Chapter 11 Human Resource Management: Finding and Keeping the Best Employees

Document Content and Description Below

1. Human Resources Management is the process of deciding the number and types of people your business needs, and then, recruiting, selecting, developing, motivating, evaluating, compensating, and sche... duling employees to achieve organizational goals. True False 2. Human resource management is receiving increased attention because the shift from traditional manufacturing industries to service and high-tech manufacturing industries requires workers to have more technical job skills. True False 3. Recruiting is relatively easy today because qualified labor is so plentiful. True False 4. Today, human resource management is viewed as a clerical function of keeping personnel records and processing payroll. True False 5. The human resource function has become so critical that it is now a concern of all managers. True False 6. The human resource manager's job is easier today than it was in the past because a growing percentage of the work force is highly educated and well-prepared for jobs in the contemporary business environment. True False 7. The reason industries such as robotics and biotechnology have grown rapidly in recent years is that the United States has a surplus of highly educated and experienced workers available for employment in these fields. True False 8. One of the challenges facing today's human resource managers is a shift in the age distribution of the labor force, including aging baby boomers, many of whom are deferring retirement. True False 9. Today's workers have an increased demand for benefits tailored to their individual needs. True False 10. Today's workers place a lower priority on leisure time than they did in the past. True False 11. One challenge faced by today's human resource managers is the fact that workers overseas often work for lower wages and are subject to fewer laws and regulations. True False 12. Today's workers tend to be very loyal, as evidenced by declining turnover rates in most industries. True False 13. Underemployed workers present a challenge for human resources managers. These are people who are working beyond their capabilities. True False 14. The appropriate term for employees whose skills and knowledge go beyond their current work environment and work responsibilities are underemployed workers. True False 15. Very few experienced employees have skill and knowledge that is considered a higher level than what they use at their jobs. True False 16. According to the Thinking Green box, "Green Eggs and Ham", contemporary firms do not see a cost benefit to providing healthy snacks for employees. True False 17. Contemporary firms such as Google who care about their employees also care about what their employees eat, as well as what is offered in the company cafeteria. True False 18. It is challenging for HR managers to deal with a declining economy that results in a short-term preference for part-time and/or temporary employees; and, a trend to outsource jobs, even though there are skilled employees who are willing to work. True False 19. The growing importance of human resource issues has led most firms to expect only its human resource specialists to tackle HR issues. True False 20. According to the Thinking Green box titled, "Green Eggs and Ham", your firm stands to benefit more by encouraging employees to eat healthier. True False 21. San Diego State University continues to serve its employees fatty meats and dairy products in its cafeteria and vending machines because it's cheaper; it does not want to promote one choice over another; and, it can convert any waste from these products to compost. True False 22. HR is focused on issues directly related to a person's job and with things that happen at work, as opposed to concerns that may affect one's work such as elder care and child care, but are not directly related to work. True False 23. Robotek International is a rapidly growing firm specializing in the production of sophisticated robots. One of the major problems Robotek is likely to face is a shortage of qualified workers. True False 24. Rick is in his early sixties. A few years ago he had planned to retire by the time he was sixty, but when the time came, he decided to continue working. In fact, not only is Rick still working, he has no intention of retiring or setting a time when retirement might occur. Rick's decision to keep working into his late sixties is unusual in today's labor market. True False 25. Elise is the manager in the finance department for a company that competes in a service industry. If her company is like most contemporary firms, Elise will leave almost all aspects of human resource functions to specialists in the human resource department. True False 26. Last year Adam lost his job as a skilled welder at an automobile assembly plant. After looking for work for several months, he finally accepted a job as an unskilled laborer at a local nursery. Although he is pleased to have work, Adam feels that his new job doesn't use his skills to their full potential. Adam is an example of an underemployed worker. True False 27. In one year's time, James developed gall bladder problems and needed surgery; he became a single parent; he willingly moved his older mom in to live with him in order to avoid placing her in a nursing home; and, he unexpectedly tore his rotator cuff playing softball during the summer. Overall, these are not considered circumstances that impact job performance because they fall outside of the workplace. HR managers need only be concerned with how James performs when he is at work. True False 28. The federal government has to minimized its role in human resource management. True False 29. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination in hiring, firing, or compensation, based on race, religion, creed, sex, or national origin. True False 30. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 did not do enough to discourage discriminatory practices in the workplace. True False 31. Congress has given the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission broad powers to issue guidelines for acceptable employer behavior concerning employment opportunities. True False 32. The effectiveness of the EEOC has been limited because Congress never gave it any authority to enforce its mandates. True False 33. Affirmative action programs are the least controversial method of correcting job inequities created by past discrimination. True False 34. Reverse discrimination is the term the EEOC uses to refer to activities designed to "right past wrongs" that resulted from discrimination against women and minorities. True False 35. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 gave victims of discrimination the right to seek punitive damages from the firms that discriminated against them. True False 36. Although the purpose of affirmative action was to "right past wrongs" against minorities, subsequent laws were passed to reverse earlier decisions that required some industries to maintain employment quotas when it came to the hiring of minorities. True False 37. Recent federal law clearly and strongly supports the notion that companies must use strict employment quotas to correct for past discriminatory actions. True False 38. The concept of "reasonable accommodations" means that all workers should be treated in the same manner. True False 39. The EEOC sets guidelines that human resource managers follow in the process of hiring and dismissing employees. True False 40. Most firms have trouble implementing the structural changes required by the Americans with Disabilities Act. True False 41. In their efforts to accommodate disabled workers, most firms experience difficulties with cultural changes, more so than with structural changes. True False 42. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act only prevents discrimination against employees who are over the age of 65. True False 43. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act permits age limits in professions where it can be established that ability to perform the job declines significantly with age. True False 44. One way human resource managers can keep current on human resource legislation and rulings is to read current business literature such as The Wall Street Journal and Business Week. True False 45. When it comes to human resource management issues, the federal government generally has taken a "hands off" approach since the early 1960s. True False 46. There are laws that protect employees from undo harm due to hazardous work conditions. True False 47. The Americans With Disabilities Act protects people who are born with physical disabilities, exclusively, but not those who acquire disabilities later in life. True False 48. The Americans With Disabilities Act protects qualified persons from discriminatory hiring practices, but does not require employers to provide suitable accommodations in the workplace, or opportunities for promotion. This is left to occupational safety laws. True False 49. Introduction to Business students know that the creation of laws are the first step that a society takes in order to act in an ethical manner. The U.S. government learned that unless it stepped in and created business laws, many firms would not concern themselves with fair practices when it comes to hiring, firing, and non-discriminatory actions. True False 50. Chip Dodson is a middle-aged white male employed by a large company. Recently, he was passed over for a promotion, despite receiving an excellent performance appraisal. The promotion went to a woman Chip felt was less qualified. His supervisor told him the woman got the promotion because the business was trying to comply with affirmative action guidelines. Critics of affirmative action would cite this situation as a case of reverse discrimination. True False 51. Ruth Gray is a manager who takes pride in her ability to be fair and impartial. She treats all workers the same way, and evaluates them all using the same standards. Ruth is likely to have difficulty with the adjustments needed to accommodate disabled workers. True False 52. Sonny Skies is in his late fifties and loves his work as a pilot for a major airline. He wants to continue working for many more years. