AAMA Prep Test - 758 Questions & Answers, all verified correct. 715. Patients with irritable bowel syndrome will experience which of the following symptoms? a. Diarrhea b. Flatulence c. Consti... pation d. Patients can experience a variety of symptoms that can include all of the above. 716. Diabetic patients are monitored by using which of the following tests? a. KUB b. Troponin c. Fe++ d. HbA1C 717. Patients diagnosed with hypertension are given a medication called hydrochlorothiazide. How does this medication work to treat hypertension? a. It reduces the amount of red blood cells in the bone marrow. b. It allows muscles to contract more forcefully. c. It increases urination. d. None of the above. 718. Psoriasis: a. may be treated with phenytoin. b. is a skin condition involving flaky or oozing patches of skin. c. is most commonly found on the backs of the legs. d. None of the above. 719. Patients who have anxiety: a. are treated episodically. b. are treated prophylactically. c. may be treated with citalopram. d. All of the above. 720. Skin nodules, such as nevi: a. may become malignant. b. should be seen by a physician, even if not suspicious. c. are graded using an acronym, "ABCDE." d. All of the above. 721. Strep throat: a. is not contagious. b. can lead to rheumatic fever. c. is caused by the bacteria Streptobacillus pyogenes. d. All of the above. 722. Patients with epistaxis: a. should tilt the head forward, not backward. b. should be taken to the emergency room regardless of the severity. c. should be treated with aspirin therapy to reduce the severity. d. All of the above. 723. A patient with a verruca (Choose the BEST answer.) a. is infected with the HCV virus. b. can be treated with an OTC medication. c. is not contagious. d. None of the above. 724. Aspirin: a. can be safely given to infants and children. b. is taken by patients daily in high dose form to prevent heart attacks. c. has a side effect of being an anticoagulant. d. All of the above. 725. Cystic fibrosis is a(n): a. autoimmune disease. b. condition that can be tested by monitoring the chloride levels of the patient's sweat. c. disease that can be cured with medications and intensive therapy. d. All of the above. 726. Patients with HIV : a. also have AIDS. b. can spread the disease by casual contact. c. have engaged in homosexual activity at some point in their lives. d. can live for many years by taking antiviral medications and practicing a healthy lifestyle. 727. To treat a cold: a. see a doctor for an antibiotic prescription. b. use palliative treatment options. c. take in many more calories than usual as in, "Feed a cold; starve a fever." d. All of the above. 728. The procedure used to remove the gall bladder is called: a. Cholecystectomy b. Cholelithiasis c. Colectomy d. Cystorrhaphy 729. Although not present with all migraines, which of the following is a symptom of migraine? a. Increased sensitivity to light, sound, and/or smell. b. Aura c. Nausea with or without vomiting d. All of the above. 730. Testing for preeclampsia is done: a. on toddlers who have seizures. b. on the elderly with syncope. c. on preteens with epistaxis. d. on pregnant women. 731. Patients with pancytopenia: a. have an increased risk of hemorrhage. b. have an increased risk of developing infection. c. may be anemic. d. All of the above. 732. A patient presents to the office with chief complaint of RLQ pain. Which of the following pathologies would be MOST likely possible? a. Appendicitis b. Gall stones c. Splenomegaly d. Pancreatitis 733. Patients who have diets deficient in calcium will have which of the following symptoms? a. Bruising b. Osteopenia c. Kyphosis d. All of the above. 734. The most commonly abused drug in children under 18 is: a. Alcohol b. Marijuana c. Crack d. Cocaine 735. A 17 year old patient was brought to the clinic because of bruises and hematoma. There was no history of trauma, accident or injury. The patient's history is positive for blood disease. If the patient has a vitamin deficiency related to the blood, in which vitamin is she deficient? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin E c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin B 736. Which diet helps in preventing constipation? a. High fiber b. Low residue c. Low fiber d. Bland 737. Scurvy is caused by what vitamin deficiency: a. Vitamin K b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C 738. This vitamin helps the skin, nails, hair and sharpens the vision: a. Iron b. Folic acid c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin E 739. The substance in the body that is needed for energy: a. Protein b. Fat c. Carbohydrate d. Minerals 740. If the patient's BMI is 27, what would be the classification of the patient? a. Overweight b. Underweight c. Normal weight d. Obese 741. What vitamin deficiency will lead to night blindness? a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C 742. Osteomalacia is caused by a deficiency of: a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C 743. Mrs. Nagal is 6 weeks pregnant. She has a family history of congenital birth defects. She is concerned about neurological diseases during pregnancy. Which vitamin is used in pregnancy to prevent her baby from having Spina Bifida? a. Folic acid b. Iron c. Ascorbic acid d. Magnesium 744. A 42 year old male came to the clinic complaining of twitching of the muscles. Sometimes the patient involuntary jerks for no reason. He said he started experiencing the twitches after he started water therapy and started to urinate frequently. Which mineral most likely is the culprit for his twitching? a. Manganese b. Magnesium c. Copper d. Zinc 745. An early childhood disease caused by deficiency in calcium, vitamin D, and phosphate: a. Hallux valgus b. Osteomalacia c. Rickets d. Kyphosis 746. What is the most common cause of hepatitis? a. Syphilis b. Drugs c. The human immunodeficiency virus d. Viruses 747. Mr. Phillips comes to your clinic with his 4-year-old son. The child has been telling his parents that his ears hurt and he has not felt well for a few days. What is most likely to be his diagnosis? a. Otitis externa b. Ishihara disease c. Tinnitus d. Otitis media 748. Mr. Martinez is a 75-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with hardening of the arteries. What term will the physician use in the documentation? a. Arteriosclerosis b. Aneurysm c. Varicose veins d. Atherosclerosis 749. A 47-year-old chronic alcoholic male was admitted because he is not oriented to time and place. He also has memory loss, unsteady gait and numbness. Which vitamin is most likely the culprit? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin B1 d. Vitamin K 750. A 25 year old vegan patient was brought to the clinic because of fatigue. The patient was diagnosed with anemia. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies can cause this disease? a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin B6 c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin B3 751. A patient complained of chest pain, diaphoresis and anxiety. The patient was diagnosed with Coronary Artery Disease. The lipid that is most likely linked to it is: a. LDL b. HDL c. Polyunsaturated fats d. Triglycerides 752. A patient was brought to the emergency room because of sudden sharp pain and swelling of the big toe. The patient has a history of gout. What is the recommended diet for this patient? a. Low salt b. Low sugar c. Less meat d. High fiber 753. A patient was complaining of weakness, fatigue, constipation and muscle cramping. Blood tests reveal hypokalemia. What is the treatment for this condition? a. Iron b. Calcium c. Potassium d. Transfusion 754. As food goes down through the digestive tract, nutrients are transferred to the blood stream. This process is referred as: a. Digestion b. Ingestion c. Metabolism d. Absorption 755. If the patient ingested 10 grams of fat, how much calories did he actually eat? a. 40 b. 70 c. 80 d. 90 756. Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin? a. Cyanocobalamin b. Niacin c. Retinoic acid d. Folic acid 757. The nutrient that builds and repairs body tissues: a. Glucose b. Vitamins c. Proteins d. Minerals 758. Which of the following is not considered a mineral? a. Iodine b. Riboflavin c. Magnesium d. Zinc 642. Category A drugs include those that: (Choose the BEST answer.) a. can be safely taken during all three trimesters of pregnancy according to results from adequate and controlled animal and human studies. b. have been proven to be dangerous when taken during all three trimesters of pregnancy according to results from adequate and controlled animal and human studies. c. have a high potential for abuse. d. have a low potential for abuse. 643. Drug schedules: a. relate to controlled substances. b. are based on the potential for abuse. c. are scheduled in five categories with Schedule I being the most dangerous. d. All of the above. 644. If a doctor's order calls for the administration of 500 mg of medication, how many grams should be given? a. 500 b. 50 c. 0.5 d. 5 645. Which of the following medications would be given to treat vomiting? a. Simvistatin b. Acetaminophen c. Lisinopril d. Promethazine 646. A patient has been diagnosed with an irregular heartbeat. Which of the following medications would be prescribed to treat this condition? a. Antiarrhythmic b. Antipsychotic c. Cathartic d. Antiseptic 647. Which of the following drugs would be used to treat GERD? a. Claritin b. Nexium c. Nuprin d. Celebrex 648. Of the following medications, which is not used to treat depression? a. sertraline hydrochloride b. paroxetine hydrochloride c. Citalopram d. Nifedipine 649. Which of the following formulas would correctly solve a dosage calculation problem? a. (Ordered dosage/ Dosage On hand) * Amount of Drug = Dosage to be given b. (Dosage on hand/ Ordered dosage) * Amount of Drug = Dosage to be given c. (Amount of Drug/ Ordered dosage) * Dosage on hand = Dosage to be given d. None of the above are correct. 650. Which of the following agencies would be responsible for monitoring the use of controlled substances? a. CDC b. DEA c. AMA d. FDA 651. A medical assistant is going to give a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following is TRUE concerning this procedure? a. No more than 2 ml of medication should be injected using the subq method. b. The angle of the needle should be 90 degrees. c. The injection can be given in the antecubital space. d. The needle length should be greater than one inch. 652. Complete the following analogy: The smaller the lumen of a needle, a. the larger the opening of the needle. b. the larger the gauge of the needle. c. the more pain that is produced from the injection. d. the more medication that can be administered at once. 653. A doctor's order is written to give a patient a medication using a non-parenteral route. Which of the following is a non-parenteral route of medication administration? a. Rectal Suppository b. Intracardiac c. IV drip d. IM injection 654. A patient is morbidly obese. Which of the following needles would be best to give an IM injection in the deltoid? a. 25 gauge 5/8 inch b. 27 gauge 1/2 inch c. 21 gauge needle 1 1/2 inches d. 16 gauge needle 3 inch 655. When giving an injection of insulin, which of the following is TRUE? a. The deltoid muscle is the preferred injection site for insulin. b. The angle of the needle should be 90 degrees. c. The site should not be massaged after medication administration. d. All of the above are true. 656. When giving a patient eye drops, a. the proper medical term for this procedure is, "Instillation." b. Pull the lower eye lid down and place the drops in the conjuctival space. c. Allow the patient to blink a few times after administration to help distribute the medication. d. All of the above. 657. Buccal administration of medications: a. should be done under the tongue. b. are done to allow controlled dosing through the mucosa. c. are best to use in small children. d. All of the above. 658. ID injections are used for which of the following procedures? a. Allergy testing b. TB testing c. Drug sensitivity testing d. All of the above. 659. A medical assistant is applying a transdermal patch. Which of the following procedures should the MA use and why? (Choose the BEST answer.) a. The MA should use gloves to protect herself from getting the medication on her hands when applying the patch. b. The MA should tell the patient to change the patch as many times as necessary if it appears to be falling off. c. The MA should place the patch in an area that the patient cannot reach to avoid the temptation for the patient to pick at the patch and have it fall off. d. The MA should instruct the patient to contact the office each time the patch is changes. 660. A doctor orders 50 mg of a medication. The available dose is 5 mg/2 ml. How much medication should be given to the patient? a. 20 mg b. 5 ml c. 20 ml d. 10 ml 661. Clark's Rule: a. is based on BSA. b. uses the child's weight and height. c. uses a nomogram. d. uses a child's weight and assumes the child's weight and height are in proportion. 662. This is the part of the prescription form that indicates the names and quantities of ingredients to be included in the medication. a. Inscription b. Superscription c. Subscription d. Rx 663. To ensure that verbal orders for medications are recorded accurately, a. the medical assistant should read the order back to the physician. b. the medical assistant should ask for clarification on any misunderstood information. c. the medical assistant should write down the order exactly as written. d. All of the above. 664. If a medication order states that 300 mg of medication are to be given q.i.d. for 10 days, how many total milligrams of medication will be given over those 10 days? a. 3000 mg b. 9000 mg c. 12000 mg d. None of the above. 665. A doctor orders 500 mg of medication. Available in stock are one gram tablets. How many tablets should be given to the patient? a. One b. Two c. One half d. Three quarters 666. To most accurately measure medication, a. Use a syringe that is closest in volume to the amount of medication needed. b. Read oral medication volume that is poured into a small measuring cup at eye level. c. Double check the order for accuracy. d. All of the above. 667. The form of a drug when a drug is sweetened and flavored but is thinner than syrup: a. elixir b. liniment c. spirits d. tincture 668. The study of harmful substances or "poisons" is classified as: a. Pharcodynamics b. Pharmacopoisonology c. Toxicology d. Pharmacotherapeutics 669. When a drug is used externally with massage to produce the feeling of heat to the area, the form of drug is: a. liniment b. elixir c. lotion d. solution 670. The classification of drugs that prevent or stop the patient from further bleeding are: a. anticoagulants b. diuretics c. hemostatics d. antiarrhythmics 671. Which of the following is NOT included in the 6 rights of drug administration? e. right dose a. right time b. right route c. right doctor 672. How a drug is processed and cleared in the body is referred to as: a. metabolism b. antagonism c. distribution d. synergism 673. The prefix "centi" means: a. one hundredth of a unit b. one thousandth of a unit c. one millionth of a unit d. one tenth of a unit 674. The part of the prescription that tells you if the drug can be replaced by the pharmacist: a. Repetatur b. Dispense As Written (D.A.W.) c. Subscription d. Signature 675. This injection technique or route of administration is performed at an angle of 90 degrees: a. subcutaneous injection b. intravenous injection c. intramuscular injection d. intradermal injection 676. If the medication is supposed to be given q6, how many times will you give the medication to the patient in a day? a. 4 b. 5 c. 3 d. 6 677. The prescription signature: "ss tab TID x 14 d" means: a. 1/2 tablet three times a day for 14 days b. 1/2 tablet every 3 hours for 14 days c. 1/2 tablet every 6 hours for 14 days d. 1/2 tablet four times a day for 14 days 678. This injection or route of administration is usually given during PPD: a. subcutaneous injection b. intravenous injection c. Intramuscular injection d. intradermal injection 679. The part of the prescription that gives the refill information: a. Inscription b. D.A.W. c. Signature d. Repetatur 680. The abbreviation "s.o.s" means: a. At night b. Immediately c. If necessary d. By mouth 681. What abbreviation means "drops"? a. s.c. b. p.c. c. h.s. d. gtt 682. A physicians' prescription ordered 120 mg per day of a medication for a patient. The patient is to take one-half the dose in the morning and one-half in the evening. The medication comes only in 30mg tablets. How many tablets will the patient take combined in one day? a. 6 b. 8 c. 4 d. 2 683. Used therapeutically, certain medications reduce anxiety in certain stress disorders, relieve insomnia and aid in pain relief. Which of these would not? e. Depressants a. Barbiturates b. Tranquilizers c. Hallucinogens 684. Medication, when applied to a patch that is affixed to the patient's skin, is called: e. Buccal a. Transdermal b. Topical ointment c. Mantoux test 685. What is another name for a prefilled syringe? a. Flange b. Insulin syringe c. Tuberculin syringe d. Cartridge 686. To calculate doses, what is the pediatric method for calculation based on infants younger than 2 years old? e. Clark's Rule a. Nomogram b. Fried's Rule c. Young's Rule 687. Before you prepare any medication to be administered to a patient, you should: a. Ask the patient how he or she would like to receive the medication b. Ask if the patient is allergic to any medication c. Ascertain the patient's comfort level and ability to receive medication d. Check the medication three times before administering it 688. Your patient has been placed on two different medications. Your patient is not improving and the physician discovered that one drug decreased the effect of the other. What is this drug interaction called? a. Potentiation b. Antagonism c. Side effect d. Pharmacokinetics 689. The study of drug action as it moves in the body: a. Pharmacodynamics b. Pharmacokinetics c. Pharmacology d. Cumulative effect 690. Which of the following is a prophylactic drug? a. Corticosteroids b. Compazine c. Amoxicillin d. Hepatitis B vaccine 691. Your patient is displaying signs and symptoms of chronic anxiety. Which type of drug might be appropriate? a. Diazepam b. Ritalin c. Testosterone d. Amoxicillin 692. Some drugs come from a plant source. An example of one of these drugs would be: a. Humulin b. NSAIDS c. Demerol d. Codeine 693. In terms of the administration of medication, what does "contraindication" mean? a. A condition in which a drug should never be used b. The interaction between two drugs that work together c. Anaphylaxis d. Cumulative effect 694. Any refrigerator or freezer used for vaccine storage must: a. Be a special unit inspected by the National Vaccine Center every year b. Be located in a locked room with no heater vents c. Be dedicated to the storage of only vaccines and medications d. Ensure the maintenance of the cold chain 695. A 5 year old boy has ear infection. He has fever and otalgia. To address his fever, the recommended medication is: a. Antibiotic b. Antipyretic c. Anesthetic d. Anti-anginal 696. The nurse is contemplating if she would request an oral medication or parenteral medication from the physician. What is a disadvantage of the oral route? a. It is easily taken by the patient. b. It is not the fastest absorption route into the blood stream. c. It is considered safest because medications can be retrieved easily than other routes. d. It does not require special devices or equipment. 