artery 195. which of the following vessels supplies blood to the kidneys? a. hepatic artery b. renal artery c. mesenteric artery d. coronary artery e. popliteal artery 196. which of the following vessels drains blood from the lower leg? a. jugular vein b. superior vena cava c. tibial vein d. coronary vein e. inferior mesenteric vein 197. which of the following vessels drains blood from the head and neck? a. median cubital vein b. inferior vena cava c. axillary vein d. femoral vein e. jugular vein 198. which of the following vessels carries the venous blood from the lower body into the right atrium? a. inferior vena cava b. superior vena cava c. tibial vein d. coronary vein e. iliac vein 199. when the umbilical cord is tied after birth, the umbilical arteries close by filling in with a. placental fluid b. platelet plugs c. connective tissue d. smooth muscle e. epithelial tissue 200. which vessel in the figure is labeled "B"? - right subclavian artery 201. which vessel in the figure is labeled "A"? - right common carotid artery 202. which vessel in the figure is labeled "B"? - left femoral vein 203. which vessel in the figure is labeled "C"? - left great saphenous vein 204. which vessel in the figure is labeled "F"? - left anterior tibial vein 205. which vessel in the figure is labeled "C'? - left gonadal vein 206. which vessel in the figure is labeled "D"? - right renal vein 207. which vessel in the figure is labeled "G"? - azygos vein 208. during embryonic development, blood vessels are formed by a. endodermal cells b. pluripotent stem cells c. angioblasts d. fibroblasts e. osteoblasts 209. during embryonic development, blood cells are formed from a. endodermal cells b. pluripotent stem cells c. angioblasts d. fibroblasts e. osteoblasts 210. normal blood pressure for a young adult male is a. 120/80 b. 130/90 c. 80/120 d. 100/80 e. 150/85 211. which of the following types of blood vessels have high pulsing blood pressure? a. arterioles b. capillaries c. venules d. veins e. vena cava 212. what would the pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure be for an individual with a blood pressure of 120/80? a. 40;100 b. 40;93.3 c. 40;103.3 d. 200;100 e. 100;200 213. which of the following effectors would NOT be activated as described below in response to hypovolemic shock? a. adrenal cortex released aldosterone b. kidneys conserve salt and water c. heart rate increases d. systemic arterioles vasodilate e. heart contractility increases 214. the pulmonary circulatory route carries blood from the a. right atrium to the right ventricle b. right ventricle to the left atrium c. left atrium to the left ventricle d. left ventricle to the right atrium e. left ventricle to the coronary sinus 215. all of the following changes are commonly observed in the cardiovascular system in response to aging EXCEPT a. decreased cardiac output b. increased compliance of the aorta c. loss of cardiac muscle strength d. decline in maximum heart rate e. increased systolic blood pressure 216. which of the following categories would an individual with a blood pressure of 145/95 be placed in? a. normal b. high normal c. prehypertension d. stage 1 hypertension e. stage 2 hypertension 217. which of the following categories of hypertension drugs lower blood pressure by blocking formation of angiotensin II, which results in vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion? a. diuretics b. ACE inhibitors c. beta blockers d. calcium channel blockers e. anabolic steroids [Show More]

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