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act provides Sonny with the right to keep his job as long as his company is financially sound and he does not commit a felony. True False 53. Sean works for a large discount retailer. His wife works for a large bank with several branches. After recently adopting a child, the couple agreed that each would take six-weeks of leave from work in order to care for the newborn. According to the Family and Medical Leave Act, one, but not both are eligible for leave. True False 54. Zorn Enterprises hired several qualified soldiers returning from the war with hearing impairment to rehab its recently acquired apartment complexes. As a growing business, it is abiding by the law as currently stated. It is not required to adapt the work site to help these soldiers hear and communicate better with each other. True False 55. Mario and Marla are web development professionals for a popular high tech company. Due to injuries Mario sustained while serving in the Army Reserves, upon his return the company provided him and other returning soldiers with ergonomic desks and chairs that accommodates wheel chairs and bad backs. Although Marla is hearing impaired, the company does not need to consider providing her with a headset that magnifies sound because she is the only employee out of 200 requiring this accommodation. True False 56. Ramona is a recent HR hire for a security firm that hires retired law enforcement officers to provide security for retail malls across the nation. Her supervisor was impressed with Ramona's knowledge of current laws with respect to hiring practices, but asked her to quickly get up to speed on compensation and training laws. This is a reasonable request if Ramona plans to stay in the HR field. True False 57. Like all management, human resource management begins with planning. True False 58. The first step in the human resource planning process is to prepare a job analysis for each available position within the firm. True False 59. One purpose of a human resource inventory is to determine whether the labor force is technically up-to-date and well trained. True False 60. The result of a job analysis is a written document called a human resource inventory. True False 61. When you collect information about a particular job title, including how the job is performed and what it takes to perform the job, you are conducting a job analysis. True False 62. A job analysis consists of creating two documents called a job inventory and a performance appraisal. True False 63. A job specification is a statement of the job itself, while a job description is a statement about the person who does the job. True False 64. A job specification identifies the minimum qualifications a person must have to fill a particular job. True False 65. A job description identifies and describes the type of person who should perform the job, including important qualifications such as deduction, skills, and experience. True False 66. Human resource planning involves the assessment of both the future demand and the future supply of the various types of labor needed by the organization. True False 67. The first four steps in human resource planning all lead to the final step, which is the development of a strategic human resource plan. True False 68. The second step in human resource planning consists of conducting job analyses. Through observation and research, the manager will collect information on the kinds of things that each job title performs and how they are performed, as well as the skill and knowledge requirements for doing the job. True False 69. Job analysis helps a manager answer the question: "How many workers in my organization have this particular skill"? True False 70. Essentially, the steps of the human resource plan require the HR professional to (1) take inventory of the type of workers (including the skills of the workers) that the business already has, in order to determine if it has the most up to date workforce for its needs; he/she then proceeds with (2) analyzing each job; (3) forecasting the firm's requirements for various job titles, and (4) making a determination of the future supply of skilled labor available to meet the demands of the business. Lastly, the HR professional (5) develops a human resource strategic plan. True False 71. Chris Schubert is a human resource manager with the Night Owl Publishing Company. He just finished creating a document that describes what editors do at their jobs. The study Chris has completed is known as a human resource inventory. True False 72. Lani wants to know how many workers in her company have certain specialized skills and have received training to update their qualifications within the past year. She could use a human resource inventory to help her find this type of information. True False 73. As an HR manager, Erin is assigned to updating all job descriptions and job specifications for her company. Erin will begin by collecting information about each job title, as well as learning about the kinds of activities and responsibilities that go with each job. After she thoroughly analyzes a job, she will write the job description and job specifications for that job. True False 74. Toni Matthews is interested in a position that has opened up at her firm, but she wants to find out more about the type of work and responsibilities involved in the job. A document that would have the information she wants is the job specification. True False 75. Career Builders.com has posted a variety of sales management positions. Some require the manager to have five to ten years of experience and preferably a Master's Degree in a field of science. These requirements are part of the job specification. True False 76. The Administrative Assistant II position at Idle Time Gaming, Inc. performs word processing and spreadsheet development for two vice-presidents, and other secretarial duties as needed. Other job responsibilities include maintaining the office operations budget, receiving guests, and supervising two clerical positions. These tasks are part of the job description for this position. True False 77. Helen Caldwell is a human resource manager for a firm that is planning to switch to a more sophisticated production method. As a human resource manager, one of Helen's duties will be to forecast the demand for the type of labor needed to implement the new method. True False 78. Recruitment is a set of activities undertaken for attracting qualified people, at the right time. True False 79. Because of the continuous flow of potential employees into the labor market, recruiting usually is the easiest task for a human resource manager to accomplish. True False 80. Union rules and company policies can make the recruitment process more difficult. True False 81. When recruiting, human resource managers must attract people who not only have the right skills, but also fit in with the corporate culture, and work well under the company's leadership style. True False 82. Small businesses usually find recruitment easier than large firms. True False 83. An advantage of hiring from within is that it improves employee morale. True False 84. External recruitment sources are usually cheaper to use than internal sources. True False 85. Transfers and promotions are internal sources used by human resource managers to fill recruiting needs. True False 86. According to the "Spotlight on Small Business" box in Chapter 11, one way that a small business can attract qualified employees is to hire its customers. True False 87. Public and private employment agencies and college placement offices are internal sources used by human resource managers when they are recruiting employees. True False 88. When recruiting employees, human resource managers focus primarily on the skills and training of the people they are recruiting, and work on determining "fit" after the hiring process has occurred. True False 89. Advertisements in trade journals, private and public employment agencies, college placement offices, and trade associations are internal sources for recruitment. True False 90. Temporary help services, job fairs and the Internet are external sources for recruitment. True False 91. According to the Spotlight on Small Business box in Chapter 11, small businesses have an advantage over large businesses when it comes to recruiting good talent for two reasons: they can afford to pay better; and they already have great employees who recruit for them. True False 92. Rob is the human resource manager for a medium- sized corporation. He understands the value of hiring from within to fill positions whenever possible. This means that Rob relies extensively on promotions, transfers, and recommendations from current employees to find qualified employees. True False 93. As the HR manager at a small business, John handles most of his firm's recruiting efforts. Because John recruits for a small business he has a distinct advantage over larger competitor firms when it comes to finding the right people to fill his firm's needs. True False 94. The What's Hapnin' Corporation is about to diversify into an entirely new market. This move will create the need for several new positions in the production and marketing departments. However, the production technologies and the marketing environment in this new market are very different than in What's Hapnin's traditional market. The company is likely to rely on external sources to fill many of the positions created by its diversification. True False 95. Charlie plans to hire three outside sales professionals for his small non-profit organization that operates out of a suburb of Chicago. The new recruits know that after a three-month period, only one will remain. He is using a method of recruitment called part-time, temporary employment. True False 96. Selection is the process of gathering information and deciding who should be hired, under legal guidelines, for the best interests of the individual and the organization. True False 97. The cost of recruiting, processing, and training a new entry level employee is significant, and sometimes exceeds the annual salary earned by the employee. True False 98. The amount most businesses spend on selecting and training workers is relatively low. True False 99. Because current legal guidelines limit the types of questions that can be asked, completed job application forms contain very little useful information about job candidates. True False 100. Job applications can ask about educational background and past job experience. True False 101. Staff members from the human resource department seldom take part in initial screening interviews, but often participate in the follow-up interviews of top job candidates. True False 102. Artificial intelligence software already exists that will review information provided by an applicant and e-mail a report to a manager with a recommendation as to whether the applicant should be interviewed. True False 103. During an interview, a manager should be careful not to ask the applicant about his or her family or other non-job related questions. True False 104. Trial periods are an effective method of reducing the firm's turnover costs. True False 105. Most firms today are checking the backgrounds of job applicants more carefully than they did in the past. True False 106. Services now exist that allow firms to perform quick background checks of potential employees. True False 107. Employment tests should focus on general job skills rather than skills that are related directly to the job. True False 108. It is not uncommon for companies today to test their employees and job applicants for drug use. True False 109. Part-time workers, seasonal workers and independent contractors are all examples of contingent workers. True False 110. The most common reason for hiring contingent workers is that they improve worker morale. True False 111. Though temporary workers are employed in most sectors of the economy, almost none have been hired to fill manufacturing jobs. True False 112. An increasing number of contingent workers are highly trained professionals. True False 113. It is