697. Some medications have special coating to protect them from the acidity of the stomach and that allows them to pass the small intestines for absorption. This is referred to as: a. Slow-release coated medications b. Double-coated medications c. Enteric-coated medications d. Rapid-response medications 698. A lotion is an example of what type of drug administration? a. Parenteral b. Intradermal c. Topical d. Enteral 699. A patient was diagnosed with pneumonia, and is coughing continuously. The doctor advised the patient to take Robitussin. What is the classification of Robitussin? a. Antitussive b. Anti-inflammatory c. Antibiotic d. Analgesic 700. The mother of an 8 year old gave her son Calamine lotion because he was complaining of itchiness. This medication is classified as a(n): a. Adrenergic b. Antiemetic c. Analgesic d. Antipruritic 701. What is the recommended immunization for a baby who was just born? a. Hepatitis B b. Flu shot c. Measles d. Pertussis 702. The vaccine DTaP refers to: a. Diptheria, Tuberculosis, Pertussis vaccine b. Diabetes, Tetanus, Pneumonia c. Diptheria, Tetanus, Pertussis vaccine d. Diabetes, Tuberculosis, Pneumonia vaccine 703. The physician wrote on the prescription "Take Penicillin 1 tablet qid." The abbreviation "qid" means: a. Two times a day b. Three times a day c. Four times a day d. Orally 704. The pharmacist should look for which number on the prescription to determine if the prescriber is licensed to prescribe controlled substances? a. DEA number b. Medical license number c. Prescription number d. PRE number 705. A 52 year old male is requesting a medication for his erectile dysfunction. Which medications would most likely be prescribe by a physician? a. Sildenafil b. Gabepentin c. Azithromycin d. Simvastatin 706. Drugs of abuse such as Heroin, and Cocaine are classified under what drug schedule? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV 707. A patient was rushed to the hospital because of severe high blood pressure. Which route of drug administration is recommended so that the medication given is instantaneous and complete? a. Intradermal b. Intravenous c. Intramuscular d. Intraarterial 708. What drug is contraindicated if the patient has a bleeding disorder? a. Anticoagulants b. Diuretics c. Anticonvulsants d. Antihypertensives 709. The generic drug flouxetine is also known as Prozac. It is indicated for which disorder? a. Erectile dysfunction b. Diabetes c. Schizophrenia d. Depression 710. Which of the following is not a recommended site for IM injections? a. Deltoid b. Abdomen c. Vastus lateralis d. Gluteus Maximus 711. The route of medication administration that goes to the fatty layer is: a. Intramuscular b. Subcutaneous c. Intradermal d. Intralipoid 712. The generic name of both Advil and Motrin is: a. Acetaminophen b. Naproxen c. Ibuprofen d. Amoxicillin 713. A patient was diagnosed with high cholesterol during blood testing. Which of the following drugs is recommended for his condition? a. Prednisone b. Xanax c. Ambien d. Lipitor 714. A 28 year old complains of insomnia after breaking up with her boyfriend of 10 years. She requested a sleeping pill. Which of the following is recommended for her? a. Nexium b. Amoxil c. Ambien d. Allegra 592. A patient is describing a contusion of his arm over the telephone to you. Which of the following descriptions would closely describe a contusion? a. Blood collecting under the skin without a break in the skin. b. A clean cut that has broken the integrity of the skin. c. A jagged cut that has broken the integrity of the skin. d. A puncture which has pierced the top layers of the skin. 593. The elderly and very young: a. have increased susceptibility to infectious pathogens. b. are more sensitive to heat and cold. c. have a higher risk of falls. d. All of the above. 594. Which would be the first step when a patient passes out at the front desk? a. Call 911. b. Initiate CPR. c. Shake the patient and ask if he is ok. d. Check for a pulse. 595. Which of the following is considered a best practice when preparing the office for emergency situations? a. Document all training of employees on emergency situations. b. Require all employees to have current CPR certification. c. Have a current copy of all MSDS sheets for all chemicals used in the office. d. All of the above. 596. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied? a. 100 per minute b. 60 per minute c. As quickly as possible. d. 200 per minute 597. A patient presents to the office with a pencil that has completely penetrated the palm of her hand. Which of the following treatments would be BEST in this situation? a. Assist the doctor while she sedates the patient and removes the pencil from her hand. b. Have the patient gently pull the pencil out of her hand and assist the physician with stitches. c. Wrap a gauze wrap around the pencil, securing it as much as possible until the patient can get to a local emergency room. d. Tell the patient to go the local emergency room. With a doctor's order, give the patient some aspirin for the pain. 598. Which acronym would BEST describe the procedure for assessing a patient that appears unconscious? a. WBC b. QRS c. XYZ d. ABC 599. A patient is on the telephone stating that her son has just been stung by a bee. Which of the following recommendations is used when dealing with this emergency? a. Ask the mother if her son is known to be allergic to bees. b. Ask the mother to tell her son to remain calm and still to help slow the spread of venom. c. Tell the mother to remove the stinger by scraping at the stinger rather than trying to pull it out. d. All of the above are true. 600. Which of the following symptoms can occur with a heart attack? a. Cyanosis b. Syncope c. Ashen skin d. All of the above. 601. The most dangerous time of the day for sunburn is: a. between 10am and 2pm. b. the early morning hours. c. between 2pm and 4pm. d. As long as sunscreen is applied once before going into the sun, there is no danger. 602. The acronym FAST is used to help responders remember the steps to recognizing which of the following conditions? a. Onset of labor in a pregnant woman b. Stroke c. Heart attack d. Migraine 603. The Rule of Nines is used to: a. determine the amount of the body surface that has been burned. b. assess the level of oxygen saturation in a body that has been burned. c. determine the level of tissue damage that has occurred in a burn. d. None of the above. 604. First aid for frostbite includes: a. Running cold water over the affected area. Warm or hot water will shock the area and cause more tissue damage. b. Run warm water over the area to rewarm the affected area. c. Run hot water over the area to warm the area as quickly as possible. d. Cover the area with a blanket, using a heating pad if the blanket isn't warm enough. 605. A patient is having a grand mal seizure. Which of the following would be appropriate when performing first aid? a. Place a tongue depressor in the patient's mouth so he does not swallow his tongue. b. Restrain the patient in the event his thrashing movements cause him to harm himself. c. Move the patient to an open area where he will be less likely to harm himself while convulsing. d. Shake the patient until he becomes responsive. 606. You witness an automobile accident on the way to work. Which of the following would be an indication that a patient has experienced head trauma? a. bleeding from the rectum b. extreme hunger c. Vomiting d. rapid pulse rate 607. Improper placement of the hands under the rib cage when performing the Heimlich maneuver could result in: a. damage to the manubrium of the sternum. b. damage to the coccyx. c. a broken xiphoid process. d. None of the above is possible, even with improper hand placement. 608. Which type of shock is related to low blood volume? a. Psychogenic b. Cardiogenic c. Anaphylactic d. Hemorrhagic 609. A common fracture found in children that exhibits a bending of the bone with a partial break is a: a. Compound fracture b. Comminuted fracture c. Greenstick fracture d. Colles' fracture 610. A patient reports that she was out in the sun for several hours the day before. She now has a burn that covers her back. The burn does not show signs of blistering, but is warm to the touch and very painful. It appears that the burn affects her epidermis. Which of the following is the most logical diagnosis? a. First degree burn b. Second degree burn c. Third degree burn d. Fourth degree burn 611. A patient is bleeding profusely from an injury near her wrist. Which of the following first aid procedures would be MOST appropriate? a. Place a tourniquet on her arm above the injury. b. Place pressure on her brachial artery. c. Place pressure on her radial nerve. d. Cover the bleeding area with wet towels. 612. Which of the following safety suggestions would apply to the use of the AED? a. Do not use on the chest area. b. Do not use in water. c. Do not use on females with documented heart conditions. d. None of the above are applicable to the AED. 613. Patients that are exhibiting signs of cyanosis will: a. show signs of hyperoxia. b. will have increased O2 saturation. c. will have blood levels of CO2 that are higher than O2 levels. d. None of the above. 614. The medical term, "diaphoresis," means: a. Profuse vomiting b. Profuse sweating c. Gasping for air d. None of the above. 615. When would chest thrusts be performed in an emergency situation? a. When performing CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation. b. When assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient. c. When assisting a pregnant woman who is choking. d. None of the above examples indicate the need for chest thrusts. 616. When receiving CPR certification through the American Heart Association at the healthcare provider level, how often is recertification necessary? a. Annually b. Biannually c. Every two years d. Certification is a one-time training and the credential is good for the life of the certificant. 617. A 56 year old female complained of dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The patient is a known diabetic. You took the patient's blood sugar and it showed hypoglycemia. What is the next best step? a. Give her Nitroglycerin b. Give juice, candy or soda c. Assess the patient's airway d. Perform ECG 618. A patient was stung by a bee while on a camping trip. After 30 minutes, she complained of wheezing and hives. Most likely, the patient has: a. Asthma b. Shock c. Anaphylaxis d. Stroke 619. You found a patient lying on the ground. As a medical assistant, what is the first step to determine if the patient needs CPR? a. Check chest compressions b. Check the carotid pulse c. Confirm if the patient is unconscious d. Give mouth to mouth resuscitation 620. A patient was brought to the emergency room because of slurring of speech and weakness of the right arm. Six hours after, the patient feels normal. What is the condition of this patient? a. Stroke b. TIA c. Myocardial infarction d. subarachnoid hemorrhage 621. A patient presents with a rapid and weak pulse, shallow breathing, hypotension and cold and clammy skin from a gunshot wound. What is the condition of this patient? a. Hemorrhage b. Shock c. Stroke d. Heart attack 622. A 55 year old male patient presents with symptoms of diaphoresis and chest pain more than 30 minutes, not relieved by analgesics. What condition should be suspected in this patient? a. Pneumonia b. Stroke c. Myocardial infarction d. Pneumothorax 623. The doctor ordered the medical assistant to apply RICE to the patient with a sprain. Which of the following is not a RICE application? e. Rest the injured part a. Put ice on the affected areas b. Conditioning c. Elevate the affected area 624. A patient was brought to the clinic because of a burn on the right hand. The site has blistered red appearance with edema. What is the classification of the patient's burn? a. Superficial b. Partial thickness c. Full thickness d. 3rd degree 625. A 65 year old female was brought to the emergency room because of high fever, hypotension, tachypnea and cold, clammy skin. The patient has severe pneumonia. What type of shock does the patient have? a. Septic shock b. Neurogenic shock c. Cardiogenic shock d. Anaphylactic shock 626. A 28 year old man cut himself with a knife while slicing a rack of ribs. To control the patient's hemorrhage, the initial step is to: a. Apply a tourniquet below the site b. Immobilize the part c. Apply direct pressure d. Give topical antibiotic 627. If a patient is choking and cannot speak or breathe, what should be done? a. Give the patient water to push the obstruction b. Give chest compressions c. Do the Heimlich maneuver d. Begin CPR 628. If a patient complains of dizziness and is about to faint, what steps should be taken? a. Ask the patient stand and do light exercise b. Give the patient soda or sugary drink c. Sit the patient with the head lower than the heart d. Do chest compressions 629. Which of the following is not recommended when assessing emergency cases? a. Call 911 b. Use the ABC method to assess the patient c. Move the patient and transfer to a chair or bed d. Look for alert tags 630. Which of the following medications is used for anaphylaxis? a. Adenosine b. Epinephrine c. Lasix d. Narcan 631. A 45 year old male was brought to the clinic because of chest pain. The patient has a history of hypertension and heart disease. Which medication should the patient take to relieve his chest pain? a. Nitroglycerin b. Adrenalin c. Insulin d. Advil 632. A 7 year old boy tripped and fell with an outstretch arm. This injury would most likely result In a ____________. a. Colle's fracture b. Spiral fracture c. Greenstick fracture d. Rickets 633. A patient came in with a big piece of her skin and soft tissues still hanging like a flap. This wound injury is referred to as a _____________. a. contusion b. laceration c. abrasion d. avulsion 634. A 7 year old girl falls while riding her bicycle. She complains of scratches and small cuts on her skin. What type of wound does she have? e. Avulsion a. Contusion b. Abrasion c. Laceration 635. A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with confusion and severe thirst. He is a known diabetic. He mentions that he ran out of insulin 3 days ago. His blood sugar is elevated at 450 mg/dl, and his urinalysis showed ketones. What is the most likely diagnosis of the patient? a. Hypoglycemia b. Shock c. Diabetic Ketoacidosis d. Diabetes insipidus 636. A 21 year old patient came in complaining that he had been exposed to poison ivy. What initial step should be taken? a. Call 911 b. Rinse the affected area immediately with copious amount of water c. Apply antibiotic cream right away d. Call poison center and ask for antidote 637. A new medical assistant was asked to check for the pulse of a 10 month old baby. What pulse site should the medical assistant use to check for the pulse of this baby? a. Radial b. Brachial c. Carotid d. Femoral 638. A 56 year old man was brought to the emergency room because of chest pain. An ECG was done and a heart attack was ruled out. Angiography was done and the results showed 40 percent block in his coronary arteries. This condition is called: a. Myocardial infraction b. Congestive heart failure c. Myocardial ischemia d. Cardiomegaly 639. A child was brought to the emergency room because of burns from boiling water. The patient's whole left leg was burnt. What is the estimated percentage according to the rule of nines? a. 9 % b. 18% c. 1% d. 14% 640. A 5 year old boy was brought to the clinic because he fell on his right arm, injuring his elbow. The radiologist described the fracture as one side of the bone being bent and the other side broken. What type of fracture is this? a. Greenstick fracture b. Comminuted fracture c. Impacted fracture d. Spiral fracture 641. A 23 year old soldier was brought to the emergency room because of massive bleeding from a gun-shot wound. In assessing this emergency patient, ABC refers to: a. Application, Breathing, CPR b. Airway, Bleeding, Compressions c. Alert, Breathing, Cardiac d. Airway, Breathing, Circulation 532. Which of the following anticoagulants would be found in a light blue vacutainer tube? a. EDTA b. Sodium Oxalate c. Lithium Heparin d. Sodium Citrate 533. A medical assistant is asked to draw blood in the antecubital (AC) space. Which of the following veins are found in the AC? a. Cephalic b. Median cubital c. Basilic d. All of the above. 534. A patient's urine specimen tested positive for bilirubin. Which of the following is most true? a. The patient should be evaluated for kidney disease. b. The specimen was probably left at room temperature for more than two hours. c. The specimen is positive for bacteria. d. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light. 535. Which vacutainer tubes should be used when a requisition calls for blood to be drawn for an H&H and glucose test? a. One light blue, one red b. Two lavenders c. One lavender, one grey d. One green, one red 536. Specific gravity in urinalysis: a. compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water. b. is useless when the patient is dehydrated. c. can only be done with a refractometer. d. None of the above. 537. When placing a patient in the AP position for an X-ray, what position would the patient be in? a. Facing the film. b. Right side against the film. c. Left side against the film. d. Facing away from the film. 538. A patient's urine tests positive for glucose. The doctor asks you to confirm this finding. Which of the following would BEST confirm this finding? a. Run the urine on the hand-held glucometer. b. Have another MA do a repeat dipstick. c. Run a Clinitest. d. Run an Acetest. 539. The smallest of the white blood cells which also can be involved in humoral immunity is the: a. Lymphocyte b. Monocyte c. Basophil d. Erythrocyte 540. MSDS sheets: a. Contain the ordering information for each piece of equipment in the office. b. Are required by OSHA to be accessible to all employees of the office. c. Can be used to treat patients who have been injured in equipment accidents. d. None of the above. 541. The most virulent blood borne pathogen is: (Choose the BEST answer.) a. HCV b. HPV c. HIV d. HBV 542. The NFPA diamond has four colors. The blue diamond: a. indicates hazards to health. b. designates that it is safe to use water to put out this type of fire. c. indicates that ice is necessary to treat an injury with this type of chemical. d. indicates that the chemical may be incinerated upon disposal. 543. A patient has been told to monitor her LH levels. Which of the following potential conditions might the patient be suffering from? a. Menorrhagia b. Grave's Disease c. Menopause d. Infertility 544. Manual hematocrits are done: a. to monitor anemia. b. by using a microcrit tube. c. to measure the percentage of plasma to cells. d. All of the above. 545. The BEST blood collection location for a newborn is: a. the AC. b. the veins of the forehead. c. the heel. d. the fingertips. 546. A patient has come to the office for a blood draw. The patient starts to sweat and is very anxious. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed? a. Do not perform the procedure. Notify the physician of the reason why. b. Perform the procedure but pay close attention for signs of potential syncope. c. Allow the patient to reschedule for a time where he isn't as anxious. d. Have the physician draw the blood. 547. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient that is being monitored for coagulation therapy? a. PT/INR b. CBC c. HCT d. WBC 548. Which of the following is MOST TRUE about the ESR test? a. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions. b. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness. c. Abnormal results should be followed with additional testing. d. Results are reported in millimeters per minute. 549. A patient who is blood type AB: a. can receive plasma from a type B donor. b. can receive whole blood from a type A donor. c. can receive packed RBCs from a type O donor. d. All of the above. 550. Which of the following is considered an abnormal lab result? a. WBC 10,000/ mm cubed b. Hct 50% c. ESR 22 mm/hour d. All of the above are normal. 551. The mordant in the Gram Stain procedure is: a. the chrystal violet b. the methyl alcohol c. Iodine d. Safranin 552. To properly read a meniscus, a. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level. b. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the top of the curve of the liquid level where the liquid holds to the walls of the container. c. hold the measuring device at table level and looking down into the measuring device, read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level. d. hold the measuring device at table level and looking down into the measuring device, read the top of the curve of the liquid level. 