not unusual to find persons with a variety of skills and skill levels serving as contingent workers. Contingent workers in the U.S. are usually under 25 years of age and may include independent contractors, middle management positions, and even college students who only want to work during the summer months. True False 114. According to the Making Ethical Decisions box in Chapter 11, it is not unethical to motivate temporary employees by alluding to future opportunities to become a permanent employee, even when you know that there are no additional permanent positions on the horizon. True False 115. All states in the U.S. require pre-employment physical exams for select groups of applicants. True False 116. Garrett works in his firm's human resources department. He is responsible for designing a new job application form for his firm. The questions Garrett includes on the new form should avoid broad questions about the applicant's beliefs, culture and family background, and should focus instead on factors such as the applicant's work experience, education, and career objectives. True False 117. HR manger Rob Spears is very concerned about the high cost of labor turnover at his firm. A good way for Rob's firm to eliminate high turnover costs at the company is to establish a policy of hiring workers for trial periods. True False 118. An HR manager at a large company interviewed several candidates for a position opening at her firm. Based on her interviews, she assesses that one candidate looks particularly promising. She will recommend a second interview between this candidate and the manager who will supervise the new employee. True False 119. Tri Cities Professional Printing wants to expand its services into new markets, but to remain competitive it needs to keep its costs low. If it is like most firms, one way Tri Cities can save a lot of money is by reducing the time and effort it devotes to the selection of employees. True False 120. Sun Valley Produce finds it needs more workers during harvest times than at other times of the year. Hiring contingent workers could be an efficient way for Sun Valley to meet its temporary employment needs. True False 121. During good economic times, when unemployment is low, few people would voluntarily choose to be contingent workers. True False 122. Employee training focuses on short-term skills, while employee development focuses on long-term abilities. True False 123. Besides increasing productivity, a good training program can increase a firm's retention rates. True False 124. A recent study has shown that the most effective way for most firms to improve worker productivity is to increase expenditures on machinery and equipment. True False 125. One purpose of employee orientation programs is to initiate new workers to the organization's policies, practices and objectives. True False 126. Vestibule training is the most fundamental type of training available. True False 127. New technologies are assisting off-the-job training and creating more cost-effective methods for on-the-job training, when the job requires learning more intricate skills. True False 128. On-the-job training is best suited for jobs that are easily learned or require the employee to perform repetitive physical tasks. True False 129. Over the next ten to fifteen years, most firms will discontinue apprenticeship programs as changes in technology make this type of training obsolete. True False 130. In recent years, firms have expanded off-the-job training to include personal development subjects such as time management, health and nutrition, and language. True False 131. Online training gives employers the ability to provide consistent content that is tailored to specific employee training needs. True False 132. Vestibule training attempts to precisely duplicate both the methods and conditions of a real world job. True False 133. Job simulation is used to train astronauts, airline pilots, and ship captains. True False 134. The strategy of giving managers assignments in a variety of departments in order to expose them to different functions is called apprenticeship training. True False 135. The process of training and educating employees to become good managers, and then monitoring the progress of their managerial skills over time is called management simulation. True False 136. Most management training programs include methods such as on-the-job coaching, understudy positions, and off-the-job courses and training. True False 137. Networking is the process of establishing and maintaining contacts and using those contacts to develop strong relationships that serve as informal development systems. True False 138. A mentor is a manager who supervises, coaches, and guides selected lower-level employees, and generally acting as their organizational sponsor. True False 139. Students can benefit from networking in college even before they take their first full-time job. True False 140. Women usually find it easier than men to obtain mentors and engage in networking. True False 141. Minority groups have made great strides in creating networking associations. For example, Black Enterprise Magazine sponsors networking forums. True False 142. The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that women cannot be barred from "men only" clubs where, in the past, business contacts are often made and business activity occurs. True False 143. Grooming women and minorities for management positions creates fewer hiring opportunities for white men. True False 144. Firms spend time and money to train new employees so that they will work productively over the short-term. Development type activities such as assigning mentors and creating networks have long-term implications for employees and firms. True False 145. Distance learning training is gaining in popularity among all firms because employees can log-on to company tutorials at a time convenient to them and acquire the same training information as everyone else. True False 146. While efforts to train and develop women and minority managers appeal to many firms on the basis of legal and moral considerations, from an economic standpoint, it is rarely cost effective. True False 147. Keep on Truckin' School for Truck Drivers is proud of its training methods. Before its students are ever allowed on the road with a big rig, they are taught safe driving techniques with the help of sophisticated, computerized equipment that comes as close as possible to duplicating real driving conditions, right down to the sights, sounds, bumps and vibrations experienced on the road. Keep on Truckin' is using a training method known as job replication. True False 148. Reggie is learning to be a carpenter by working alongside experienced carpenters. After one more year of successful training, his union will classify Reggie as a journeyman. Reggie is participating in an apprenticeship program. True False 149. Hector Cruz is receiving training in maintaining and repairing assembly line robots at a school that uses equipment very similar to that used on his new job at Blast Off Technologies. His classroom training is called vestibule training. True False 150. Iris Bloom accepted a management position at the Sustainable Plant Life Corporation. In order to give her an appreciation of the different functional areas of her new company, she is required to spend six weeks in each of five different functional areas of the company, including production, research and development, accounting, marketing, and the HR management department. This type of training is known as contingency employment. True False 151. Jim Marlowe currently holds the position of assistant manager in his firm's credit department. He works closely with a more experienced manager to learn how to perform all of the functions involved in credit management. Jim believes he will soon be experienced enough to take over a senior position in his department. Jim has the benefit of serving as an understudy. True False 152. When Sally Miller was hired to a lower-level management position at Zinwick and Associates, she was introduced to Wendy Hopper, and told that Wendy would be her mentor. As a mentor, Wendy will coach and guide Sally, introduce her to the right people, and be her organizational sponsor. True False 153. Several years ago, Drew's company sent him to Massachusetts Institute of Technology for an intensive program of leadership and business communication training. Although expensive, the firm was committed to investing in the development of key employees for the purpose of retention and promotion. This type of managerial development is known as off-the-job courses and training. True False 154. A performance appraisal is an evaluation in which the performance level of employees is measured against established standards to make decisions about promotions, compensation, additional training, or firing. True False 155. The primary reason that companies do performance appraisals is to improve worker performance. True False 156. Establishing performance standards is a crucial step in the performance evaluation process. True False 157. Most experienced workers have a clear idea of what is expected of them even if managers do not communicate their expectations explicitly. True False 158. Because of legal implications, managers should not use the results of performance appraisals to make decisions about promotions and compensation. True False 159. Performance standards should be understandable, measurable, and reasonable. True False 160. A performance appraisal provides an opportunity for employees to make suggestions about how a particular task could be better performed. True False 161. An effective performance appraisal system provides a way for the company to satisfy legal conditions concerning promotions, compensation, and policies. True False 162. The last step in the performance appraisal process is to discuss the results with the employee. True False 163. Performance appraisals are very useful for new, inexperienced workers and first-line managers, but have little value for top management. True False 164. Top level managers can benefit from having their performance evaluated by subordinates. True False 165. An employment appraisal may include a 360-degree review, which is an appraisal that includes job-related and non-job-related comments from a range of employees. True False 166. A 360-degree review will include the opinions of an employee's subordinates, as well as those above him/her in the organization structure, and those who work alongside the employee in comparable positions. True False 167. The main reason firms conduct performance appraisals is to establish a formal record of job performance that will protect them from lawsuits filed by unhappy workers. True False 168. One drawback of performance appraisals is that they cannot be completed for top management because there is no one above this level of management to carry out and evaluate the results. True False 169. Even employees who work on a busy production floor need performance appraisals. If the manager cannot conduct a closed-door appraisal session, the supervisor should conduct these wherever he/she can find room. True False 170. Due to the secret nature of