553. The purpose of performing quality control is to: a. create a paper trail to show that the laboratory is compliant with OSHA standards for quality control. b. improve the odds that the results that are reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible. c. Are required by law to be part of a quality assurance program. d. All of the above. 554. A urine pregnancy test: a. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive. b. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy. c. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device. d. All of the above. 555. When reading urines microscopically, urine casts must be: a. small enough to be seen under high power. b. assessed under low power. c. absent as to not impede the observation of other microscopic structures. d. None of the above. 556. A physician believes that a patient may be experiencing pancreatitis. Which of the following tests would be best to diagnose this condition? a. CK and Troponin b. BUN and Creatinine c. Amylase and Lipase d. HDL and LDL Cholesterol Levels 557. An abnormality in the ventricles may be identified on the ECG strip by: a. distorted, varying P wave pattern b. wide spaces in between waves c. wide and bizarre QRS complex d. too fast heart rate 558. The standard ECG paper speed is: a. 25 mm/min b. 25 mm/sec c. 50 mm/min d. 50 mm/sec 559. During an ECG, a patient was talking, moving and chewing. What interference will show in the strip? a. Damaged cable b. Loose electrode c. Somatic tremor d. Alternating current or 60 cycle 560. Which ECG electrode is placed on the 4th ICS on the left mid-clavicular line? a. V3 b. V4 c. V5 d. V6 561. Which chest lead is placed on the 4th ICS to the right of the sternum? a. V1 b. V2 c. V3 d. V4 562. A patient came to the clinic complaining of waking up at night to urinate. The patient has a family history of diabetes. The patient's symptom is called: a. nocturia b. incontinence c. polydipsia d. oliguria 563. A patient was brought to the clinic because she has not urinated for 3 days. Blood tests shows increase in BUN and Creatinine. What is the condition of the patient? a. UTI b. Kidney stones c. Uremia d. Diabetes 564. Which of the following is not used to clean the site for a blood culture specimen? a. Iodine b. Surgical soap c. Lysol d. Alcohol 565. Which of the following blood samples should be placed in ice water? a. Lead testing b. Glucose tolerance test c. Arterial blood gases (ABG) d. Blood culture 566. The normal bleeding time is: a. 2 to 8 minutes b. 10 to 15 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 1 hour 567. A fingerstick is done on the following fingers: a. middle and index finger b. the thumb and the middle finger c. small and ring finger d. middle and ring finger 568. What is the number one complication of venipuncture? a. Seizure b. Hematoma c. Fainting d. Petechiae 569. A patient came in complaining of having a burning sensation while urinating. What chemical in the urine would confirm a suspicion that the patient has a urinary tract infection? a. Ketone b. Bilirubin c. Blood d. Nitrite 570. Surgical hand washing is performed in this way: a. By scrubbing for 4 minutes b. For 10 minutes using a sterile hand brush c. For 15 minutes with germicidal soap d. For a full 20 minutes 571. The transplant of animal tissue into a human: a. Isograft b. Heterograft c. Homograft d. Autograft 572. How do you know if the EKG machine is calibrated? a. It produces a calibration mark of 10 mm high. b. It produces a calibration mark of 10 mm wide. c. It produces a calibration mark of 15 mm high. d. It produces a calibration mark of 15 mm wide. 573. A medical assistant is performing ECG. Where should the V3 electrode be placed? a. 4th ICS left sterna border b. Midway between V2 and V4 c. 5th intercostals space right sterna border d. Right bicep 574. What does lead I on the ECP strip represent? a. Represents the electricity from Right arm to Left Arm (RA-LA) b. Represents the electricity from Right arm to Left Leg (RA-LL) c. Represents the electricity from Left arm to Left Leg (LA-LL) d. Represents the electricity from Right Leg to Left Leg (R-LL) 575. How would you know that the ECG cable is the Right Arm (RA) cable based on its color? a. It is colored red b. It is colored black c. It is colored green d. It is colored white 576. How will you make sure that the electrodes will adhere to the skin of the patient? a. Open a brand new electrode package b. Warm your hands c. Apply alcohol to the placement sites d. Apply the cables before placing the electrodes on the skin of patient 577. If the patient is suspected to be color blind, which test should the medical assistant prepare the patient for? a. Snellen b. E chart c. Ishihara d. Jaeger 578. If the patient complains of blurry of vision, which of the following will the doctor use to determine visual acuity? a. Snellen b. E chart c. Landolt C d. All of the above 579. A 56 year old patient was seen in the clinic because of coughing with blood. An x-ray was done which showed a mass in the hilar area of the lungs. Which of the following will be the next step of the doctor? a. Thoracentesis b. Bronchoscopy c. Spirometry d. Thoracotomy 580. A 17 year old patient was brought to the office because of hematomas and bruises. The patient denies trauma and abuse. Which blood test will most likely be positive if it was a blood disorder? a. Hemoglobin b. Patial Thromboplastin time (PTT) c. Leukocyte count d. Hematocrit 581. A physician ordered a guaiac test for a patient who was complaining of abdominal pain. What is the indication for ordering such test? a. To screen colon cancer b. To screen lung cancer c. To screen breast cancer d. To screen prostate cancer 582. A diabetic patient denies that she is not compliant with her medications. Her blood sugar is elevated. What test should be done to determine the patient's average blood sugar for the past 3 months? a. Fasting blood sugar b. Random blood sugar c. Hemoglobin A1C d. Postprandial sugar 583. A 40 year old obese female was seen in the office because of a right upper quadrant pain. If gallbladder stones are suspected, which diagnostic test would most likely be requested for this patient? a. Abdominal x-ray b. Pyelogram c. Abdominal ultrasound d. Angiogram 584. The most accurate test to diagnose hypertension is through: a. Heart angiogram b. Heart echocardiogram c. ECG d. Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope 585. Cholesterol and LDL measurement is recommended for healthy patients at what age? a. 35 for men, 45 for women b. 35 for women, 45 for men c. 45 for men, 55 for women d. 45 for women, 55 for men 586. Which of the following is not a coronary heart disease (CHD) equivalent? a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm b. Diabetes c. Peripheral vascular disease d. Thrombophlebitis 587. If a woman asks at what age should she be screened by mammography for breast cancer, your answer should be? a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 50 588. When should the Meningococcal vaccine be administered? a. age 11 b. at birth c. age 21 d. age 40 589. If alcoholism is suspected in a patient, which of the following questions should be asked? a. Do you drink heavily? b. At what age did you start drinking? c. How much do you drink a day? d. Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking? 590. If a patient asks you how often is the Tetanus vaccine given, your answer should be: a. Every year b. Every 2 years c. Every 5 years d. Every 10 years 591. A chest x-ray is the best initial radiologic test for all forms of pulmonary problems. Which of the following is not a chest x-ray view? a. PA b. oblique c. cross sectional d. Decubitus 439. Which of the following vital signs can be expected in a child that is afebrile? a. Rectal Temp of 100.9 degrees F. b. Oral Temp of 38 degrees C. c. Axillary Temp of 98.6 degrees F. d. All of the above are incorrect. 440. Intermittent fevers are: a. fevers which come and go. b. fevers which rise and fall but are always considered above the patient's average temperature. c. fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees in never return to normal. d. None of the above. 441. A patient's body temperature has varied over the last 24 hours from 97.6 degrees F in the morning to 99 degrees F in the evening. The patient is worried that this change in temperature may indicate the beginning of a fever. Which of the following BEST explains this phenomenon? a. The patient definitely has a fever in the evening and should be seen by a doctor. b. The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm. c. The patient is more than likely taking her temperature incorrectly. d. The patient is male and is experiencing changes related to fluctuating monthly hormones. 442. The most accurate reading for a temperature is done: a. Orally. b. Aurally through a clean canal. c. Rectally. d. Axially. 443. A patient is having difficulty understanding how to properly run her glucose meter. Which of the following teaching methods would best help the patient understand how to use her instrument correctly? a. Give the patient an instruction booklet and have her call the office if she has questions. b. Tell the patient to have a family member demonstrate how to use the instrument. c. Have the patient watch a video on the use of the instrument. d. Demonstrate the proper use of the instrument and then have the patient perform the process while still in the office. 444. The pulse point located on the top of the foot is: a. the dorsalis pedis. b. is checked in patients with peripheral vascular problems. c. absent in some patients due to a congenital anomaly. d. All of the above. 445. Over a patient's lifespan, the pulse rate: a. starts out fast and decreases as the patient ages. b. starts out slower and increases as the patient ages. c. Varies from slow to fast throughout the lifespan. d. Stays consistent from birth to death. 446. A common error when taking a pulse is: a. placing the index finger on the radial artery which is located on the thumb side of a patient's wrist. b. noting a pulse as being "weak" when the pulsation disappears upon adding pressure. c. counting the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplying the number by four. d. None of the above will cause errors. 447. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected? a. Bradypnea b. Orthopnea c. Tachypnea d. Dyspnea 448. Rales and rhonchi are frequently noted during an examination of lung sounds. What is the difference between the two? a. Rales are louder. b. Rhonchi are noted only in infants. c. Rales occur on inspiration, rhonchi on expiration. d. Rales are noted only in infants. 449. To accurately assess a patient's respiration rate, which of the following methods would be BEST? a. Tell the patient, "Please remain silent while I count your number of breaths." b. Count respirations at the same time you are counting the pulse rate. c. Count the pulse rate for one minute, then, while keeping your index fingers on the patient's radial artery, count the respirations for an additional minute. d. Count the patient's respiration rate, then take the patient's temperature, and then take the pulse rate. 450. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for his condition? a. 142/92 b. 118/72 c. 120/80 d. 138/88 451. Korotkoff sounds are: a. sounds noted during diastole. b. the result of the vibration of blood against artery walls while blood pressure readings are being taken. c. are only noted by skilled cardiologists. d. distinct sounds which are classified into 6 phases. 452. Which of the following is an anthropomorphic measurement? a. Blood pressure b. Temperature c. Pulse Rate d. Weight 453. The procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differs from an adult how? a. Pulse rates are not taken on infants. b. The apical pulse method is used on infants. c. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer. d. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space. 454. The patient position that is most useful for proctologic exams is the: a. Trendelenburg b. Semi-Fowler's c. Full Fowler's d. Jack Knife 455. A physician may assess turgor when: a. iron deficiency is suspected. b. heart and lung issues are suspected. c. dehydration is suspected. d. None of the above. 456. In the chain of infection, the susceptible host: a. is one that has been effectively immunized against the infectious agent. b. is not capable of supporting the growth of an infectious agent. c. can reduce the chances of being infected by living a healthy lifestyle and using proper hand washing techniques. d. will not benefit from practicing aseptic techniques. 457. The proper personal protective equipment necessary for collecting a sputum specimen would include: (Choose the BEST answer.) a. Gloves and face mask b. Level Three Bio containment uniforms c. Eye protection and shoe covers d. Splash shield and face mask 458. Surgical asepsis is being performed when: a. wiping down exam tables with bleach. b. sterilizing instruments. c. changing table paper. d. wearing gloves when performing injections. 459. The most effective step of hand washing is: a. using friction to remove potential pathogens. b. using hospital grade soap. c. moisturizing the hands after washing to prevent cracking. d. washing hands for at least 15 seconds. 460. When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.) a. Increased pulse rate, normal EKG b. Decreased pulse rate, abnormal EKG c. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph. d. Bradycardia, poor EKG graph. 461. When printing out an EKG, a medical assistant notices that the QRS complexes are extremely small. What should be the next step? a. Alert the physician immediately as this is a sign of impending cardiac arrest. b. Check to see that all leads are attached and rerun the EKG. c. Increase the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection. d. Decrease the run speed to 50. 462. Each small square on the EKG paper is: a. .04 seconds long and 5mm tall b. .2 seconds long and 5mm tall c. .04 seconds long and 20mm tall d. .04 seconds long and 1mm tall 463. When teaching a patient to use the three point gait technique of crutch use: a. The injured leg moves ahead at the same time as both crutches. b. One crutch moves at a time and then followed by the injured leg. c. Both crutches move ahead at the same time followed by both legs at the same time. d. None of the above are correct. 464. What is the actual purpose of a visit or consult of a patient with a physician? a. Chief complaint b. History of present illness c. Past history d. General data 465. Mrs. Plan, a 46 year old female, came in to your office because of fever and jaundice. She is on her 34th week of pregnancy. The doctor diagnosed her to have Hepatitis D infection. Which of the following hepatitis virus can simultaneously be in her blood together with the Hepatitis D? a. Hepatitis B b. Hepatitis A c. Hepatitis E d. Hepatitis C 466. Which of the following instruments are used for a pelvic examination? a. Light source b. Speculum c. Percussion hammer d. All of the above e. Both a and b only ✅- e 467. A medical assistant took the vital signs of a patient. The patient has been complaining of palpitations and dyspnea. His pulse rate is 120 and respiratory rate is 8. What is the patient's condition? a. bradycardia and bradypnea b. tachycardia and bradypnea c. bradycardia and tachypnea d. tachycardia and tachypnea 468. Marital status, occupation and lifestyle of the patient are part of the: a. Family history b. Past medical history c. Social history d. Chief complaint 469. Infection control and Universal Precautions Guidelines include the following, EXCEPT: a. Wear only PPE when in contact with infected patients b. Obtain Hepatitis B vaccination for occupational exposure to blood c. Dispose used needles in sharps container d. Proper hand washing before and after dealing with a patient 470. The purpose of a spirometer is to evaluate: a. Volume of inhaled and exhaled air in the lung b. Red blood cell mass c. Blood pressure d. Hematocrit 471. A 45 year old man came in for edema and fatigue. On physical examination, the lungs had decreased breath sounds, rales and crackles. The patient has a family history of heart disease and smokes 3 packs of cigarettes and drinks vodka every day. Under what part of the medical history, will you include the smoking and drinking habits of the patient? a. Past history b. Family history c. Social history d. Review of systems 472. Mrs. Williams came to your office with profuse vaginal bleeding because of a spontaneous abortion. Her blood pressure initially was 90/60 mmHg. Five minutes after, the bp started to go down to 70/50 mmHg. Which of the following positions should you put her in to improve her blood pressure? a. Fowler's b. Sims c. Lithotomy d. Trendelenburg 473. Betsy, a 4 month old infant, was brought to your clinic because of a seizure. The doctor asked you to obtain a rectal temperature. You obtain it using a digital thermometer and the reading is 104 degrees F. Which of the following is most likely true? a. She has normal temperature. b. Her seizure is a result of her being febrile. c. The seizure has no connection with the temperature. d. The temperature of the patient cannot result in a seizure. 474. Which of the following is not part of the medical history? a. Present history b. Review of systems c. Physical Examination d. Family history 475. What artery should be palpated during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to determine the presence of a pulse? a. Carotid pulse b. Femoral pulse c. Brachial pulse d. Radial pulse 476. A sigmoidoscopy is performed to examine the: a. Small intestine b. Rectum c. Large intestine d. lungs 477. A medical assistant does not need to wear gloves when: a. Performing blood pressure b. Transporting a urine specimen c. Lubricating a foley catheter d. Performing venipunctrue 478. A patient complains that he has had chest pains for 3 months associated with dyspnea and diaphoresis. He self medicated with aspirin and antacids. Which part of the medical history should this information be placed? a. Chief complaint b. Present Illness c. Past History d. Family History 479. You have been monitoring the oral temperature of Mr. Hadley for the past 10 days. His temperature shows that he is having alternating febrile and afebrile days. This type of fever pattern is known as: a. continuous fever b. remittent fever c. intermittent fever d. relapsing fever 480. What does pulse oximetry evaluate? a. It measures the heart rhythm of the patient. b. It measures the pulse and the respiration of the patient. c. It measures oxygen saturation in arterial blood. d. It measures oxygen saturation in venous blood. 481. Which of the following statements is an example of an open-ended question? a. "Do you have more than 1 symptom?" b. "Tell me more about your symptoms." c. "Do you have hypertension?" d. "Does your family have diabetes?" 482. All of the following are components of the infection cycle, EXCEPT: a. Reservoir b. Means of transmission c. Susceptible host d. Means of termination 483. Normally, the pulse rate is the same as the: a. number of heartbeats in one minute b. average length of beats in one minute c. number of heartbeats in 30 seconds d. difference between systolic and diastolic pressure 484. Which of the following is not properly part of the interviewing process to obtain patient medical history? a. Observe the patient's alertness, level of orientation, grooming and comfort b. Express concern and respect for the patient c. Place the patient in a private room d. Judging the behavior of the patient 485. The purpose of ear instillation is to: a. Clean the ear b. Dilate the ear c. Treat otitis externa d. Enhance hearing of the patient 486. Mrs. Simon, a known diabetic, came to your clinic because of dizziness. When you took her blood pressure while she was lying down on the bed, her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg, but when she stood up, she started to become dizzy again. A repeat blood pressure was 80/50 mmHg. What would be the condition of the patient? a. Normal b. Malingering c. Having malignant hypertension d. Having orthostatic hypotension 487. A patient, a 17 year old female, is complaining of palpitation and fast heart beat. The patient has a history of panic attacks and anxiety. To determine if she has tachycardia, the medical assistant decided to use her thumb to count the pulse. Is this recommended to determine pulse? a. No. The thumb has its own pulse. b. No. The skin of the thumb is too sensitive. c. No. The skin of the thumb is not sensitive enough. d. Yes, it is recommended to use the thumb to take a pulse. 488. The following are included in the rules on charting, EXCEPT: a. Check carefully the name on the chart b. Chart in pencil c. Do not chart assumptions d. Date each entry and sign with your complete name and title 489. A sphygmomanometer is used to: a. Check for heart disease b. Check blood pressure c. Check for pulse d. Check for vital signs 490. What term is used when all microorganisms including the spores in an instrument have been eliminated? a. Sterile b. Asepsis c. Sanitized d. Disinfected 491. What is the position that produces the most accurate blood pressure determination? a. Have the patient in a sitting position with an arm extended at heart level b. Have the patient in a standing position and arm curled up c. Have the patient lying down with palms in a down position d. Have the patient sitting with an arm extended above the heart 492. Red marked glass thermometers are used to take what temperature? a. Axillary b. Rectal c. Tympanic Membrane d. Oral 493. A medical assistant cleaned a patient's wound using forceps. She then soaked the forceps in alcohol. Which aseptic technique did she use? a. Sterilization b. Autoclaving c. Sanitization d. Disinfection 494. A physician is about to give a Pap smear procedure to a patient. As a medical assistant, you assist the patient and help her get into position for the procedure. What position should you put her in? a. Horizontal Recumbent b. Lateral Sims c. Fowler's d. Lithotomy 495. A wound where tissue is not just separated but torn away from the body is referred to as: a. Laceration b. Avulsion c. Abrasion d. Gangrene 496. Michael, a 5 year old boy, has been complaining of itchiness, rash and irritation around the anal area. He was brought to the clinic by his mother, and to her surprise, the doctor performed a scotch tape test. This test is used to diagnose infestation of which parasite? a. Mosquitoes b. Fungus c. Round worms d. Pinworms 497. Round-shaped bacteria that are seen in pairs are called: a. streptococcus b. diplococcus c. staphylococcus d. bacillus 498. When placing a patient on the weighing scale, the medical assistant should: a. Ask the patient to patient remove all clothing b. Ask the patient to face away from the scale c. Make sure that the scale is calibrated and balanced before actually weighing the patient d. All of the above 499. Cold and heat modalities can be applied to: a. Reduce inflammation and break the pain cycle b. Improve circulation c. Decrease muscle spasms d. All of the above 500. All of the following statements regarding vital signs are true, EXCEPT: a. Vital signs give essential information that guide the health provider. b. Estimation of vital signs is always allowed. c. Vital signs can indicate if a patient has a disease. d. Vital signs are also called the cardinal signs. 501. When taking a patient's pulse, the most commonly used artery is: a. Apical b. Radial c. Carotid d. Axillary 502. A 15 year old boy complained of a sore throat. After testing the patient, the results revealed a strep throat. What is the shape of the bacteria? a. Rod shaped b. Round in clusters c. Round in pairs d. Round in chains 503. A patient was brought to the clinic because of fever and jaundice. The doctor's impression was Hepatitis A. What is the mode of transmission of this virus? a. Oral - fecal b. Sex c. Blood d. Direct touching 504. The patient's pulse was 88 bpm. What will you tell the patient? a. Your pulse is normal. b. Your pulse is fast. c. Your pulse is abnormal. d. Your pulse is slow. 505. A 38 year old man was rushed to the hospital because of bloody diarrhea. The doctor said that the cause can be a single-celled organism. Which organism is he referring to? a. Lyme b. Amoeba c. Salmonella d. Trichomonas 506. A patient weighs 200 pounds. How much does he weigh in kilograms? a. 100 kg b. 90 kg c. 80 kg d. 200 kg 507. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus? a. Chicken pox b. Herpes c. Tuberculosis d. Measles 508. A patient who weighs 100 kilograms will be how heavy in pounds? a. 220 lbs b. 45 lbs c. 100 lbs d. 300 lbs 509. An 18 year old who went camping for one week was seen at the office because of fever, headache, fatigue, and a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans. The classic skin rash is characteristic of what disease? a. Lyme disease b. West Nile c. Gonorrhea d. HIV 510. The blood pressure of the patient is 120/80 mmHg. Based on this, what is the pulse pressure of the patient? a. 10 mmHg b. 20 mmHg c. 30 mmHg d. 40 mmHg 511. The question "What brings you to the clinic today?" addresses what part of the medical history? a. Chief complaint b. Present illness c. Past history d. Social history 512. Antibiotic resistance is best prevented by: a. Prescribe more than one antibiotic to the patient. b. Prolong the antibiotic treatment. c. Follow the recommended dose and duration of the antibiotic treatment. d. Increase the dose slightly higher to kill more bacteria. 513. The patient was brought to the clinic because of headache, nausea, rash and dizziness. Which of the following is an objective finding? a. Headache b. Dizziness c. Rash d. Nausea 514. Which of the following is not a classification of hypertension? a. Essential hypertension b. Secondary hypertension c. Malignant hypertension d. Benign hypertension 515. During the patient interview, the patient reports that she has abdominal pain. What type of information did the patient report? a. Sign b. Objective c. Subjective d. Impression 516. A 10-year-old girl with red eye was examined for pink eye. How is this disease transmitted? a. Staring at the eye of an infected patient b. Touching objects or things contaminated with the virus c. Sharing the same clothing d. Through blood or food 517. The medical assistant asked the patient, "You drink alcoholic beverages, right?" This question is an example of a: a. Leading question b. Summarizing question c. Clarifying question d. Open-ended question 518. Which of the following is not recommended when interviewing a patient? a. Have eye contact b. Look at the clock to prevent patient from rambling c. Lean toward the patient d. Nod when the patient talks 519. A stroke patient is breathing with alternating periods of apnea and tachypnea. What is this breathing pattern called? a. Sturge-Weber b. Prader Willi c. Cheyne Stokes d. Lou Gehrig 520. While interviewing the patient, you noticed that the patient has involuntary, purposeless, non-rhythmic, abrupt movements that flow from one body part to another. The patient is manifesting what movement problem? a. Dystonia b. Aphasia c. Tremors d. Chorea 521. Which of the following is not a risk factor for heart disease? a. Diabetes b. No immunizations c. Inactivity d. Hypertension 522. This information is not placed in the Present Illness section: a. Allergies of the patient b. Timing of symptoms c. Factors that relieve symptoms d. Associated symptoms 523. Which of the following is the recommended setting for the autoclave? a. 450 F for 30 minutes b. 175 F for 20 minutes c. 250 F for 30 minutes d. 320 F for 20 minutes 524. Why is the Review of Systems important for the health practitioner? a. To know the reason why the patient visited the doctor b. To uncover other health issues of the patient that were not mentioned in the other parts of the history c. To screen cancer and genetic problems d. To address the lifestyle of the patient 525. When the patient complains of abdominal pain, how will you know what organ is most likely affected? a. Divide the abdomen into four sections, and ask the patient in which section the pain is b. Ask the patient how severe the pain is c. Ask the patient when did the pain start d. Divide the abdomen into upper and lower quadrant and ask if the pain is upper or lower 526. If the patient complains of chest pain, and points that the pain is right behind the breast bone, how will this be documented? a. Left sided chest pain b. Parasternal pain c. Substernal pain d. Midclavicular pain 527. What is the recommended site for a pulse rate determination? a. radial b. brachial c. apical d. dorsalis pedis 528. The medical assistant should count the pulse for how long to be most accurate? a. 15 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 1 minute d. 2 minutes 529. A medical assistant wanted to use a stethoscope to determine a pulse. Which of the following pulse points can she use? a. Carotid b. Apical c. Brachial d. Femoral 530. Which of the following can be a reservoir host of the Ebola virus? a. Chimpanzees b. Fruit bats c. Forest antelopes d. All of the above 531. What does a sterilization strip indicate? a. Whether the instruments were exposed to the proper conditions of sterilization. b. If more water should be added to achieve the right amount of steam c. Whether the instruments need to be sterilized d. If the pressure of the autoclave was right. 398. Of the following choices, which should NOT be considered when performing payroll functions? a. Number of exemptions b. Deductions c. Hours worked d. Number of patients roomed per day 399. Which of the following tasks is NOT the responsibility of the office manager? a. Maintain adequate supply of inventory b. Perform employee evaluations c. Ensure adequate staffing d. determine the appropriate number of tax exemptions that should be made by an employee 400. What is the best time of the day to hold an All-Staff meeting? a. Right after lunch b. Just prior to the office closing c. At the beginning of the day d. Various times of the day 401. Which of the following employment forms is necessary when considering choosing tax exemptions? a. W2 b. W4 c. I9 d. C3PO 402. When setting up the front desk, which of the following would enhance patient privacy? a. Having a sliding window that can be closed when not conversing with patients. b. Having a privacy filter on computer monitors. c. Asking patients to stand at least 5 feet from the front desk until it's their turn. d. All of the above. 403. The best way to avoid injuries when using computers is: a. Stand and stretch every hour b. Adjust the seat height so that your feet are flat on the floor. c. Adjust the monitor so that your neck is at a neutral angle. d. All of the above. 404. The most effective way to prepare a schedule matrix is to: a. Schedule patients as walk-ins from 9-5, notifying the doctor when to be present in the office. b. Create a matrix for each appointment type, i.e. one for GI visits, one for OB visits. etc. c. Have the doctors provide you with their schedules and block out times they are unavailable. d. Schedule matrices are antiquated and are no longer used with electronic systems. 405. What is the benefit of the Advanced Scheduling system? a. Walk-ins are accommodated easily throughout the day. b. Emergencies can be handled more effectively and with more staff. c. Allows patients to plan ahead with their health care needs. d. Patients have an easier time remembering appointments. 406. The advantage of a handwritten appointment book is: a. Computer deficient employees can easily use the book. b. Books are accessible even when the computer server is down. c. Handwritten books are cost effective when compared to computerized systems. d. All of the above. 407. Which of the following scheduling methods would be best for an Urgent Care setting? a. Wave Scheduling b. Double Booking c. Open-hour Scheduling d. Modified Wave Scheduling 408. Patients who are habitually late: a. should be charged a late fee. b. should be scheduled at the end of the day. c. should be rescheduled for another day each time they are late. d. are showing signs of mental incapacity. 409. Patient cancellations should be noted: a. On the daily schedule b. In the patient's chart c. In the progress note section d. All of the above. 410. The medical assistant that handles the scheduling has scheduled 3 patients for the three to four o'clock time frame. All of the patients were told to arrive at 3 o'clock. Which of the following scheduling methods BEST describes which is being used in this example? a. Double booking b. Wave c. Walk in d. Advance 411. What type of scheduling is used when two or more patients are scheduled at the same time? a. Wave scheduling b. Time-specific scheduling c. Double booking scheduling d. Modified wave scheduling 412. Maintenance of office cleanliness and arrangement is the responsibility of: a. the maintenance company paid to clean the office b. the land lord who rents the office space c. all staff of the physician d. the medical assistant 413. What type of scheduling breaks hour long blocks down into smaller time increments? a. Wave scheduling b. Time-specific scheduling c. Double booking scheduling d. Modified wave scheduling 414. What agency protects workers from health and safety hazards on the job in the workplace? a. CDC b. OSHA c. FBI d. WHO 415. What is a recommended way of scheduling so that a physician can catch up with the appointment schedules? a. Schedule at least 15 minutes free in the morning and afternoon b. Pressure the physician to work faster c. Have less patients to prevent patient overload d. Have a strict 10 minute patient rule 416. What does CDC stand for? a. Community Development Council b. Communicable Disease Center c. Centers for Disease Control d. Central Data Center 417. The doctor's office schedules flu shots on Wednesdays from 10 am to Noon. What type of scheduling is this? a. Modified wave scheduling b. Tim-specific scheduling c. Double booking scheduling d. Clustering scheduling 418. What legislation prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities in employment, transportation, public accommodation, communications, and governmental activities? a. CDC b. OSHA c. ADA d. CLIA 419. In scheduling procedures, the chief complaint of the patient assists the medical assistant in the following, EXCEPT: a. Identify the reason for the consult b. Identify the urgency of the patient visit c. Identify the diagnosis of the patient d. Identify if the facility is equipped to handle the patient visit 420. When medical supplies are being inventoried, the medical assistant should: a. Have a list of all supplies and equipment b. Organize the supplies in different storage containers with labels c. Secure the supplies in cabinets or storage rooms d. All of the above e. Both a and c only 421. Screening calls is important because it allows the office to____________. a. avoid patients who are not emergency b. triage patients according to priority c. avoid disruptions to the appointment schedule d. prevent walk-ins 422. Which of the following is not a type of business formation for a medical practice? a. Partnership b. Sole Proprietorship c. Corporation d. Liability ownership 423. Establishing a matrix in the appointment book refers to: a. Blocking out the times when the health provider is unavailable b. Blocking out the times when patients are unavailable c. Blocking out the times when the nurse is not available d. Blocking out the times if the facility is unavailable 424. All of the following are steps in the hiring process, EXCEPT: a. Checking references b. Supervision c. An offer d. Recruiting 425. When an appointment is canceled by a patient, the medical assistant should: a. Educate the patient b. Tell the patient the doctor will call for a rescheduling c. Document the cancellation and contact the patient for rescheduling d. Wait for the patient to reschedule 426. A performance appraisal can be based on the following, EXCEPT: a. Teamwork b. Ethnicity c. Dependability d. Attitude 427. Office equipment inventory and maintenance requires keeping records on which the following: a. Warranties b. Model and serial number c. Date of purchase d. All of the above e. Both a and c only 428. When supplies are delivered to the office, a medical assistant accepting the delivery should: a. Place the supplies in storage b. Check the supplies with the packing slip c. Get the physician d. Open it when you find free time to check it 429. Federal Insurance Contribution Act (FICA) funds are paid into Social Security. Who pays into the FICA fund? a. The employee only b. The employer only c. The employee only if the employer has fewer than 20 employees d. The employer and the employee each pay half of what is due. 430. Voucher checks are commonly used for a. Insurance payments b. Payroll c. Cash converted to foreign currency d. To obtain petty cash 431. Which of the following is a method to track incoming telephone calls so that all messages are taken care of? a. Answer every incoming call b. Making a telephone log c. Install voice messaging d. Discard not important calls 432. Which of the following is not usually used when making appointment reminders for the patient? a. Calling the patient directly b. Reminder card before leaving the office c. Sending patients post cards d. Sending appointment letter by fax 433. When dealing with a patient who is getting mad and irritated, the medical assistant should: a. Call security to prevent escalation of the situation. b. Tell the patient that he will not be seen if he continues his behavior. c. Keep calm and remain courteous. d. Answer in a louder tone to show that behavior like that is not tolerated. 434. SOAP chart refers to: a. Subjective, objective, administer, proposal b. Subject, opportunity, access, program c. Subjective, objective, assessment, plan d. Systems, operations, assessment, project 435. If you have a new patient appointment, which of the following should not be asked from the patient? a. Social Security number b. Birth date c. Religion d. Insurance information 436. The professional organization for the field of effective management of health data and medical records is: a. AMA b. AHIMA c. OSHA d. HIPAA 437. If you were tasked to record the minutes of a meeting, which of the following would not be included in the information you record? a. names of the attendees b. names of the absentees c. agenda d. None of the above 438. If the physician writes on the medical chart "Impression is Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia", where should this be placed in the SOAP chart? a. S b. O c. A d. P 331. Your doctor has given you a patient memo that he has written. You notice that his grammar and punctuation need corrected. Which of the following proofreader's marks signifies that a period is to be introduced into a sentence? a. Equals sign b. Circle with a dot in the middle c. Ellipsis d. Empty circle 332. As a rule of social acceptance, what is the maximum number of times a telephone should be allowed to ring in most cases? a. Three b. Five c. Seven d. Ten 333. When answering the telephone, other than taking a patient's name, what other piece of information should be gathered at the beginning of the call? a. Telephone Number b. Date of Birth c. Reason for the call d. Address 334. Which of the following telephone greetings would be BEST? a. Hello, Dr. Smith's office, please hold. b. Dr. Smith's office, How may I assist you? c. Dr. Smith's office, This is Mary. How may I assist you? d. Dr. Smith's office. This is Mary. 335. Which of the following responses would be BEST when addressing an irate and shouting patient at the front desk? a. Mr. Jones, I understand your frustration, please allow me to assist you in getting this issue straightened out. b. Mr. Jones, Stop yelling. If you cannot stop yelling I will have to ask you to leave. c. This isn't my fault. d. Mr. Jones, I'm sure we can fix this issue very quickly. 336. Insured mail through the USPS is defined as: a. Mail that is guaranteed to reach its intended destination. b. Mail that has value up to a certain amount which can be reimbursed if lost in transit. c. Mail that will require a signature upon delivery. d. None of the above. 