performance standards, employees are only permitted to review these standards at the time when they receive their appraisal. True False 171. Early in the year, manager John Jacobs set reasonable, understandable, and measurable performance standards and communicated these standards clearly to all team members. Because of these efforts, he should be prepared for the next step in the appraisal process. True False 172. When she met with John to discuss his performance appraisal, Regina noted that John had difficulty with managing his time on certain projects. One drawback of a performance appraisal is that it does not allow for feedback during the evaluation process. True False 173. Mollie Herndon is an office manager at Beaux Neaux Legal Services. The company's top management recently announced it was adopting a 360-degree review process as part of the performance appraisals of its office managers. Once this policy goes into effect, Mollie can expect her evaluations to include feedback from both the managers above her and the employees she supervises. True False 174. When Andrew administered the performance appraisals for his employees at California Canines, a producer of upscale clothing and accessories for pets, he made certain that he allowed at least one hour for each appraisal. He met with each employee in his quiet office, and gave each an opportunity to prepare a self-improvement program. His goal was to make each appraisal a positive experience for the employee. Andrew carried out the suggestions of experts in performing effective performance appraisals. True False 175. The marketing manager at Cool Rags, Inc., was very critical of the way one of the distribution analysts was handling negotiations with a manufacturer in Malaysia. On a number of occasions, she thought the discussions could have resulted in more of a win-win situation. In order to follow correct procedures, the manager made notes on these issues and decided to wait until the performance appraisal, eight months down the road, to discuss the situation with the analysts. If Cool Rags has a formal performance appraisal process in place, this is the best approach to this situation. True False 176. Companies compete with other firms for good employees. True False 177. Compensation is one of the main marketing tools a firm uses in its efforts to attract qualified employees. True False 178. Airlines, banks, hospitals and many other service organizations are so labor intensive that the cost of labor is their primary cost of operations. True False 179. The long-term success of a firm often depends on its ability to control employee costs and optimize employee efficiency. True False 180. Due to a strong economy, employees in manufacturing industries have not had to worry about taking pay cuts, also called "give-backs". True False 181. One objective of a carefully managed compensation and benefit program is to retain valued employees. True False 182. The Hay compensation system gives managers the flexibility to adjust pay for workers to reflect the value of their contribution to the firm. True False 183. Blue collar and clerical workers are normally paid a salary. True False 184. Bonuses can consist of cashless rewards as well as monetary payments. True False 185. In an ongoing study, Jay Schuster concluded that the best way to compensate members of a team is to base each member's pay on her or his individual performance. True False 186. Skill-based pay is a method of compensating teams in which base pay is raised when team members learn and apply new skills. True False 187. An advantage of a skill-based system of pay for compensating teams is that such a system is easy to apply and administer. True False 188. Expenditures on fringe benefits have declined as a percentage of total payroll costs over the past several decades. True False 189. Fringe benefit payments account for about thirty percent of payroll costs today. True False 190. Employees sometimes prefer increases in fringe benefits rather than increases in wages or salaries, because many fringe benefits are not subject to taxes. True False 191. On-site haircuts and free breakfasts are examples of soft benefits some firms provide for employees. True False 192. A fringe benefits plan that allows employees to choose the benefits they want up to a certain dollar amount is known as a soft benefit plan. True False 193. Many firms are now contracting with outside companies to administer their employee benefits plans. True False 194. According to the Reaching Beyond Our Borders box in Chapter 11, human resource managers will be able to count on the superiority of American business practices as they help manage a global workforce. True False 195. One objective of a carefully managed compensation plan is to keep labor costs low. In order to achieve this objective, a firm should strive to keep wages, salaries and benefits at or below the compensation levels of its competitors. True False 196. According to the Reaching Beyond Our Borders box, titled, "Working Worldwide", companies must consider a number of compensation related issues for employees who work abroad. These may include currency conversion issues, special concessions such as travel and housing allowances, differences in health care standards in different countries, and even vacation benefits. True False 197. Recent trends suggest that the best way for firms to control labor costs is to focus on limiting the growth of wages and salaries rather than controlling fringe benefits. True False 198. The reason that companies use the gain sharing pay system and the skill based pay system to compensate teams of employees is that both are closely tied to profit performance. True False 199. Highly compensated executives sometimes prefer fringe benefits such as club memberships, company cars, and more vacation time, as opposed to higher salaries because most often these benefits are not taxable income. True False 200. Some firms have found that employees prefer cafeteria-style benefit plans. For these plans, the employees vote on the benefits that they prefer, and only those benefits receiving the highest votes are offered to employees. True False 201. As a salesman, Rob Lytle's pay is based on a percentage of his total sales. This type of pay arrangement is known as a commission. True False 202. When Tim joined Alamo Scientific as a sales manager, part of his sign-on bonus included the opportunity to buy up to 500 shares of the company's publicly traded stock at $10 per share, during the first three months of employment. The stock was trading on the NASDAQ exchange for $22 per share. Tim's new company was offering a dividend reinvestment plan. True False 203. Employees at The Eastern Eagle newspaper are paid according to the Hay system. Ralph and Steve do the same type of work and report to the same supervisor. Ralph has worked at the newspaper for 14 years while this is Steve's third year. The supervisor believes Steve is the more enthusiastic and hard-working of the two. Under the Hay system, Steve will probably earn more than Ralph. True False 204. The Amabala Corporation is reorganizing to make more extensive use of teams. The company plans to continue paying its workers based on their individual performance. This approach is likely to maximize the success of the team by encouraging all team members to exert their best effort. True False 205. Employees at the MAX Card Company, a worldwide credit card business are criticizing the company's fringe benefits package because it forces all employees to accept the same benefits regardless of differences in their personal needs. In fact, they even offer some soft benefits such as an on-site day care that over 80% of the employees are too young or too old to use. MAX should consider a cafeteria style benefits plan. True False 206. Examples of soft benefits that a firm might offer are: onsite medical physician services, and exercise centers. True False 207. Flextime plans are popular with employees because they allow them to work fewer hours while still earning the same income. True False 208. A common feature of flextime plans is the establishment of core times when all employees are expected to be at their job stations. True False 209. Sun Microsystems has experimented extensively with flextime and has found that overall it has a positive impact on productivity. True False 210. Flextime plans are particularly well suited for workers on an assembly line. True False 211. In a compressed workweek, employees work more hours each day, but work fewer days each week. True False 212. Almost 10 million U.S. workers now telecommute, working several days each month, at home. True False 213. Telecommuting can actually save employers money by reducing their need for office space. True False 214. Job sharing has received a great deal of attention in recent years as more women with small children have entered the labor force. True False 215. Job sharing tends to increase absenteeism and tardiness, because part-time workers are not as dedicated and loyal as full-time workers. True False 216. A disadvantage of job sharing is that it requires a firm to hire, train, motivate, and supervise more employees. True False 217. Most companies that have tried job sharing have concluded that the extra cost of hiring and training additional workers outweigh its benefits. True False 218. "Hot desking" means sharing a desk with another employee, while "hoteling" means reserving office space when you plan to be at the office. True False 219. The benefit of a firm establishing "hoteling" is that it can reduce operating costs because it eliminates the need for office space, for employees that telecommute. True False 220. Most employees who use flextime prefer to work independently of others. In order to accommodate this preference, businesses permit them to clock in and out as they wish, as long as they put in the necessary 40 hour work week. On some days, they may arrive at 6:00 a.m., while on other days they may decide to come in at Noon. True False 221. Akiko Animoto works for a company that allows her to choose when she begins and ends her workday, as long as she works a required number of hours and is at her job station at certain specified core times. Akiko's company is using a compressed workweek plan. True False 222. Olivia's company announced that it will implement a compressed workweek schedule. If Olivia takes part in this plan, she will be allowed to work fewer hours each week, as long as she completes all assignments. True False 223. Melville Bank is about to implement a job sharing plan. The bank is likely to find that scheduling workers for peak periods will become easier as the result of this policy. True False 224. Managers at a local bank are discussing the absentee problems they are experiencing at their west side location. Although the workers do a good job and serve customers well when they are on the job, they tend to report to work late at least two days each week, and often want to leave early. Job sharing might be a good staffing arrangement for the managers to consider. True False 225. The Hottie Potatee potato bar franchise chain does not permit employees at corporate headquarters to work flextime schedules. The CEO communicated with employees and explained that shift workers at the corporate owned potato bars cannot reasonably work that way and in order to keep things fair, he prefers that the corporate employees work regular hours from 8:00 a.m. until 5:00 p.m. or from 1:00 p.m. to 11:00 p.m., which is the other regular shift where they need staff. Workers at fast food operations do not have the opportunity for flextime schedules because they must be at work prior to the store's serving hours and usually after the store closes. They cannot plan their own schedule, but must comply with the hours that management needs help. True False 226. Central Communications, a company that provides land line, cell phone, Internet, and television services for residential customers experienced poor customer call care ratings with its overseas call center service. As a recent Introduction to Business student, you would suggest that Central implement home-based call agents. This will cost them a little more in office space and benefits, but it will certainly increase its customers' perception of their service. True False 227. Internal promotions (from within the company) are a cost effective way of filling positions within a firm because the employees filling the position are already familiar with the organization's culture and procedures. True False 228. Transferring an experienced worker to a new position at the same level within an organization can be an effective way to motivate the worker to remain with the company. True False 229. The "employment at will" doctrine maintained that a firm could only fire a worker if it could demonstrate "just cause." True False 230. In recent years, many companies have avoided hiring permanent workers during periods of growth by using temporary employees and outsourcing some of their functions. True False 231. A golden handshake refers to the severance pay that is offered to a worker that is laid off when the firm downsizes. True False 232. Exit interviews by a third party can be an effective way for a firm to prevent future losses of valuable employees. True False 233. Recent court cases include drug-addicted employees who claim their addiction is an illness, and therefore, they are protected from wrongful discharge under the American With Disabilities Act. True False 234. The prevalence of flatter corporate structures in recent years has increased the number of workers that firms promote. True False 235. Management is turning to a strategy of offering more lateral transfers due to the fact that many companies are operating under a flatter organization structure. True False 236. The doctrine of "employment at will" means that employees must be allowed to keep their jobs as long as they are willing and able to perform their required duties. Under this doctrine, employers can only fire or layoff an employee if the firm is in serious financial difficulty or the employee is grossly incompetent or has committed a felony. True False 237. The Golden Handshake is a popular method of firing or dismissing senior members of your workforce. True False 238. Marketing manager Sam Woodall has worked for Family Care Pharmaceuticals for 36 years. He fondly remembers the "good old days" when he could fire a worker for just about any reason. He feels that today's laws and regulations limiting his ability to fire workers undermines his authority and forces him to keep employees that don't measure up to his standards. Sam's views suggest he would favor working in a state that implements the policy of "employment at will." True False 239. Top managers at Unifaze Corporation have decided that the company must downsize, but are concerned about the effect the reduction in employment will have on the morale of the remaining employees. One way top management could keep morale from suffering would be to establish an early retirement program. True False 240. Liz hired Max Maxwell right out of college! Max had brought a lot to the plate at the Brooklyn Sporting Goods firm where Liz served as Marketing Director over the baseball, basketball, and hockey lines. Yesterday, Max submitted his resignation after only one year on the job, and disclosed that he is leaving sporting goods and taking a job in Canada where he will be marketing a hockey arena. Liz is beside herself and has decided to personally conduct an exit interview. In evaluating this situation, you agree that Liz is probably the best person to conduct this interview. True False 241. Barney's company creates promotional campaigns for other businesses. He just learned that the firm lost the Lisle Account, a long-standing customer. On the short-term, this will significantly reduce the need for several creative writers and web content developers the company has on staff. As he prepares to call each employee in for dismissal, Barney reviews the best way to approach this inevitable task. He decides that it is best not to tarnish the image of the company so rather than tell each that they lost an important account, he will blame the need to reduce the workforce on new technology the firm is implementing and his personal evaluation of their work. He also plans to offer a two-month severance, as long as each signs a no-compete agreement good for one year. In that way, he may be able to call them back if new accounts emerge. All of these strategies are considered good procedures that would surely avoid "wrongful discharge lawsuits." True False 242. _____________ is the process of evaluating human resource needs and then recruiting, selecting, developing, motivating, evaluating, compensating, and scheduling employees to achieve organizational goals. A. Staffing B. Performance evaluation and response C. Human resource management D. Job analysis 243. The ultimate resource of a firm is its: A. business plan. B. marketing mix. C. capital budget. D. employees. 244. One of the key functions of human resource management is: A. departmentalizing. B. recruiting. C. budgeting. D. auditing. 245. Today, human resource management has become so important that in many firms it has become: A. a function performed by managers in all areas of the organization. B. the sole responsibility of the firm's legal staff. C. a function handled only by specialists in the human resource department. D. a function handled only by the firm's top management. 246. __________ workers have a higher skill level than their current job requires. A. Structurally unemployed B. Frictionally unemployed C. Contingent D. Underemployed 247. The changes in the American business system that have had the most dramatic impact on the workings of the free enterprise system are the changes in: A. the labor force. B. technology. C. financial regulations. D. consumer behavior. 248. In coming years, high tech growth areas such as computers, biotechnology, and robots are likely to experience a: A. surplus of labor. B. significant decline in market demand, leading to a stagnant labor market. C. shortage of skilled labor. D. stable equilibrium in the labor market. 249. Which of the following statements best describes the current view of the role of human resource management within a firm? A. human resource management is largely a clerical function that involves keeping records, processing payroll, and making sure that federal regulations are met B. human resource management has become so complex that only highly trained human resource specialists should make human resource decisions C. human resource management functions have become so important that in many firms all managers now perform them D. changes in technology have largely done away with the need for a separate human resource department 250. Which of the following is a challenge that is facing the human resource managers of today? A. too many unemployed scientists and computer engineers B. an increasing number of Gen Yers in the workforce C. a shift in employee attitudes toward work D. an increased demand for uniformity in benefits offered to employees 251. Which of the following statements about human resource management opportunities and challenges is most accurate? A. the age composition of the labor force is becoming younger B. workers are becoming less loyal to their firms, resulting in higher turnover C. workers are now demanding that more of their compensation be in wages and salaries and less in fringe benefits D. the number of workers who have received training in high tech fields far exceeds the number of job openings in these areas 252. Which of the following statements about human resource management opportunities and challenges is most accurate? A. Shifts in the economy have led to a huge pool of skilled and unskilled workers from declining industries that are either unemployed or are underemployed. B. Workers now would rather have more income rather than more leisure. Therefore, many employees now want to work more than 40 hours per week. C. So many people have sought training in high tech areas such as robotics and computers that there is likely to be a huge surplus of labor in high tech industries. D. Workers now desire more stability and predictability in their careers, so they now give their employers more loyalty and expect more loyalty from their employers in return. 253. When Carl Remmick lost his job as a highly skilled craftsman at a metal working shop, he searched for a good job for several months before finally accepting a position as a maintenance worker at a local community college. He is happy to have a job, but frustrated by the fact that he had to settle for a job that did not take full advantage of his skills. Carl is a(n): A. structurally unemployed worker. B. semi-employed worker. C. underemployed worker. D. quasi-employed worker. 254. Frank Lehman is a human resource manager at a major corporation. If Frank's company is like most firms today, which of the following statements about Frank's job is likely to be the most accurate? A. Most of Frank's time will be devoted to clerical duties such as processing payroll checks and keeping employee files updated. B. Frank's job will be simpler in the future than it was in the past, because the percentage of new workers entering the labor force who are poorly educated and unprepared for work is slowly but steadily declining. C. Government laws and regulations concerning hiring, worker safety, pay, and unionization will make Frank's work complex and challenging. D. Frank and his fellow human resource managers will be given complete responsibility for performing all human resource functions within the organization. 255. The theme of "Green Eggs and Green Ham", referencing the Thinking Green box in Chapter 11 is: A. green employees need mentors. B. the right food not only increases brain power and productivity of workers, but it may create cost savings for employers and be better for the environment. C. providing a hearty breakfast before each work shift is proving to be very costly for many businesses including airline companies and motivation companies that traditionally followed this course of action. D. younger workers do better with health foods; while older workers become difficult if a company does not provide junk food in its vending machines. 