337. A physician has requested that a letter notifying his patient that he can no longer care for her due to her multiple no-shows would be best sent: a. Insured b. Parcel Post c. Certified d. COD 338. The postal abbreviation for Idaho is: a. IH b. IO c. IA d. ID 339. The standard for folding an 8 1/2 by 11" letter to fit in a No. 10 envelope is: a. Fold in half long ways b. Fold in half short ways c. Fold into thirds by pulling the bottom up and then top down. d. Folding into thirds by pulling the top down and then bottom up. 340. Interoffice memos: a. Are more informal than a standard letter. b. Contain a complimentary close. c. Contain a salutation. d. None of the above. 341. When writing a letter in full block style, the complimentary close: a. is located indented one tab stop. b. is located flush with the left margin. c. is omitted. d. begin at the center point of the page. 342. When giving a presentation, how long will it take to present a talk (without visual aids) that is 1000 words long? a. 5 minutes b. 8 minutes c. 20 minutes d. one half hour 343. Which of the following examples is properly written? a. Fred Felix 2900 Mainstreet Ave Cleveland OH 44115 b. Dr. Sherry Merry, MD. c. The City of Freedom d. None of the above are correct. 344. When using proofreader symbols, which symbol would you use to correct this sentence: The dog was looknig for his bone. a. Circle with a dot in the middle. b. Backslash c. Front slash d. An "S" laying on its side 345. When writing a professional letter that has over 200 words, how large should the margins be? a. One inch b. One and one half inches c. One and three quarters inches d. Two inches 346. The number of lines between the inside address and the salutation in a full block style professional letter is: a. 1 line b. 2 lines c. 4 lines d. There are no lines between these parts. 347. When transcribing medical dictation, how would one properly note an allergy to a certain medication? a. Spell out the medication in capital letters or underlined. b. Highlight the allergy in red font. c. Highlight the allergy in boldface font. d. None of the above. 348. What keyboard key deletes characters to the left of the cursor? a. Del b. Ctrl c. Backspace d. Esc 349. All of the following are devices that save information for future reference, EXCEPT: a. CD-ROM b. Hard Drive c. CPU d. Flash drive 350. Which keyboard key keeps the alphabet letters in uppercase? a. Caps b. Home c. Tab d. Ctrl 351. A first class mail handling for items 70 pounds or less that takes 2 to 3 days to arrive: a. Priority mail b. Express mail c. Certified mail d. Registered mail 352. Programs that direct a computer to perform specific operations: a. CPU b. Motherboard c. Random Access Memory (RAM) d. Software 353. A letter style in which all lines begin at the left margin: a. Modified block b. Semi-block c. Full block d. Simplified 354. When delivery of mail is guaranteed the following next day, the mail classification is: a. Priority mail b. Registered mail c. Express mail d. Certified mail 355. Where two or more computers are linked in order to exchange files, allow electronic communications and share resources, such as printers and CDs: a. Network b. Processor c. Scanner d. Internet 356. What is the most widely used regular envelope size? a. No. 9 b. No. 10 c. No. 11 d. No. 12 357. Which of the following is not an incoming mail procedure? a. Stamp items with person who received it b. Distribute mail to appropriate staff c. Check clinical mail for urgency d. Stamp payment checks with endorsement 358. Which of the following is not considered to be computer hardware? a. Mouse b. Windows c. Printer d. Scanner 359. What is a POMR chart? a. A method of recording data about the signs and symptoms of the patient. b. A method of recording data about the health status of a patient in a problem-solving system. c. A method of recording data about the physical examination of the patient. d. A method of recording data about the diseases that run in the family of the patient. 360. What device prints postage directly onto mail pieces or labels? a. Stamper b. Postage meter c. Engraver d. Laser printer 361. A written statement that promises the good condition of a product, and states that the manufacturer is responsible for repairing or replacing the product usually for a certain period of time after its purchase: a. Liability b. Contract c. Agreement d. Warranty 362. Which of the following is a method of documentation used by health care providers to write out notes in a patient's chart, along with other common formats, such as the admission note? a. Physical Examination b. SOAP notes c. Prognosis chart d. Review of Systems 363. The electronic conversion of scanned or photographed images of typewritten or printed text into machine-encoded or computer-readable text is called: a. Optical Character Recognition b. Over Current Relay c. On Channel Repeater d. Operating Conditions Register 364. A device that reads documents and converts them into digital data: a. Printer b. Scanner c. Flash drive d. CPU 365. This report is dictated by the admitting physician at the end of the patient's hospital stay. It is a brief statement of everything that occurred throughout the hospital course. a. Consultation report b. Operative report c. Pathology report d. Discharge summary 366. A small, lightweight removable storage device, also called a thumb drive: a. LAN drive b. URL drive c. USB drive d. ZIP drive 367. The greeting used in a letter such as "To whom it may concern:" is what part of a letter? a. Complimentary closing b. Salutation c. Signature d. Attention line 368. An electronic device that makes possible the transmission of data to and from a computer via telephone or other communication lines: a. Hard drive b. RAM c. URL d. Modem 369. All of the following are input devices for a computer, EXCEPT: a. Mouse b. Keyboard c. Printer d. Random Access Memory 370. Which of the following is NOT a storage device? a. Memory stick b. Zip drive c. Router d. DVD 371. What reference is used at the end of a letter to list people who will receive a copy of the letter? a. Enc b. DH:lb c. cc d. "Yours Truly" 372. Which of the following devices allow the user to manipulate the cursor? a. Tab key b. Backspace c. Bluetooth d. Mouse 373. Which mail classification includes cards, letters and parcels that weigh 13 ounces or less? a. Priority mail b. Standard mail c. First class mail d. Periodicals mail 374. One gigabyte is approximately how many bytes? a. 1024 bytes b. 1 million byes c. 1 billion bytes d. 1 trillion bytes 375. In a business letter, what margin is commonly used? a. ½ inch b. 1 inch c. 2 inches d. 3 inches 376. What is the unit of measurement of the clock speed of a computer's microprocessor? a. Bits b. Bytes c. Volts d. Megahertz 377. What is the function of the Tab key? a. Deletes the character before the cursor b. Moves the cursor one space forward c. Moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line d. Moves the cursor several spaces forward 378. Which of the following devices allow the user to manipulate the cursor? a. Tab key b. Backspace c. Bluetooth d. Mouse 379. The most common key board layout is: a. DVORAC b. QWERTY c. AZERTY d. MALTRON 380. A paper or electronic document in which data is arranged in rows and columns, and is commonly used for calculations in business operations. a. Database b. Wordprocessor c. Spreadsheet d. Tabulator 381. Which keyboard key, when pressed, shows the Help window for a program? a. F1 b. Esc c. F10 d. Enter 382. The keyboard key that enters and exits the full screen mode: a. F9 b. F10 c. F11 d. F12 383. What is the greeting we use at the beginning of a letter, email or a memo? a. Heading b. Salutation c. Complimentary d. Closing 384. All of the following are types of printers, except: a. Inkjet b. LCD c. Laser d. Multifunctional 385. Which of the following is an output device? a. monitor b. hard drive c. mouse d. Scanner 386. DVD refers to: a. Driver and Vehicle Data b. Drivers Vigilance Device c. Dynamic Voltage Drop d. Digital Video Disc 387. Encryption is the translation of data into a code that is not readily understood by unauthorized users. This data is referred to as: a. Cipher text b. Binary c. Electronic signature d. Cookies 388. The acronym HTML refers to: a. Hyper Text Markup Language b. High Temperature Monitor Layout c. High Tensile Monitor Layout d. Hotmail 389. Which of the following is NOT a common file format? a. .url b. .gif c. .jpeg d. .rtf 390. The acronym DSL stands for: a. Direct Subscriber Line b. Data Set Label c. Dynamic Simulation Language d. Direct Satellite Link 391. Which domain extension is used by Harvard University? a. .net b. .edu c. .org d. .gov 392. A numerical label assigned to each computer participating in a computer network that uses the Internet Protocol for communication: a. HTTP address b. URL address c. IP address d. Domain name 393. Which of the following is not considered a web browser? a. Internet explorer b. Yahoo c. Google d. Windows 394. To prevent intruders from accessing computer networks, which of the following is used? a. Server b. Scanner c. Firewall d. Database 395. The amount of information that can be sent over a connection at one time, or how many bits can be processed in a single instruction: a. Clock speed b. Bandwidth c. Instruction set d. Network 396. It consists of all the public websites connected to the internet: a. World Wide Web b. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol c. Local Area Network d. Random Access Memory 397. A company that provides access to the internet is referred to as a(n): a. Web browser b. ISP c. TCP/IP d. HTTP 301. Which of the following choices would best answer the question, "Who owns a patient's medical record?" a. The patient b. The physician c. The Legal Counsel of the Office d. No one owns a medical record. 302. Which of the following choices would best answer the question, "Who owns a patient's x-rays?"? a. The patient b. The doctor c. The facility that performed the procedure. d. None of the above. 303. Which of the following reasons would be legal when considering a patient's medical record? a. Allowing a patient's brother to view her chart to find out her birthdate and address so that he can mail her a card b. Not allowing a patient to view her own chart because the physician feels this information would be detrimental to her wellbeing. c. Not allowing a patient to view her chart because she is behind on her payments. d. All of the above are legal. 304. Choose the BEST answer. To ensure adequate protection for legal issues, offices should maintain patients' charts for: a. 10 years b. Forever c. until the age of majority d. 2 years after the patient was last seen in the office 305. Which of the following is NOT a section of the POMR? a. Database b. Problem List c. Treatment Plan d. Patient appointment schedule and payment plan 306. A medical assistant realizes after a patient has left the office that she forgot to put the patient's complaint of a sore throat. Which of the following choices would BEST correct her error? a. Pull out that page of the chart and rewrite it with the correct information. b. Put one line through the original Chief Complaint, write, "ERROR", your initials and today's date. Make the correction by rewriting the CC with the correct information. c. Go to the next available line of the SOAP notes. Write the current date, then, "Late Entry." Place the date and time when the patient stated she had a sore throat. Sign and date the entry. d. All of the above are incorrect. 307. When filing using the terminal digits method, which would be true? a. The filing is done using the last one or two digits of the patient's medical record number. b. It is the simplest way to file. c. The patient will acquire multiple charts. d. All of the above are false. 308. Outguides are used when: a. Charts need to be labeled appropriately for ease of retrieval. b. Charts have been removed from their filing location. c. Two patients have the same name and their charts must have distinguishing marks. d. None of the above. 309. The memory of a computer is located: a. In the CPU b. In RAM c. In ROM d. All of the above 310. One megahertz equals: a. One million cycles per second b. One million cycles per minute c. One thousand cycles per second d. One hundred thousand cycles per minute 311. Which of the following programs would be best suited for making a patient data base? a. Microsoft Word b. Microsoft Excel c. Microsoft Access d. Microsoft PowerPoint 312. Portable Universal Serial Bus Drives are also known as: a. Floppy drives b. CD drives c. Flash drives d. None of the above 313. Which of the following methods would BEST prove that a FAX was properly sent to its intended destination? a. The MA should attach a FAX confirmation sheet to the original document. b. The MA should call the intended destination to alert them that a FAX is on its way. c. The MA should FAX the information twice. d. The MA should EMAIL the information and FAX it. 314. Which of the following examples would be classified as Hardware? a. DOS b. Microsoft Office c. EMR d. Modem 315. The acronym HIPAA is: a. Health Insurance Portability Accrediting Association b. Health Insurance Portability Accrediting Agency c. Health Insurance Plan and Accountability Alliance d. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act 316. The following are used as filing methods, EXCEPT: a. Alphabetical b. Disease c. Numerical d. Subject 317. A filling system that consists of a series of 43 file folders including 12 monthly and 31 daily folders: a. Tickler file b. Color coding file c. Subject file d. Alpha-numerical file 318. All of the following are rules to be followed when charting, EXCEPT: a. Chart in black ink b. Use of correction fluid c. Write in legible handwriting d. If it was not charted, it was not done 319. Which of the following is NOT one of the C's of charting? a. Check b. Current c. Complete d. Concise 320. All of the following should be followed when purging medical records, EXCEPT: a. Medical records can be destroyed by shredding or burning. b. Facility should maintain a master list of all records. c. Medicare records should be maintained for 10 years. d. Medicaid records should be maintained for 5 years. 321. Patients who have died, moved away or terminated relationship with the practice are classified as: a. Inactive b. Closed c. Active d. Nuisance 322. Which of the following types of filing cabinets maximize the use of space? a. Vertical b. Lateral open-shelf c. Lateral drawer d. Rotary 323. Which is the most confidential filing system? a. Alphabetical filing b. Numerical filing c. Subject filing d. Color filing 324. What is the advantage of using color-coded labels? a. Misfiled records are easy to see. b. It is most frequently used in research. c. Only the staff knows the color codes. d. No need to add additional labels. 325. Which of the following is not included in the Present Illness History? a. Timing b. Location c. Allergies d. Associated symptoms 326. When a file is removed from the system, this file supply is inserted to alert that the file is being used: a. Outguides b. Labels c. File Guides d. File cabinet 327. In alphabetic filing, which name should be filed first? a. Schultz, Vin b. Schultz, Mary c. Schultz, Dory d. Schultz, Jerry 328. Which name should come first in alphabetic filing? a. Kelly, James b. Kely, Joe c. Keli, Jean d. Kelee, Joseph 329. Which of the following is not a basic step in filing records? a. Conditioning b. indexing c. Purging d. Coding 330. The acronym SOMR stands for: a. Source-Oriented Medical Record b. State of the Media Record c. Standardized Outpatient Medical Record d. Standard Oriented Medical Record 273. Coding systems are: a. used to place verbal descriptions of medical conditions or procedures into alphanumeric codes. b. a method of monitoring disease processes. c. used to allow for easier statistical tracking of medical conditions or procedural uses. d. All of the above. 274. ICD-10 coding books: a. are organized into three volumes. b. used to code diagnostic procedures. c. are revised bi-annually. d. None of the above. 275. Volume II of the ICD-10 coding book: a. is the three part alphabetical index. b. Contains procedural codes for specific diagnostic tests. c. contains three sections with Section 3 being the Index to Diseases. d. None of the above. 276. The CPT Coding Book: a. provides a 5 digit code for all procedures or services that may be performed on a patient. b. provides numeric codes that allows for easier communication with insurance providers. c. is divided into six sections. d. All of the above. 277. The following symbol (*): a. is used in the ICD-9 book to designate additional diagnoses. b. is found in the CPT book to designate revised guidelines for code use. c. designates variable pre and postoperative services. d. None of the above. 278. The modifier that notes, "Bilateral Procedure," is: a. -26 b. -50 c. -53 d. -24 279. In the CPT manual, codes in the range of 99201-99600 are: a. Surgical Codes b. Evaluation and Management Codes c. Radiology Codes d. All of the above. 280. When coding using HCPCS, a code that is accompanied by a diamond symbol would indicate: a. Special instructions are provided that describe how this code should be used to be included for reimbursement. b. This code is not covered or valid with Medicare. c. There is the potential for this code not to be covered by the insurance carrier. d. The code is new. 281. E&M codes: a. define a new patient as being one that is new to the practice or who hasn't been seen by that practice in at least three years. b. are defined as Evaluation and Medication codes. c. are selected based on criteria set forth by the American Medical Association. d. None of the above. 282. The first place to look for an ICD-10 code should be: a. in Volume III b. in Volume II and then confirmed in Volume I. c. in Volume IV with confirmation made in Volume III. d. None of the above. 283. There are two coding tables in Volume II of the ICD-10 book. What are they? a. Hypertension and Neoplasm b. Radiology and Laboratory Codes c. Cancer and Accidents d. None of the above. 284. A clause in an insurance policy that restricts overpayment of benefits due to more than one medical insurance policy is: a. not legal. b. known as coordination of benefits. c. used frequently by patients with only one policy. d. None of the above. 285. An HMO is: a. a group model of managed care. b. a health model that emphasized preventative care. c. can be part of a group or a single organization. d. All of the above. 286. To qualify for Medicare, a person must meet which of the following criteria? a. must be 65 or older unless disabled. b. must have contributed to FICA in the past. c. must have received Social Security Disability for more than 1 year. d. All of the above. 287. A patient receives Medicaid, but is also covered under Tricare. Which plan would serve as primary payer? a. Medicaid b. Tricare c. CHAMPVA d. None of the above. 288. Workman's Compensation claims: a. are federally managed. b. are kept separate from other insurance claims which are not Workman's Comp in nature. c. are to be shared with the patient's employer with full medical record review. d. None of the above. 289. Medicare Part A: a. covers inpatient care. b. covers outpatient care. c. is voluntary and pays 80% by Medicare and 20% by the patient. d. Allows participants to choose managed care plans. 290. When reading the CPT manual, a triangle next to a code notes: a. a new procedure b. revised code description c. add-on codes d. codes that are not to be used with modifier -51. 291. When considering coding for hospital stays, a _____________ is used to provide physicians with guidelines for admission and length of hospital stays. a. Diagnosis Related Group (DRG) b. Health Care Financing Administration Common Procedural Coding System (HCPCS) c. Relative Value Study (RVS) d. E and V Codes 292. Where would your office obtain additional legal copies of Medicare forms? a. From an agency listed in the Medicare fiscal agencies directory. b. Internal Revenue Service c. Centers for Disease Control d. A local CHAMPUS office 293. A deductible: a. is paid by the insurance company in full. b. is deducted from the payment owed the physician. c. is paid by the patient before insurance coverage pays for medical costs. d. is money owed the insurance company. 