256. The Grandola Granola Company decided to limit the types of foods offered in its onsite snack shack, right from the start. The company provides all varieties of granola that it produces "free" to employees on duty. It also offers yogurt, dried and fresh fruit, and pure fruit drinks, tea, and water. According to the Thinking Green box in Chapter 11: A. food companies are taking the lead in green alternatives because they produce materials that are organic and can replenish the Earth. Other firms are finding it more difficult to join the food and beverage industry in its effort. B. aging baby boomers are beginning to worry about their health. Since there are still so many in the workforce, companies are having to comply with their new, more healthful eating habits. C. healthy alternatives may be good all the way around, but we are finding that they are a cheaper alternative to fatty foods, as well. Companies like saving money. D. healthy alternatives are becoming commonplace in contemporary firms that care about the health and fitness of their employees and also the health of the environment. 257. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964: A. gives all citizens over the age of 18 the right to vote regardless of race, religion, sex, or creed. B. prohibits firms from using employment testing as a means of selecting employees and determining which employees should be promoted. C. requires all firms with over 100 employees to have an affirmative action plan. D. prohibits discrimination based on race, religion, sex, creed, or national origin in matters such as hiring, firing, training, and compensation. 258. The _______________ was created by the Civil Rights Act of 1964, and has since become a formidable regulatory force in the administration of human resource management. A. National Labor Relations Board B. AFL-CIO C. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission D. Affirmative Action Transition Commission 259. Probably the most controversial program enforced by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission concerns: A. mandatory retirement. B. affirmative action. C. equal pay reporting. D. green card requirements for illegal aliens. 260. Discrimination against whites and males is referred to as: A. de facto discrimination. B. qualification dissonance. C. conditional inequality. D. reverse discrimination. 261. The Civil Rights Act of 1991: A. declared affirmative action plans unconstitutional. B. requires any firm with over 600 employees to file an annual report with the Department of Labor identifying the steps it has taken to eliminate discriminatory practices. C. allows victims of discrimination to seek punitive damages. D. is the first law to declare reverse discrimination illegal. 262. The ____________ protects individuals over the age of 40 from discrimination based on age with respect to issues such as hiring, promotions, job benefits, and assignments. A. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 B. Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1998 C. Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 D. Employee Rights and Responsibilities Act of 1983 263. Employers must verify that employment candidates are eligible to work in the U.S. as mandated by: A. Manpower Development and Training Act B. Civil Rights Act of 1991 C. Immigration Reform and Control Act D. Occupational Safety and Health Act 264. The Family and Medical Leave Act: A. provides paid leave for women who choose to stay home with newborn infants. B. provides unpaid leave of up to 12 weeks for males or females for the birth or adoption of infants, or in the case where it is necessary to care for an immediate family member who may be ill. C. provides unpaid leave of up to 6 weeks for couples (male or female) who have a new baby. D. was recently eliminated by the Supreme Court due to an employment shortage. 265. An important U.S. government organization charged with setting human resource management guidelines is: A. the EEOC (Equal Employment Opportunity Commission). B. the OHSA (Occupational Health and Safety Administration). C. the WPA (Work Progress Administration). D. the MPDA (Manpower Development Administration). 266. According to U.S. business law, accommodation means: A. treating all employees fairly. B. making certain that if one employee gets medical leave during a fiscal year, that all other employees get an equal amount of leave during the year. C. careful consideration before firing someone and hiring two younger persons to replace him/her. D. providing services for employees according to their special needs. 267. Which of the following statements about the Civil Rights Act of 1964 is most accurate? The Civil Rights Act: A. was very controversial when first enacted, but a series of court rulings has largely eliminated its influence on businesses and their treatment of employees. B. explicitly protects whites and males from reverse discrimination. C. is the law that led to direct government involvement in human resource practices that involved discrimination due to sex, color, race, or religion. D. attracted a great deal of attention, but had a limited impact because it only deals with discrimination based on race and ignores other discriminatory practices related to sex, religion, or national origin. 268. The Equal Employment Opportunity Act gave the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission the authority to: A. prevent firms from firing workers based on union affiliation. B. issue guidelines for employer conduct in administering equal employment opportunity programs. C. set salary schedules for protected groups. D. require firms to pay women and minority workers more than white males for the same work. 269. If your company is selling its products or services to the U.S. government, you should study Human Resource law that pertains to: A. the Better Business Bureau in your local area of operation. B. the limits that the EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) places on the pollutants you can emit in your foreign factories. C. the total number of employees you can hire. D. nondiscrimination and affirmative action laws when doing business with the federal government. 270. Which of the following statements about how current HR law views disabilities is accurate? A. The law varies depending upon how the employee acquired the disability. B. Disabilities include diseases such as epilepsy, cancer, and diabetes. C. Disabilities refer to physical but not mental disorders. D. Any disorder that does not require the employee to adapt the work environment to accommodate the employee. 271. Evan McConnell is angry because he was passed over for a promotion even though he believes he was the most qualified candidate. He heard through the company grapevine the promotion went to a female because the firm was afraid of possible action by the EEOC if they did not select a female. What Evan is experiencing is known as: A. reverse discrimination. B. double indemnity. C. de facto discrimination. D. compensatory discrimination. 272. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of the impact the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA) has had on businesses? A. ADA has had no real impact, since most businesses have always been sensitive to the needs of disabled workers. B. Most firms have found that the structural changes needed to comply with ADA requirements have been very difficult and expensive to implement. C. Most firms are finding that the cultural changes required by ADA are more difficult to implement than the structural changes. D. Businesses have found that even with the changes required by ADA, disabled workers are simply not capable of handling most types of jobs. 273. Minnie A. Dent is completing her thirtieth year as a bus driver. Her company recently told her that she would be required to retire within the next two years because she had reached the age limit for mandatory retirement. Minnie wants to fight this ruling based on a claim of age discrimination. Which of the following statements about this case is most accurate: According to the: A. Employment Rights and Responsibilities Act, Minnie has every right to keep her job as long as she has not been convicted of a moving traffic violation while performing her job. B. Affirmative Action Enforcement Act, Minnie has no right to keep her job, because she is not one of the groups that qualify for special protection. C. Fair Labor Standards Act, Minnie may be able to keep her job, but the company can require her to pass an annual vision and hearing exam as a condition of continued employment. D. Age Discrimination in Employment Act, Minnie can be required to retire at a certain age, because she is in an occupation where evidence exists that ability to perform the job diminishes significantly with age. 274. Laura Benitez was hired as a management trainee by Simulex Corporation through a special program designed to "right past wrongs" by giving females and minorities greater opportunities for employment and advancement. The program is enforced by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. Laura was hired through a(n) ____________ program. A. discrimination alleviation B. cultural diversity C. positive response D. affirmative action 275. With respect to employment law, which of the following statements is most accurate? A. Employment law has dealt extensively with the issue of employment at will, but has had little to say about other human resource issues. B. Due to loopholes in the law, employment law is difficult to enforce. C. Employment law has had a major impact on a wide range of issues related to human resource management. D. Employment law has dealt exclusively with the issues of comparable worth and affirmative action, while laws at the state level have been concerned with issues such as worker training, job safety and collective bargaining. 276. As new parents, Sean and Lindsey applied for family medical leave to care for their new infant son. According to U.S. law, Sean and Lindsey: A. are not paid during the 12-week period that each elects to take. B. are each paid as a half-time employee during the 12-week leave period. C. must each take the full amount of family medical leave time. D. must both be employed in order to qualify for any family medical leave time. 277. The first step in the human resources planning process is to: A. prepare a forecast of human resource needs. B. assess future labor demand. C. prepare job specifications for each position within the organization. D. prepare a human resource inventory. 278. The last step of the human resource planning system is to: A. publish a human resource inventory listing the names, ages, job titles, skills, and other pertinent information for all employees in the organization. B. develop an affirmative action statement to explain how the company will meet federal government guidelines on hiring and promotions. C. hold a general meeting to explain the impact of the plan to employees. D. establish a strategic plan for recruiting, selecting, training, appraising and scheduling the labor force. 