294. A document from an insurance carrier that tells the patient and the provider how the amount of the benefit was determined is the ____________. a. Utilization Review b. Basic medical c. Explanation of Benefits (EOB) d. Peer Review 295. Your patient has Medicare and a type of Medigap insurance. Where should you send the insurance claim when you file her insurance claim? a. The claim must be filed with Medicare first. b. The claim must be filed with the Medigap insurance carrier first. c. The claim must be filed with both insurance carries at the same time. d. A claim does not have to be filed. Payments from each policy will be automatic. 296. What term is used when an insurance company makes a payment directly to a physician? a. Direct deposit b. Fee compliance c. Assignment of benefits d. Actual charges 297. The CPT code for a flu shot is: a. 90658 b. 993.97 c. 1200 d. 542 298. The CPT code for an office visit is: a. 88467 b. 44391 c. 12001 d. 99214 299. In ICD-10, V codes are used to: a. Refer to specific conditions b. Refer to injury c. Refer to factors that influence health status d. Refer to external causes of injury 300. Morphology of neoplasm is coded as: a. M-code b. E code c. Codes 110-799 d. Codes 960-989 230. Which of the following pieces of information would be considered patient demographics? a. Patient's Age b. Patient's date of last X-ray c. Patient's current blood pressure d. Patient's last date of Rx refill 231. The "Write it Once" system is used in some offices as an alternative to: a. Computerized scheduling systems b. Hospital referral services c. Computerized bookkeeping d. Medical resource allocation 232. Restrictive endorsements on checks: a. Limit how a check can be cashed b. Restrict the amount of money that can be received from a check c. Prevents inaccurate records of deposit d. None of the above 233. When depositing checks in the bank: a. A deposit ticket must be filled out. b. Bills and checks must be listed individually c. A signature is needed to withdraw cash. d. All of the above. 234. A check stub: a. is a smaller form to the left of each check that is used to manually record information placed on the check that is distributed. b. is a booklet containing the banking information for the office. c. is information that is used to deposit funds into the holder's account when signed by the payee. d. None of the above. 235. In order to ensure that a check can only be cashed once, a. the office manager should keep a running list of all of the checks used by that office. b. the bank will destroy all checks and any records of the check. c. checks that have been cashed should be locked in a designated area. d. checks are stamped by the bank when cashed. 236. Deductions are: a. money owed to the practice. b. also known as debits. c. amounts that are to be added to the check register. d. None of the above. 237. Bank statements: a. show the current balance for that particular statement period. b. typically sent to the practice on a monthly basis. c. must be reconciled when received by the office. d. All of the above. 238. A patient sends a check to pay for her last office visit. That check bounces at the bank. Which of the following is the most likely scenario when dealing with this situation? a. The patient will be charged an NSF fee by the office. b. The patient will receive a letter from the bank stating that the account with the doctor's office is closed. c. The bank will honor the check and transfer funds to the office account. d. The patient will receive a notice from the bank stating that cash will be required for all future transactions with the office. 239. When writing a check, the amount of the check: a. is written in both numeric and word form. b. in most cases should exactly match the amount needed for the services rendered. c. should have the cents written as #/100 where # is the total cents needed. d. All of the above. 240. Assets are: a. Securities b. Machinery c. Merchandise d. All of the above. 241. Which of the following will increase the owner's equity? a. Drawing b. Revenue c. Expenses d. None of the above. 242. The best way to handle petty cash: a. is to assign one person to handle it. b. is to keep it locked in the back office until needed. c. is to replenish the supply only when it is completely depleted. d. None of the above. 243. A delivery has just been received in your office. Which of the following scenarios is best when dealing with orders? a. Designate one person to handle all deliveries to avoid confusion. b. Allow anyone in the office to handle deliveries as long as the packing slips and invoices are handled appropriately and at the time the supplies are put away. c. Immediately put all stock away allowing the person who ordered the materials to handle the packing slips. d. None of the above. 244. Geographical area is important when: a. establishing fee schedules. b. handling equipment orders. c. following office policy on bookkeeping. d. None of the above. 245. Aging accounts are addressed: a. typically every thirty days until payment is received. b. only by the office manager. c. mainly when patients visit the office. d. None of the above. 246. Collection mailings: a. are more economically feasible when handled using post cards rather than sealed envelopes and, therefore, the most used method of notifying patients by mail. b. are an attempt to notify a patient of a credit owed the patient. c. are considered, "Dun Messages." d. All of the above. 247. A patient has been receiving care from your office while fighting cancer. The patient dies before payment is received in the office. The best way to ensure that the office receives payment for services rendered is: a. contact the next of kin listed in the patient chart. b. file a claim against the patient's estate. c. Initiate a claim with a collections agency. d. There is no way to receive payment once a patient has expired. 248. FICA is: a. collected by the state to pay for insurance. b. used to pay for Social Security and Medicare. c. is voluntary. d. All of the above. 249. I-9 forms are: a. required by the federal government. b. require the employer to verify forms of identification. c. filed within three business days of hire. d. All of the above. 250. Liabilities are debt obligations. Which of the following formulas is accurate when calculating liabilities? a. Liabilities= Assets + Owner Equity b. Liabilities= Owner Equity - Assets c. Liabilities= Assets - Purchaser's Equity d. Liabilities= Assets - Owner's Equity 251. Which of the following collections scenarios is allowed by law? a. To ensure that someone will be available to take the call, collectors should call debtors after 10pm. b. To make the point clear to debtors, collectors should call the debtors daily until all debts are paid in full. c. Collections mailings should be sent daily on postcards to save money on postal notifications. d. All of the above are illegal collections practices. 252. When referring to collections, what is a "skip"? a. A patient who omits or skips a payment. b. A patient who has moved purposely to avoid paying a bill. c. A gesture of goodwill by the collections agent where a collections call is skipped for one month. d. None of the above. 253. To obtain collections through small claims court, a. Judgment must be made on behalf of the plaintiff. b. an attorney is not necessary. c. a judge will pass judgment but will not collect funds owed the practice. d. All of the above. 254. Which of the following is not considered an asset? a. Money b. Bank debts c. Medical and office equipment d. Land, buildings, furniture 255. A physician asks a medical assistant to run to the store to get stickers to give to children who come into the office for medical care. How should the medical assistant pay for the stickers? a. Accounts receivable b. Petty cash c. Accounts payable d. Personal check 256. A doctor's office recently bought new waiting room furniture and financed the purchase. From the perspective of the doctor's office, what is the nature of the debt owed to the vendor? a. Asset b. Account receivable c. Account payable d. Owner's equity 257. IRS Form W-2 refers to: a. Request for Federal Tax Identification Number b. Social Security number application form c. Wages and Tax statement d. Federal unemployment tax return 258. The government agency that regulates Medicaid and Medicare: a. HCFA b. CPT c. ICD d. OSHA 259. What coding system is used to code for procedures and medical services provided by the practitioner? a. ICD-10 b. HCPCS c. CPT d. FDA 260. All of the following are types of insurance plans, EXCEPT: a. EPO b. HMO c. PPO d. WHO 261. Which of the following is an insurance plan for military personnel and veterans? a. TRICARE b. HMO c. PPO d. EPO 262. What is the annual amount an insured must pay toward the cost of medical services before insurance policy benefits will begin covering medical costs? a. Copayment b. Deductible c. Fee for service d. Coinsurance 263. Which of the following are documents prepared by the insurance carrier that identifies the services covered by the policy, the amount billed by the provider, the amount paid by the insurance carrier and the amount for which the insured is responsible? a. Certificate of coverage b. Contingent beneficiary c. Explanation of benefits d. Coordination of benefits 264. Cash amounts that are paid out are called: a. Payables b. Disbursements c. Invoices d. Packing slips 265. Amounts that are owed to a business for services rendered or goods supplied are called: a. Liabilities b. Accounts receivable c. Vendor requisitions d. Disbursements 266. Assets = Liabilities + Owner Equity. Which accounting system uses this equation? a. Accounts receivable b. Single-entry c. Daily log d. Double-entry 267. The debt obligation of a business: a. Accounts receivable b. Equity c. Liability d. Asset 268. It is a one-write system in which all transactions for the day are recorded: a. Pegboard b. Single-entry c. Double entry d. Total practice 269. Which of the following is a form used in a medical office to reflect the professional services rendered during a patient visit? a. Ledger b. Superbill c. Point of service d. Claim 270. Which type of check is guaranteed that funds will be available upon redemption of the check? a. Cashier's check b. Money order c. Certified check d. All of the above 271. A physician submitted a bill for surgery when he actually just treated an abrasion. This practice is referred to as: a. Phantom billing b. Upcoding c. Unbundling d. Split billing 272. A physician visited a nursing home and billed ten patients; however, he only provided services to eight of them. This is referred to as: a. Ping-ponging b. Unbundling c. Gang visit d. Split visit 171. Elizabeth Kubler Ross is known for developing the Stages of Grief. Which of the following is true of these stages? a. All patients will go through all five stages of grief. b. Each patient will go through the stages of grief in the same order, but not necessarily in the same amount of time. c. Each patient who goes through the grieving process will experience some or all of the Stages of Grief in varying amounts of time. d. The Stages of Grief are an antiquated method of psychology and are not recognized in current practice. 172. The Hierarchy of Needs was proposed by which of the following Psychology researchers? a. Maslow b. Freud c. Erikson d. Skinner 173. Which of the following scenarios accurately describes, "Self-Actualization?" a. Finding belongingness to a group b. Recognizing one's worth to society c. Feeling safe in one's environment d. Reaching one's full potential 174. According to Life's Eight Development Stages, Trust and Mistrust are most likely experienced: a. Shortly after birth b. The pre-teen years c. Middle age d. Old age 175. Classical conditioning is demonstrated in which of the following examples? a. A child starts crying upon mention of going to the doctor. b. A dog barks when seeing a stranger. c. A patient is startled when a medical assistant quickly opens a door without announcing his presence. d. A baby boy urinates every time his diaper is removed to be changed. 176. B.F. Skinner is regarded as being the primary researcher for which learning method? a. Classical Conditioning b. Operant Conditioning c. Trial and Error d. Kinesthetic Learning Principle 177. Non-Verbal Communication is: a. Not the most utilized form of communication b. Uses facial expression and body language to send messages c. Most often used when sending messages over email or telephone d. An ineffective manner of communication 178. Which of the following scenarios provides an example of a medical assistant overcoming a barrier to communication? a. A medical assistant uses lecture as a means of explaining how to run a finger stick glucose test to an elderly patient. b. A medical assistant writes her directions to a patient that is hearing impaired. c. A medical assistant speaks loudly to a patient who speaks a non-English language. d. A medical assistant uses the terms, "micturate," and, "defecation," while talking with a minor. 179. A patient who is displaying the defense mechanism of Compensation would: a. Refuse to hear unwanted information. b. Transfer feelings of negativity to someone else. c. Overemphasize behaviors which accommodate for perceived weaknesses. d. Place blame on others for personal actions or mistakes. 180. Assuming that an elderly patient will have a difficult time understanding the directions for how to take medication is an example of: a. Prejudice b. Stereotyping c. Encoding d. Rationalization 181. Which of the following questions is considered, "Open Ended,"? a. What time did you last take your medications? b. Are you feeling ok right now? c. Please describe your symptoms? d. What day are you available for a follow-up appointment? 182. What are the three necessary components of communication? a. Sender, Receiver, Feedback b. Sender, Message, Receiver c. Message, Feedback, Clarification d. Sender, Interpretation, Receiver 183. Which of the following would be an inappropriate and potentially unlawful interview question? a. Where do you see yourself in 5 years? b. Do you have any commitments outside of work that would hinder your ability to be a high-performer? c. How do your children feel about your decision to work here? d. If you could pick any color, which would it be? 184. A patient that is using a psychological behavior to deal with negative emotions is said to be employing a: a. Defense mechanism b. Therapeutic use of self c. Behavioral modification d. Essential use of rationalization 185. A patient displays the following body language: Slumped shoulders, grimace, and stiff joints. What message is this patient sending? a. Anger b. Aloofness c. Empathy d. Depression 186. To assure that a medical assistant has understood what a patient has stated, which of the following scenarios would BEST verify understanding? a. Repeat what the patient said word for word. b. Repeat parts of what the patient has stated. c. Summarize what the patient stated asking questions where you are unclear. d. Ask the patient to repeat what he said. 187. A patient has been coming to your office for many years. You know the patient and her family very well as they are all cared for by your office. The patient has invited you to her son's wedding. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this invitation? a. Decline the invitation but convey your best wishes. b. Decline the invitation stating that it is against office policy to socialize with patients. c. Accept the invitation but do not let anyone else in the office know that you are attending. d. Accept the invitation if others in your office were also invited. 188. A patient who refuses to believe a terminal diagnosis is exhibiting: a. Regression b. Mourning c. Denial d. Rationalization 189. Which Stage of Grief is exhibited in the following scenario: A patient has reported that after the loss of his spouse, he has been having difficulty sleeping and has been agitated. He doesn't have the motivation to complete day to day tasks. a. Denial b. Anger c. Depression d. Acceptance 190. A patient is becoming belligerent at the front desk due to a long wait. Which of the following would BEST handle the situation? a. Offer to reschedule the patient. b. Allow the patient to blow off steam by giving her time to vent her frustrations. c. Tell the patient that the doctor will be with her in 5 minutes. d. Tell the patient politely that you are not to be spoken to so rudely and she should return to her seat until the doctor is ready to see her. 191. Two medical assistants work very closely in their office. Over the past few weeks the atmosphere has become tense between the two of them. Arguments are becoming a daily occurrence and both MAs are starting to consider not going work just to avoid an altercation. Which of the following is true regarding this situation? a. Productivity in the office will suffer due to poor employee morale. b. The best way to solve this situation is to identify the problem and come up with a mutually acceptable solution. c. Stress or stress related medical conditions are some of the most common reasons why employees choose to call off. d. All of the above are correct. 192. When interviewing a potential employee, which of the following questions is legal and would give the interviewer the MOST USEFUL information? a. Tell me about a time when you had to use critical thinking skills to solve an issue that you were having on the job. b. Have you been in the medical field for a long time? c. Will your family obligations keep you from performing at your best? d. Do you feel that your morals will affect the way that you perform your assigned tasks? 193. You have been assigned the task of writing a patient education pamphlet to instruct patients on how to correctly collect a 24-hour urine sample. Which of the following would be the BEST way to accomplish this task? a. Choose professional terminology (such as using "micturate" for urinate) so as to not offend patients. b. Choose terminology that patients would use in every day conversation. c. Suggest that someone more experienced should handle this task to avoid making a mistake which could harm patients. d. Suggest that the physician instruct patients on proper specimen techniques since she will be the one who orders the test. 194. When considering growth and psychological development, which of the following is TRUE? a. Growth and Development are considered to be evolving until the subject is around 20 yrs. old. b. Growth is considered to be evolving until the subject is around 20 yrs. old. Psychological development is ongoing throughout life. c. Psychological development often matures along the same timeframe as growth spurts. d. Growth and psychological development are independent of each other and have no influence on one another. 195. When considering Sigmund Freud's Psychosexual Development theory, morals and values are found: a. with the Id b. with the Ego c. with the Superego d. None of the above. 196. Which of the following is the highest in Maslow's hierarchy of needs? a. Self-esteem b. Safety c. Social d. Self-actualization 197. Which of the following is not considered nonverbal communication? a. Facial expressions b. Interjection c. Hand gestures d. Posture 198. The 5 stages of grief, according to Elizabeth Kubler Ross, come in the following order: a. Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance b. Anger, Bargaining, Denial, Acceptance, Depression c. Bargaining, Denial, Acceptance, Depression, Anger d. Acceptance, Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression 199. In the U.S., the personal space used in public is: a. 1 to 4 feet b. 4 to 12 feet c. 12 to 15 feet d. Up to 2 feet 200. What is a phobia? a. Irrational fear of objects or situations b. Reaction to actual danger c. Obsessions d. Compulsion to do something 201. Which of the following is not a barrier to communication? a. Embarrassment b. Stereotyping c. Withdrawal d. Acknowledgment 202. An employee hates her superior but instead of acting in accordance with her feelings, she overly cares for him and expresses a desire to retire with the company someday. What defense mechanism is the employee exhibiting? a. Denial b. Projection c. Sublimation d. Reaction Formation 203. A belief that all members of a culture, subculture or group are the same: a. Prejudice b. Projection c. Stereotyping d. Maligning 204. An employee becomes angry with his boss. Instead of expressing his anger to the boss for fear of losing his job, the employee punches a wall. What defense mechanism is the employee exhibiting? a. Repression b. Displacement c. Intellectualization d. Rationalization 205. When interviewing a patient, an effective technique that the medical assistant can use is: a. Rationalizing b. Stereotyping c. Clarifying d. Probing 206. Which of the following is an anxiety about being in situations in which escape might be difficult? a. Agorphobia b. Phobia c. Panic disorder d. Obsessive-Compulsive disorder 207. When we justify our thoughts or actions whether it is right or wrong: a. Rationalization b. Sublimation c. Feedback d. Displacement 208. According to Sigmund Freud, a child can be fixated at this psychosexual stage if he or she becomes obsessed with control, perfection and cleanliness? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Latency 209. Which of the following is not an effective communication strategy for the visually-impaired? a. Alerting the patient before touching him. b. Increase your tone so he can understand you better. c. Describe surroundings and locations of structures. d. Allowing the patient to touch instruments and things when appropriate. 210. According to Jean Piaget, once children acquire language, they are able to use symbols such as words or pictures to represent objects. Which stage of cognitive development is this? a. Sensorimotor b. Preoperational c. Concrete operational d. Formal operational 211. A nurse says to a patient "Just so I understand, you said that . . . ". This type of communication is: a. Restating b. Reflecting c. Focusing d. Probing 212. Which of the following best describes Kubler-Ross's Stages of Grief? a. Denial is the first stage of grief that patients experience. b. All patients go through the same stages of grief. c. Depression is the last stage of grief that patients experience. d. Each dying patient and their family members have individual experiences. 213. A husband gets really angry at his wife but accuses her of being made at him. This defense mechanism is: a. Denial b. Splitting c. Projection d. Reaction formation 214. When dealing with a hearing- impaired patient, which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy? a. Eliminate as much background noise as possible. b. Touch the patient's arm or shoulder gently to get the patient's attention. c. Speak in a normal tone. d. Use visual aids as appropriate. 215. Holding a negative opinion or bias regarding a person because of the person's affiliation with a specific group: a. Projection b. Prejudice c. Persecute d. Prosecute 216. The body's reaction to stress is: a. Fight or flight b. Denial c. Anger d. Acceptance 217. A baby rolls over and sits up. What is the stage of growth and development of this baby? a. 0-3 months b. 4-7 months c. 8-12 months d. 13-18 months 218. An example of a close-ended question is: a. "Tell me about yourself." b. "Do you have asthma in your family?" c. "What are you thinking about?" d. "What brings you to the clinic today?" 219. A student plays video games instead of studying, justifying that further study would not do any good anyway. This defense mechanism is: a. Rationalization b. Sublimation c. Denial d. Displacement 220. Which of the following is not considered verbal communication? a. Telephone call b. Radio advertisement c. Email correspondence d. Talking face-to-face 221. A hungry baby cried her eyes out until she was fed. According to Freud, which part of the psyche is responsible for this? a. Superego b. Id c. Ego d. All of the above 222. The patent says "I have many responsibilities in my life: my parents, my children, and my job." The medical assistant responds by saying "Of all the responsibilities you have pointed out, which is causing you the most stress?" What communication technique is the medical assistant using? a. Clarifying b. Focusing c. Reflecting d. Summarizing 223. At what age group do bone and muscle mass start to decease and wrinkles appear? a. 20-30 b. 30-40 c. 40-50 d. 60-70 224. Which of the following is not a barrier to communication? a. Using medical terminology b. Giving advice c. Restating statements of the patient d. Leading questions 225. According to Freud, which component of personality is in contact with reality? a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Alter ego 226. At what stage of Erik Erickson's psychosocial development is achieving one's life goals while considering the welfare of future generations? a. Identity vs. Role Confusion b. Initiative vs. Guilt c. Ego integrity vs. Despair d. Generativity vs. Stagnation 227. The shared patterns of behaviors and interactions learned through the process of socialization: a. Cult b. Culture c. Class d. Coalition 228. A patient who was diagnosed with lung cancer starts sucking his thumb and assumes a fetal position. What defense mechanism is he manifesting? a. Sublimation b. Regression c. Repression d. Denial 229. A teenager is mad because he doesn't want to eat vegetables. Because of this, she develops abdominal pain. This is an example of: a. Reaction formation b. Somatization c. Intellectualization d. Repression 95. The Common Law source of laws is: a. Derived from Customs and Judicial Decisions b. Derived from the US. Constitution c. Derived from State/Federal Legislation d. None of the above 96. A woman is being accused of failure to pay her medical bills. Which of the following classifications of law is she violating? a. Criminal Law b. Civil Law c. Felony d. Family Law 97. A medical assistant graduate wishes to receive credentials in the State of Ohio. She voluntarily chooses to take an examination from the American Association of Medical Assistants. When she passes the exam, she will receive the CMA (AAMA) credential. Which of the following is true? a. The graduate has elected to become certified. b. The graduate has chosen to become licensed by the State of Ohio. c. The graduate will be registered as a Medical Assistant when she passes the AAMA examination. d. None of the above. 98. When practicing reciprocity, which of the following is true of the CMA (AAMA) credentials? a. The CMA (AAMA) credential indicates licensure in all 50 states. b. The CMA (AAMA) credential is interchangeable with other medical assisting credentials in all 50 states. c. The CMA (AAMA) credential is a national credential and may be recognized in all 50 states. d. None of the above. 99. A physician is explaining a procedure to a patient that may cure her recurring Staph infection. The doctor explains how the procedure is done, what to expect, the odds of the procedure curing the infection, and possible side effects and risks. The physician is: a. Preparing the patient to give informed consent. b. Protecting HIPAA by listing all of the steps of the procedure with the risks involved. c. Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies. d. None of the above. 100. An emancipated minor has come to the office for information on cervical cancer and has also requested testing. The office is not required to inform the patient's parents because: a. Cervical cancer is closely related to STDs, so the office is covered by law to not be required to notify the minor's parent. b. Emancipated minors have legal independence from parents or legal guardians. c. Testing for cervical cancer can be done on minors without legal parental or guardian consent. d. None of the above. 101. After a lengthy explanation of a medical procedure, the patient asks many questions. The physician answers all of the questions to the best of her ability. The patient then gives consent for treatment. The costly equipment and supplies are put into place and the patient is prepared. Two minutes before the procedure is to start, the patient begins panicking and changes her mind. Which of the following situations would be the best way to avoid litigation? a. Document that the patient originally gave consent and proceed if the benefits of the procedure outweigh the patient's wishes. b. Have the patient sign a form that she is refusing consent. If she refuses to sign, proceed with the procedure. c. Repeat the explanation of the procedure until the patient understands that having the procedure done is the best form of treatment. Proceed with the procedure. d. Do not proceed. Document the patient's refusal, have the patient sign a refusal to consent to treatment. If the patient refuses to sign the form, have a witness available to sign. 102. Advanced directives are: a. Required by law. b. Chosen by family members. c. Used to support a patient's wishes. d. Costly and difficult to prove by law. 103. A patient sues a physician for malpractice. The judge awards in favor of the physician. The patient cannot re-sue the physician due to: a. Res ipsa loquitur b. Res judicata c. Respondeat superior d. Supoena duces tecum 104. Of the 4 Ds of Negligence, which exists when the physician pays for injuries that the client sustained due to improper care? a. Duty b. Derelict c. Direct Cause d. Damages 105. Malpractice that has been ruled because of a physician's failure to act is a form of: a. Misfeasance b. Malfeasance c. Infeasance d. Nonfeasance 106. A medical assistant volunteers her time at a local charity run checking blood pressures. She: a. is covered under The Good Samaritan Law because she is volunteering her time. b. is not covered under The Good Samaritan Law because she is performing the duties of a medical assistant. c. is covered under The Good Samaritan Law because she is performing the duties of a medical assistant. d. possibly may be covered depending on how many blood pressures she takes. 107. Torts are: a. Civil wrongs subject to a lawsuit. b. Acts of Criminal Law c. Not legally enforceable in free clinic settings. d. Punishable by imprisonment in a federal penitentiary. 108. Who of the following wrote a medical code of ethics? a. Hammurabi b. Tomas Percival c. Hippocrates d. All of the above. 109. An example of slander is: a. A medical assistant falsely criticizing another medical assistant's skills. b. A medical assistant restraining a patient against her will. c. A medical assistant writing defamatory statements about a doctor on her Facebook wall. d. A medical assistant calling a coder's supervisor to report a billing error. 110. A patient pulls up her sleeve in preparation for an injection. This is an example of: a. Informed Consent b. Implied Consent c. Unwritten Contractual Consent d. Expressed Consent 111. Which of the following agency sets the standards for employee safety in the medical office? a. AAMA b. AMA c. CDC d. OSHA 112. In order to address ethical issues, a. Professional organizations establish codes and creeds. b. Employers force employees to sign moral standards requirements upon beginning employment. c. Employers encourage employees to attend religious service. d. Potential candidates for a position in health care will be screened for moral and ethical shortcomings. 113. A medical assistant witnesses a coworker forging a signature on a patient's chart. Which of the following is most true? a. The forgery is not a criminal act, but a civil violation. b. The medical assistant who witnessed the forgery is completely innocent of any act. c. The medical assistant the witnessed the forgery is liable for wrong doing if she does not report the incident. d. The forgery of the document is nonfeasance. 114. A medical assistant who fails to act in a manner that is considered reasonable for someone working in that job capacity is considered to be: a. Fraudulent b. Abusive c. Acting outside of her scope of practice d. Negligent 115. The Latin term meaning, "the thing has been decided," is: a. meant by the phrase, "Res ipsa liquitur," and says that a claim cannot be retried between two parties. b. meant by the phrase, "Res judicata," and says that a claim cannot be retried between two parties. c. meant by the phrase, "Subpoena duces tecum." d. meant by the phrase, "Respondeat superior." 116. Of the four d's of negligence, which implies that any damages or injuries that resulted from the physician's breach of duty were directly related to that breach and that no intermittent circumstances or intervening acts couldn't have caused the damage? a. Duty b. Derelict c. Damages d. Direct Cause 117. Governing the relationship between patients and physicians are: a. Rules of conduct called medical ethics. b. Legal laws set forth by the federal government. c. Rules of etiquette taught in health career education programs. d. Codes of conduct set forth by the American Association of Medical Assistants. 118. In which of the following examples would informed consent be required? a. A patient is apprehensive about an upcoming surgery and chooses not to learn of the risks involved with the procedure. b. A child is rushed to the Emergency Room after falling from a third story window. c. An adult in a coma in a mental health institution with no listed next of kin. d. None of the above require informed consent. 119. A woman has died as a result of a motor vehicle accident. She is listed as an organ donor and her family wants to comply with her wishes. Which of the following is true? a. The woman would have had to list herself as an organ donor and notify her family prior to her death that she has considered donating her organs. b. The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act requires the physician caring for the patient to inform the family who receives the donor organs. c. Physicians can choose to go against the deceased's wishes if the family decides that organ donation is not an acceptable choice. d. Physicians have the legal responsibility to inform patients of the risks involved in donating organs. 120. Which of the following labor situations is unlawful? a. An employee is told to retire because she has turned 65 years old. b. telling an employee that she must take a lunch period. c. not paying an employee who has run out of sick time for hours spent off the clock due to illness. d. All of the above are lawful situations. 121. To maintain a professional image, all of the following must be followed, EXCEPT: a. Leave personal problems at home b. Conduct personal business during office hours c. Do not procrastinate d. Avoiding gossip 122. Which of the following best describes empathy? a. Ability to adapt b. Willingness to work independently c. Putting oneself into the patient's situation d. Ability to communicate 123. Ghost surgery is a term describing which of the following: a. The patient was not the one who signed the consent. b. A different physician performed the surgery on the patient. c. The patient died during surgery. d. The surgery did not actually happen. 124. Which characteristic of professional behavior describes the ability to perform one's job to standards? a. Professional demeanor b. Team work c. Confidentiality d. Competence 125. All of the following are credentials given to a medical assistant who passes a certification exam, EXCEPT: a. CMA b. CCMA c. AMA d. RMA 126. A false or malicious writing against another person: a. Fraud b. Slander c. Libel d. Battery 127. Which of the following describes the ability or willingness to work independently? a. Flexibility b. Dexterity c. Competence d. Initiative 128. Which of the following is not within the scope of the professional duties of a medical assistant? a. Documenting a patient's general information on the patient's chart b. Drawing a fasting blood glucose test c. Prescription writing to patients d. Tracking supplies in the medical office 129. The performance of a lawful action in an illegal or improper manner: a. Misfeasance b. Malfeasance c. Malpractice d. Nonfeasance 130. The credential given to a medical assistant who passed the exam by the AAMA: a. RMA b. CCMA c. CMA d. AMA 131. Which of following is not a characteristic of professional behavior? a. Compassionate b. Influential c. Competent d. Ethical 132. Which of the following is not one of the 4 D's of negligence? a. Duty b. Derelict c. Danger d. Direct cause 133. "Res ipsa loquitur" refers to: a. The master is responsible. b. The thing speaks for itself. c. It is what it is. d. What comes around, goes around. 134. Criminal offenses that are punishable by up to a year in jail: a. Felony b. Infraction c. Misdemeanor d. Summary offense 135. Formerly called JCAHO, Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations: a. CLIA b. ADA c. CON d. TJC 136. What principle of law stands for the proposition that a physician is liable for her employees while working under her supervision? a. Res ipsa loquitur b. Respondeat superior c. Negligence d. Malpractice 137. A patient has been established to be "non compos mentis". What does this mean as far as the condition of the patient? a. Not an adult yet b. Unable to read and write c. Not of sound mind d. Under the guidance of her parents 138. What regulatory standard requires clinical laboratories to be certified before they accept human samples for diagnostic testing? a. OSHA b. CLIA c. TJC d. HIPAA 139. According to the Labor Standards Act, employee health records are required to be retained for: a. 10 years b. 3 years c. Varies by state, but usually 10 years after last date of employment d. Permanently 140. What body regulates the laws concerning workplace discrimination? a. JCAHO b. United States Employment and Equal Opportunity Commission c. United States Equal Employment Opportunity Commission d. American Disability Association 141. A specific statement that is written by an agency that depicts the minimum level of care is a(n): a. Goal b. Objective c. Regulation d. Standard 142. A formal contract between two or more health care team members to provide services to a patient is a: a. Referral b. Recommendation for Care c. Contract for Care d. Physicians Agreement 143. A voluntary credential process usually made by a nongovernment agency is: a. Registration b. Certification c. Licensure d. Physicians Agreement 144. To comply with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), the physician must provide the patient with: a. Office policy and procedure manual b. Notice of privacy practices c. Current fee schedule d. Staff member credentials 145. Physicians are required to keep payroll data for how many years? a. 3 years b. 4 years c. 5 years d. For all years the physician owns the practice 146. During Carole's yearly review, her supervisor complimented her on being trustworthy and reliable. Choose the term that fits this compliment. a. Flexible b. Dependable c. Respectful d. Tactful 147. Carissa Martin has just had a first job interview after graduating from a medical assisting degree program. What would be the appropriate follow-up Carissa should take after the interview? a. Carissa should call the person who interviewed her in two days and ask if she got the job. b. Carissa should call the person who interviewed her the next week and ask for a second interview. c. Carissa should send a handwritten thank-you note to the person who conducted the interview. d. Carissa should send copies of her reference letters to Human Resources office the week after the interview. 148. John is the most recent MA to be employed at a pediatric clinic. He felt unappreciated when his suggestion at a staff meeting was considered but not implemented, whereas some suggestions from others were used. What should John's strategy be for further participation in office meetings? a. John should ask to have the next meeting extended to discuss his suggestion further. b. John should focus on being a team player and to put his personal feelings aside. c. John should go ahead with his plan and the supervisor will see his idea works better. d. John should advise his supervisor that he would prefer not to be part of office meetings. 149. Mrs. Carter, a patient at a health clinic, is quite ill and makes an appointment to discuss some issues with the physician. Prior to her seeing the doctor, Mrs. Carter asks a medical assistant what the formal name is for the document that helps make clear what she wants in the event that her illness becomes terminal. The medical assistant should tell her this would be called (a): a. Living will b. Euthanasia c. Trust d. Durable Power of Attorney 150. Dr. Findlay is retiring and closing his practice. What is the practice required to do? a. Inform the patients that he will no longer be able to assist them. b. Telephone each patient personally and tell them that they should pick up their records. c. Inform the patients in writing that the practice is closing and provide instructions for retrieving their medical records. d. There is no obligation for a practice to take any actions. 151. Dr. Dastvan receives a legal document requiring him to appear in court and to provide a patient's original medical record. What Latin phrase describes this situation? a. Res ipsa loquitur b. Respondeat superior c. Subpoena duces tecum d. Stare decisis 152. Dr. Jones closed his medical practice and moved to another state while he had patients under his care. He failed to inform his patients that that he was terminating their treatment. What cause of action may be brought against Dr. Jones by his patients? a. Breach of Contract b. Noncompliance c. Defamation d. Abandonment 153. Registered Medical Assistant (RMA) credential is awarded by which certification agency? a. AMT b. AAMA c. AMA d. NHA 154. The acronym AAMA refers to: a. Association of American Medical Assistants b. American Association of Medical Assistants c. American Alliance for Medical Assistants d. American Administration for Medical Assistants 155. If a medical assistant defies the doctor and refuses to obey his orders, it is an act of: a. Prejudice b. Sarcasm c. Insubordination d. Tenacity 156. Putting off pending tasks to a later time, sometimes completing the task right before the deadline is: a. Proactive b. Indolent c. Procrastinate d. Negligent 157. Which of the following is an example of professional conduct? a. Coming in a little late, but going home at a later time. b. Assisting fellow workers and expecting praise. c. Saying "no" to office politics and gossiping. d. Getting information about fellow employees and telling the supervisor about the information. 158. Two patients arrive at the office simultaneously, one with severe high blood pressure and the other one with severe head ache. Deciding which patient is to be seen by the doctor first is referred to as: a. screening b. deprioritize c. triage d. selecting 159. Which of the following locations offers the most protection to confidential communications? a. Waiting room b. Reception area c. Examination room d. Cafeteria 160. Which attribute should the physician consider in hiring a medical assistant? a. Dependent b. Initiative c. Incompetent d. Indolent 161. If a medical assistant stops a patient from leaving the clinic against her will, and without medical or legal justification, the patient can accuse the medical assistant of: a. Harassment b. Invasion of privacy c. Fraud d. False imprisonment 162. Charging patients for medical procedures and treatments that were actually not performed is: a. Negligence b. Embezzlement c. Felony d. Fraud 163. An area of study that deals with ideas about what is good and bad behavior: a. Law b. Ethics c. Tort d. Malfeasance 164. The Latin phrase "Quid pro quo" refers to: a. Something for something b. Captain of the ship c. The evidence speaks for itself d. Malpractice 165. Laws that are intended to reduce bystanders' hesitation to assist, for fear of being sued or prosecuted for unintentional injury or wrongful death: a. Estate law b. Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) c. Good Samaritan Law d. Constitutional Law 166. The highest law of the United States: a. International Law b. Public Law c. Supreme Court Law d. U. S. Constitution 167. Not stopping for a stop-sign is a: a. Misdemeanor b. Felony c. Summary offense or infraction d. Penalty 168. Serious crimes such as homicide, rape and arson fall into what classification? a. Misdemeanor b. Infraction c. Felony d. Heinous 169. A corporate manager decided to divert corporate money to some of his family members who are not employed with the company by adding them to the payroll. This is an example of: a. Negligence b. Breach of confidentiality c. Splitting d. Embezzlement 170. The intentional touching of, or application of force to the body of another person in a harmful manner: a. Assault b. Battery c. Fraud d. Larceny 1. The term, "Afferent Nerve," means: a. Carrying an impulse to the brain b. Carrying an impulse away from the brain c. Carrying impulses to the motor neurons of the appendicular muscles d. None of the above 2. The medical erm, "basophilia," refers to: a. an attachment of the epithelial cells of the skin to a basement membrane b. An overabundance of a particular white blood cell in the peripheral blood c. An underrepresentation of basophils on a blood smear. d. None of the above 3. When considering the structural organization of the human body, which of the following is the basic unit of life? a. Chemicals b. Atoms c. Molecules d. Cells 4. When a patient is standing in anatomical position, where are his feet? a. Facing forward with the toes spread open b. Facing out to the sides to open the hips c. Side by side and facing forward; toes resting comfortably. d. The feet are pointed inward. 5. A physician asks you to place the patient with his dorsal side facing the exam table. Which of the following accurately describes the how the patient is positioned? a. The patient is lying prone. b. The patient is lying supine. c. The patient is lying in the recovery position. d. The patient is lying on his stomach. 6. The body plane that divides the body into right and left sides is the: a. Frontal Plane b. Medical Plane c. Median Plane d. Transverse Plane 7. A patient is asked to abduct her arms. Which of the following accurately describes her arm movement? a. She moves her arms away from her trunk. b. She moves her arms toward her trunk. c. She rotates her arms at the wrists while holding them toward her feet. d. She crosses her arms over her abdomen. 8. Which of the following sets of word parts means, "Pain"? a. -dynia and -algia b. a- and an c. -ia and -ac d. -pathy and -osis 9. A common childhood illness is caused by the Bordatella pertussis bacterium. Which of the following diseases is caused by this bacteria? a. German Measles b. RSV c. Meningitis d. Whooping Cough 10. Which of the following glands found in the skin secretes a liquid called, "Sebum?" a. Apocrine Glands b. Sebaceous Glands c. Lacrimal Glands d. Sweat Glands 11. A patient that has been diagnosed with alopecia would be described as having: a. body lice b. lack of ear lopes c. Indigestion d. hair loss 12. A patient presents with vesicles covering the upper torso. Which of the following situations could cause this condition? a. Knife fight b. Auto accident c. Sun burn d. Fungal infection 13. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone? a. compound fracture of the fibula b. a partial break in a long bone c. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist d. Colles fracture of the tibia 14. When reading a lab report, you notice that a patient's sample is described as having anisocytosis. Which of the following most accurately describes the patient's condition? a. The patient has an abnormal condition of skin cells. b. The patient's red blood cells vary in size. c. The patient has a high level of fat cells and is obese. d. The patient's cells are indicative of necrosis. 15. One of the three smallest bones in the body is the: a. Vomer b. Distal phalange of the small toe c. Stapes d. Coccyx 16. A patient is having a colposcopy procedure performed. How should the patient be instructed to prepare for the procedure? a. NPO for 8-12 hours before the procedure. b. D/C all HTN Rx for two days prior to the procedure. c. Take three Dulcolax tablets and two containers of Miralax the day before to clear out the lower GI system. d. None of the above prep is necessary for this type of procedure. 17. Which of the following organs would be described as being located retroperitoneally? a. Kidneys b. Thymus c. Small Intestines d. Spleen 18. The heat-regulating center of the brain is the: a. Hypothalamus b. Pituitary Gland c. Pons d. Medulla Oblongata 19. A patient with Bell's Palsy would have which of the following complaints? a. Paralysis of the right or left arm b. Malfunction of a certain cranial nerve c. A sub-condition of Cerebral Palsy d. A side effect of a stroke 20. A pathologic condition described as, "Increased intraocular pressure of the eye," is: a. Detached Retina b. Fovea Centralis c. Presbyopia d. Glaucoma 21. The anatomic structure located in the middle of the heart which separates the right and left ventricles is the: a. Septum b. Sputum c. Separator d. None of the above. 22. Which of the following boney landmarks is described by, "large, blunt, irregularly shaped process, such as that found on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur"? a. Tubercle b. Tuberosity c. Condyle d. Trochanter 23. The Atlas and the Axis: a. are found in the vertebrae. b. can be described as being cervical. c. are the first two bones that form the column for the spine on the superior aspect. d. All of the above. 24. The body system that functions to maintain fluid balance, support immunity and contains the spleen is the: a. Lymphatic System b. Digestive System c. Urinary System d. Reproductive System 25. The duodenum: a. is the third section of the small intestine, which leads immediately to the colon. b. is the section of the stomach where the gall bladder delivers bile. c. is the section of the small intestine where the pancreas delivers insulin. d. None of the above. 26. This particular gland of the endocrine system secretes a hormone that is known to assist with the sleep/ wake cycle. What gland is it? a. Pituitary b. Pineal c. Pancreas d. Hypothalamus 27. A doctor writes out a prescription for medication to be taken as needed for pain. Which of the following abbreviations could the medical assistant expect to see on the prescription form? a. CHF b. ATB c. Ac d. Prn 28. A patient has been diagnosed with a mycotic condition. Which of the following drug types would be used to treat this condition? a. Antifungal b. Antiarrhythmic c. Diuretic d. Antiemetic 29. The flap of tissue that covers the trachea upon swallowing is called the: a. Epidermis b. Endocardium c. Epiglottis d. Epistaxis 30. A physician's order instructs a medical assistant to take a temperature at the axilla. Where would the MA place the thermometer? a. In the rectum b. In the mouth c. On the temples d. In the armpit 31. The word part found at the beginning of a medical term, is most likely a: a. Prefix b. Suffix c. Combining Vowel d. Combining Consonant 32. The lateral malleolus is comprised of which of the following bones? a. Fibula b. Tibia c. Malleolus d. Ilium 33. The most common vowel used to combine word parts in medical terms is an: a. A b. E c. I d. O 34. Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? a. Polycystic b. Diaphragm c. Cocycx d. Bradycardic 35. Which of the following medical terms means, "surgical fixation of the stomach"? a. Abdominorrhaphy b. Gastroplasty c. Gastropexy d. Abdominorrhexis 36. Which of the following abbreviations means, "before meals"? a. Ac b. Prn c. Qid d. Qh 37. A procedure that examines a portion of the large intestine with an endoscope is called: a. Colposcopy b. Sigmoidoscopy c. Upper GI d. Cardiac catheterization 38. The mitral valve is synonymous with the term: a. Left ventricle b. Right atrium c. Bicuspid valve d. Tricuspid valve 39. In the term, "Hemoglobin," the suffix, "-globin," means: a. Protein b. Iron c. Metal d. Blood 40. A patient suffering from hyperglycemia would be experiencing: a. Low blood sugar b. High blood sugar c. Normal blood sugar d. None of the above. 41. The root word for bone marrow is: a. Spin/o b. Myel/o c. Myc/o d. Oste/o 42. The part of the stomach that is connected to the esophagus: a. Fundus b. Pylorus c. Body d. Cardia 43. A patient was diagnosed with cardiomyopathy. What does this condition refer to? a. Disease of the electricity of the heart b. Heart attack c. Disease of the heart muscle d. Insufficient blood flow to the heart 44. In an ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg is most likely developing in what part of the reproductive system of the female? a. Fallopian tube b. Uterus c. Ovary d. Cervix 45. The root word lapar/o means: a. chest b. skull c. abdomen d. neck 46. The "transverse" plane of the body is also known as the __________. a. frontal plane b. cross-sectional plane c. coronal plane d. sagittal plane 47. Which of the following is the suffix for "to create an opening"? a. -ectomy b. -tomy c. -stomy d. -logy 48. An abnormal curvature of the spine is a disease called: a. Spina bifida b. Scoliosis c. Osteomyelitis d. Osteomalacia 49. What prefix means "below"? a. Infra- b. Ante- c. Contra- d. Retro- 50. The valves on the right side of the heart are: a. Tricuspid and Mitral valves b. Pulmonic and Aortic valves c. Tricuspid and Pulmonic valves d. Mitral and Aortic valves 51. The medical term for reduced blood flow is: a. Infarction b. Embolus c. Ischemia d. Thrombosis 52. The lifting of the shoulders and turning of the head is controlled by: a. Cranial nerve 12 b. Cranial nerve 11 c. Cranial nerve 10 d. Cranial nerve 9 53. What is the term for slow breathing? a. Bradycardia b. Bradyarrhythmia c. Bradypnea d. Bradykinesia 54. The following are true statements of the urinary bladder, EXCEPT: a. It serves as temporary reservoir of urine. b. It is located in the abdominal cavity. c. It is muscular so it can expel the urine. d. It is hollow so it can expand when it is filling. 55. What is the procedure to detect cancer in the large intestines? a. Cholecystectomy b. Laparoscopy c. Angioplasty d. Colonoscopy 56. What type of muscle tissue is cardiac muscle? a. Striated and voluntary b. Striated and involuntary c. Smooth and voluntary d. Smooth and involuntary 57. Which of the following correctly spells the suffix for "discharge or flow"? a. -rrhea b. -ria c. -rhia d. -rrhia 58. The following are true statements about the heart, EXCEPT: a. The heart is a located in between the lungs called mediastinum. b. It exhibits the property of contractility. c. The left side pumps blood to the lungs for oxygenation. d. The right side of the heart pumps blood to the pulmonary artery for oxygenation. 59. If the patient complains of missed menstruation, the medical term for that is: a. Menorrhagia b. Amenorrhea c. Menarche d. Menopause 60. Fine motor skills and coordination are controlled by: a. Medulla oblongata b. Frontal lobe c. Cerebellum d. Hypothalamus 61. The medical term for fungal infection of the nail is: a. Onychomycosis b. Oncholysis c. Myoses d. Trichosis 62. Breathing is controlled by what part of the brain? a. Hypothalamus b. Cerebellum c. Pons d. Medulla oblongata 63. A physician who specializes in the study of the urinary system: a. Urinologist b. Anesthesiologist c. Urologist d. Enterologist 64. Which of the following cells release histamine? a. Monocytes b. Basophils c. Leukocytes d. Lymphocytes 65. What occurs when an Rh- woman is pregnant with an Rh+ fetus, and the RBCs of the fetus are destroyed by Rh antibodies produced by the mother? a. Humoral immunity b. Hemolytic disease of the newborn c. Cell-mediated immunity d. Diarthroses 66. The middle section of the small intestine is: a. Duodenum b. Hemoly Fundus tic disease of the newborn c. Ileum d. Jejunum 67. The use of enzymes to carry molecules from a higher concentration to a lower concentration across a cell membrane: a. External respiration b. Facilitated diffusion c. Emulsification d. Chemoreception 68. Anaerobic respiration cause this type of acid to build up in the muscle: a. Salicylic acid b. Acetic acid c. Citric acid d. Lactic acid 69. What is the term used to describe the action when muscles shorten to create movement? a. Opposition b. Isometric contraction c. Isotonic contraction d. Supination 70. The coiled tubule that sits on top of each testis: a. Vas deferens b. Spermatids c. Fimbriae d. Epididymis 71. The tube through which semen and urine leave the body in a male: a. Prepuce b. Urethra c. Seminal vesicle d. Bulbourethra 72. This fluid contains fetal cells: a. Amniotic fluid b. Prolactin c. Perimetrium d. Luteinizing hormone 73. When the uterus contracts and the cervix opens during the birth process: a. Expulsion b. Dilation c. Ovulation d. Contraction 74. The middle ear contains: a. Oval window b. Organ of Corti c. Tympanic membrane d. Auricle 75. A 35 year old female with a history of asthma is complaining of shortness of breath when lying flat. The term for her symptom is: a. Apnea b. Tachypnea c. Orthopnea d. Bradypnea 76. A surgeon asked the patient to point where in the abdominal quadrant is her pain. Which of the following is NOT a quadrant of the abdomen? a. RUQ b. LLQ c. LRQ d. LUQ 77. A 65 year old male was brought to the emergency room for chest pain. The patient's diagnosis was heart attack. What is the correct term for his symptom? a. Atherosclerosis b. Angina c. Tachycardia d. Arrhythmia 78. What is the recommended pulse site that the medical professionals use when doing a routine check of the pulse rate? a. Radial artery b. Carotid artery c. Femoral artery d. Brachial artery 79. A 45 year old was brought to the hospital because of vomiting of blood. The term for this is: a. Hemoptysis b. Epistaxis c. Hyperemesis d. Hematemesis 80. Which of the following is NOT one of the nine regions of the abdomen? a. Epigastric b. Hypogastric c. Hypochondriac d. Gastric 81. The patient underwent a procedure in which the surgeon removed fluid from the patient's right knee. What suffix would apply to this procedure? a. -tomy b. -ostomy c. -centesis d. -ectomy 82. A 12 year old boy fractured his calcaneous. Which bone did he actually fracture? a. Heel bone b. Upper arm bone c. Thigh bone d. Wrist 83. A physician diagnosed a patient with nephrolithiasis that got lodged in the ureter. The term "ureter" refers to the: a. Tube from the urinary bladder to the outside b. Tube from the kidney to the urinary bladder c. Reproductive organ of the female d. Tube from the liver to the gall bladder 84. What muscle of the face is considered the smiling muscle? a. Sartorius b. Zygomaticus c. Orbicularis oculi d. Masseter 85. A medical assistant applied a gauze pad on the patient's skin after venipuncture. This is referred in medical terminology as: a. Hemostasis b. Hemorrhage c. Hematochezia d. Hemolysis 86. A 67 year old stroke patient was found with slurred speech, personality changes and paralysis of the arms. Which lobe of the brain is most likely affected? a. Parietal lobe b. Frontal lobe c. Occipital lobe d. Temporal lobe 87. A 38 year old female with three children does not want to have children anymore. The husband consented that he will be the one to be sterilized. What procedure will he undergo? a. Salpingectomy b. Cystectomy c. Vasectomy d. Penisectomy 88. A 5 year old girl was bitten by an insect. After a couple of minutes, she started complaining of severe itchiness. The term for this is: a. Excoriation b. Pruritus c. Eczema d. Edema 89. When we swallow, the wavelike motion of the gastrointestinal tract that moves food along the digestive tract is called: a. Deglutition b. Mastication c. Phagocytosis d. Peristalsis 90. What blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the lower parts of the body back to the heart? a. Superior vena cava b. Descending aorta c. Inferior vena cava d. Ascending aorta 91. A 16 year old male was brought to the endocrinology clinic because of enlargement of his breast. What condition is this? a. Mastitis b. Galactorrhea c. Gynecomastia d. Mastalgia 92. The cell organelle that is responsible for protein synthesis: a. Mitochondria b. Centrioles c. Ribosomes d. Peroxisomes 93. A diabetic patient complains of excessive thirst, hunger and excessive urination. What term would be applied to his thirst? a. Polyuria b. Polyphagia c. Polydipsia d. Polydactyly 94. A previously diagnosed stroke patient was brought to the emergency room because he cannot move the right side of his body. What term should be used to describe the situation? a. Hemiparesis b. Hemiplegia c. Cerebrovascular accident d. 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