279. A(n) __________ is prepared as part of the human resource planning process, and indicates the characteristics and qualifications of the organization's labor force, thus helping the firm determine whether its employees are technically up-to-date and adequately trained. A. job analysis B. performance appraisal C. human resource inventory D. organization chart 280. A __________ is a two-part process. One part explains what an employee would actually do at various jobs. A. job analysis B. performance appraisal C. job assessment D. job title review 281. A job analysis results in two written statements. They are: A. the human resource inventories and the affirmative action statement. B. the labor supply assessment and the labor demand assessment. C. the job description and the job specification. D. the job title review and the performance appraisal. 282. A ____________ is a statement that identifies the minimum qualifications required of a worker in order to perform a specific job. A. job description B. performance criteria review C. human resource inventory D. job specification 283. A job ___________ is a statement that identifies the objectives of a job, the type of work to be done, the responsibilities and duties that are associated with the job, the working conditions, and the relationship of the job to other functions. A. specification B. description C. evaluation D. analysis 284. After preparing a job analysis, the next step in the human resource planning process is to: A. develop a human resource inventory. B. assess future human resource demand. C. develop a human resources budget. D. establish a strategic plan. 285. The __________, which is developed from the previous four steps of the human resource planning process, addresses how the firm will accomplish a wide array of human resource functions such as recruiting, selecting, training and developing, appraising, compensating, and scheduling its employees. A. strategic plan B. tactical plan C. job specification D. Gantt chart 286. A human resource inventory is designed to reveal whether: A. all workers are paid a fair wage. B. the firm has enough land and capital to use with its labor. C. the firm's labor force is technically up-to-date and well trained. D. worker morale is high or low. 287. As part of the HR planning process, the manager begins by assessing the current labor situation at his/her company. Essentially, this means: A. preparing job analyses. B. preparing job descriptions. C. preparing job specifications. D. taking an inventory of current employees and their capabilities. 288. Which of the following is an essential element of a job description? A. the minimum educational qualifications workers must have to fill the position B. working conditions and responsibilities C. the skills required to hold the position D. the age of the person that should hold the job 289. Which of the following statements identifies a key difference between a job description and a job specification? A. A job description is concerned with the short-run objectives of a job, but a job specification is concerned with the job's long-run objectives. B. A job description is based on a human resource inventory, while a job specification is the result of a performance appraisal. C. A job description is a statement about the job, while a job specification is a statement about the person who does the job. D. A job description is a brief summary of what a job involves, while a job specification is a detailed and technically complete statement of what a job involves. 290. When creating a job description, the HR manager may include: A. the minimum qualifications for the position B. the number of unpaid leave days the employee can take while at this position C. the specific responsibilities of the job D. a prediction of the number of similar positions that the company will need during the next two to five years 291. The overall purpose of the five step human resource planning process is to: A. protect the company from lawsuits from employees who claim discrimination. B. develop a workforce that is better educated than the workforce of competitor firms. C. eliminate needless job specifications. D. determine the number and types of employees needed by the firm. 292. Steve is gathering information about the names, ages, education, specialized skills, and capabilities of all of his firm's employees. The information Steve is acquiring suggests he is working on a: A. performance evaluation. B. human resource inventory. C. job description. D. Gantt chart. 293. Hillary is a human resource manager with Golden Years Elder Care Services. The company is considering offering some new services, and she wants to know how many current employees have certain types of skills and training to adequately perform the new services. A document that would help Hillary answer this question is the firm's: A. strategic plan. B. human resource inventory. C. organization chart. D. social audit. 294. Kandew Electronics requires all employees who work as research specialists in its electrical engineering department to have a minimum of a bachelor's degree in electrical engineering (BSEE). This educational requirement would most likely be stated in the job _________ for this position. A. analysis B. description C. designation D. specification 295. Ben Eisner is a HR manager at Claymont Communications. Which of the following tasks would Ben perform as a part of the human resource planning process? A. forecast future human resource requirements for his company B. appraise the performance of individual workers at his company C. establish the budget for the human resource department D. interview potential workers 296. Markus believes that due to changing technology the minimum skill level that his company is requiring for computer intensive jobs should be increased to include knowledge and experience in higher level programming applications. These new requirements would be reflected in _______________ for various jobs at his company. A. the job description B. the job specification C. the human resource inventory D. the job application 297. Ben is a project manager for a large construction company. Each day his job requires him to prepare detailed reports of the progress of current projects assigned to him. Since this responsibility is something that Ben does on a regular basis, the HR professional for his company would list it as part of the ______________ for Ben's project management position. A. job description B. job specification C. human resource inventory D. job application 298. By doing a quick, one-minute search, an HR specialist determined who in her company knew programming language C++. The specialist used the company's database to retrieve the information, however, this information should also be part of the HR planning process, as found in _______________. A. specific job descriptions B. the future labor supply assessment C. the human resource inventory D. the company training portfolio 299. _________ is the set of activities for obtaining the right number of people at the right time in order to select those who best meet the needs of the organization. A. Pre-selection B. Recruitment C. Networking D. Preemptive hiring 300. CareerBuilder and the Monster are examples of: A. web browsers. B. career interest surveys. C. Internet services firms can use to recruit employees. D. magazines that list job opportunities by skill requirements and geographic location. 301. Promotions and transfers are __________ sources available to human resource managers in their recruiting efforts. A. internal B. external C. passive D. redundant 302. Help wanted ads, public and private employment agencies, and college placement bureaus are all ________ sources that human resource managers can use in the recruiting efforts. A. secondary B. passive C. back-up D. external 303. According to the "Spotlight on Small Business" box in Chapter 11, which of the following strategies can be used to attract qualified employees to work for a small business? A. test-drive an employee B. post job openings in the local supermarket C. hire permanent employees with the promise of health insurance as a benefit D. offer an initial high starting salary 304. Which of the following strategies is used by a human resource manager whose goal is to fill an open position from within the company? A. advertise the opportunity for a promotion to current employees B. seek the assistance of a public employment agencies C. send the job opening to Monster.com D. utilize the services of a private employment agencies 305. Which of the following is an external recruitment source? A. college placement bureaus B. promotion of a current employee to a new position C. transferring an employee in from a different office D. recommendations of employees 306. Which of the following reasons makes the recruiting job more challenging? A. The current emphasis on scientific management requires very specific job specification. B. Some organizations have policies that demand promotions from within that limits the pool of candidates. C. Reverse discrimination is essential to be sure that the workforce is balanced. D. There are far too many qualified candidates for each position, increasing the required paperwork. 307. It is sometimes advantageous to hire from within because it __________. A. eliminates the need to meet affirmative action regulations B. ensures that the best qualified person gets the job C. Is less costly, and helps maintain employee morale D. allows the firm to effectively use the "employment at will" strategy 308. Which of the following conditions does not present itself as a recruiting challenge? A. when the company can only offer a competitive wage B. complying with union regulations C. finding good talent that also fits well with the current company culture D. when the company can offer higher wages as compared to the competition 309. Which of the following statements about recruiting is most accurate? A. It is important for a firm to recruit and hire people who are not only skilled but also fit in with the firm's culture and leadership style. B. Recruiting internally will almost always result in better qualified applicants than recruiting externally. C. Small firms generally have a strong advantage when it comes to recruiting. D. One advantage to using external sources when recruiting is that this approach tends to result in higher morale among the firm's existing employees. 310. According to the material in the "Spotlight on Small Business" box in Chapter 11, which of the following statements about recruiting workers for a small business is the most accurate? A. Small businesses generally find it easier to recruit qualified workers than do large firms. B. Specialized sites on the Internet provide an effective and relatively inexpensive way for small businesses to recruit workers. C. Small businesses should place one person in charge of selecting new hires and limit the total number of people involved in the process to no more than 3. D. Small businesses should avoid hiring their own customers, since doing so is likely to cause a conflict of interest. 311. Sally is a human resource manager with Weldun Cooking Supplies who needs to recruit sales professionals to fill several positions within her company. Sally is likely to rely on external recruiting sources if she: A. wants to eliminate the need to meet affirmative action regulations. B. believes that Weldun's current employees do not have the qualifications necessary to successfully fill the positions. C. places a great deal of importance on maintaining high morale for current workers. D. needs to keep the cost of her recruiting efforts to a minimum. 312. As a human resources professional for a large company, David is involved with the ___________ process. His goal is to find the right number of qualified people at the right time. He will screen a qualified pool of candidates and send these individuals forward to others in the firm who will make the final selection decision. A. recruiting B. human resource allocating C. organizing D. job orienteering 313. Andrew took a job with a company that strives to market several new consumer products each year. Prior to this position, he worked in a research lab at a university where he studied nanotechnology. He accepted the new position because the salary was significantly above what he previously made. Within a month's time at the new job, his manager began to have reservations about bringing him on board. Andrew seemed to prefer to work independently of others, and when he did interact with his new colleagues, he passed along subtle reminders of his extensive and superior academic credentials. From a recruitment standpoint, this situation serves as an indication of: A. the benefits of shaking things up a little at work. B. the challenges of trying to convince long-term employees that they need to retrain and continue their education. C. the benefit of external recruitment over internal recruitment, even though in the short-run, it may be the more costly approach for the company. D. the importance of finding talent that also fits well with the corporate culture. 314. Charlie is the director for a small non-profit company that provides jobs for disabled Americans. One of his most time consuming responsibilities is finding companies that are willing to hire his company to perform tasks such as bulk mailings and other small jobs that his employees can do in a reasonable amount of time. He needs to recruit an outside sales representative who can dedicate time to meeting with other firms and selling the services of the non-profit operation. Under the circumstances that Charlie's non-profit is similar to a small business with a small amount of funds dedicated toward the sales position, which of the following strategies may be a suitable approach to finding a good sales person? A. Lure candidates with the promise of a promotion, but with no intention of carrying through. B. Find a qualified volunteer - you can do this easier in a bad economy. C. Partner with the local community college and test drive students who may want to intern with you. D. Take-out large ads in the local newspaper. 315. When managing your human resources, _____________ is the process of deciding who should be hired, under legal guidelines, to serve the best interests of the individual and the organization. A. interviewing B. applicant analysis C. performance appraisal D. selection 316. The first step in the selection process is: A. obtaining complete application forms. B. placing a help wanted ad. C. the initial interview. D. aptitude testing. 317. During the employee selection process, the screening interview is often conducted by: A. the current workers in the applicant's department. B. a member of the human resources department staff. C. a selection committee consisting of managers from all departments within the organization. D. the company's affirmative action officer. 318. One way firms have made the application process more efficient and effective is by: A. concentrating on internal sources of recruitment so that detailed information is already available. B. including more questions on the application form about family background and other characteristics that are not job-related. C. using an artificial intelligence program such as Workforce Acquisition™ to quickly assess qualifications and help the manager decide whether to request an interview with the applicant. D. offering small monetary rewards to existing employees who recommend new people that are ultimately made a job offer. 319. One of the main complaints made by critics of employment tests is that these tests: A. fail to take the interests and personalities of the test takers into account. B. cannot measure basic competencies. C. may discriminate against certain groups. D. take so long to conduct and evaluate that they slow down the selection process. 320. A _________________ is a check of a potential employee's work record, academic record, credit history, and recommendations. A. personality profile B. background investigation C. fidelity appraisal D. character review 321. As an important step in the human resource selection process, which of the following will expedite the process of conducting background investigations and promises to get suitable results? A. Hiring services such as LexisNexis to conduct criminal checks and driving records. B. Dedicating one human resource expert to making personal calls and doing all the background checks. C. Minimalizing the types of questions the company asks at this juncture. D. If there is a need to skip one of the selection process steps, most companies have found that this one can be eliminated. 322. According to the American with Disabilities Act, which of the following is not an appropriate screening tool? A. job related knowledge tests B. personality tests C. background investigations D. medical exams 323. _____________ workers do not have the expectation of regular, full-time employment. A. Contingent B. Apprenticed C. Indentured D. Underemployed 324. The selection process may include a(n) _______________, where employment is only guaranteed for a specified period of time, until either a permanent offer is extended or the employee is discharged. A. intern period B. probationary period C. contingent period D. action pending period 325. Employment testing: A. was declared illegal by the EEOC in 1989, because it was often used to discriminate against women and minorities. B. is legal, but is a very poor predictor of worker performance. C. should be directly related to the job. D. should focus on the most basic and general skills rather than on skills directly related to the job. 326. Jolie is a human resource manager who is currently involved in selecting employees. Which of the following activities is Jolie most likely to be working on in her present assignment? A. performing a job analysis B. writing a help wanted ad C. conducting an orientation program D. completing a background investigation 327. Pre-employment physical examinations are: A. an excellent way to screen out employees. B. legal in some states, but only if given to everyone applying for the position. C. illegal under current employment legislation in all 50 states. D. legal in all states, but seldom used. 328. Which of the following statements about contingent workers is most accurate? A. More than 75 percent of contingent workers are employed in office-clerical work. B. The number of contingent workers in the U.S. has steadily declined over the past decade. C. U.S. labor laws require firms to offer contingent employees the same wages and benefits as other employees performing similar work. D. Companies will rely on contingent workers in an uncertain economy. 329. Which of the following is a valid statement about contingent workers? A. Contingent workers are seldom skilled professionals. B. By law, employers must provide contingent workers the same salary and benefits as permanent employees. C. An increasing number of companies are hiring skilled professionals such as accountants as part of their contingent workforce. D. By law, companies cannot hire contingent workers as part of the management team. 330. As indicated in the Making Ethical Decisions box, "Motivating Temporary Employees", A. it is bad policy to consider using any motivational tactics directed toward contingent employees. B. all temporary employees have the same need - to work part-time, otherwise, they would seek full-time employment. C. it is good policy to entice temporary employees with the hope that they will become full-time employees. D. providing temporary employees with the impression that full-time positions will be available in the near future is a questionable ethical practice. 331. Betty Roosevelt is a human resource manager with Avondale Industries. Her current assignment is to revise and update Avondale's employment testing procedures. Betty should: A. design tests that are directly related to an applicant's ability to perform the job. B. write tests sufficiently difficult that only a small fraction of qualified workers can pass them. C. design tests that measure general aptitudes rather than ability to do the job. D. inform her superiors that such tests are now illegal. 332. Crocker Enterprises conducts thorough background investigations of its prospective employees. The purpose of such investigations is to: A. meet federal reporting guidelines that requires up-to-date work history for each candidate. B. identify those applicants that are most likely to succeed. C. implement the "employment at will" doctrine. D. discover whether the employee has ever worked for a competitor. 333. Mallard's Department Store typically sells over a third of all its merchandise in the last two months of the year. Management has found that it must hire __________ workers during this period of increased business to supplement its permanent employees. A. nontenured B. apprentice C. contingent D. journeymen 334. Which of the following workers would be the best example of a contingent worker? A. an assembly line worker who belongs to a union and has 17 years of seniority B. an accountant hired to help during the busy tax season C. an elementary school teacher who just received tenure D. an electrical engineer who frequently travels out of the country to the various manufacturing facilities owned and operated by his firm 335. Danielle relies on summer earnings to fund her next year at the university. When she tried to get her old high school summer job back at local Cool Rags Clothier, she learned that the manager no longer hires college students during the summer months. Which of the following strategies do you recommend that Danielle pursue? A. Contact temporary staffing companies. B. Realize that Cool Rags always needs more sales associates in the summer, and stay in contact with the management just in case. C. Look for a permanent position, and quit as it gets closer to the time when you will return to the university. D. Seek the services of a resume consultant, and pay to access a variety of employment tests so that you are prepared when the next job opportunity arises. 336. The purpose of ____________ is to increase an employee's ability to perform productively. A. training and development B. employment tests C. contingency planning D. job enrichment 337. Internet-based training courses are sometimes also called: A. contingency training. B. synchronized training. C. distance learning. D. vestibule training. 338. The first step in establishing training and development programs is to: A. establish appropriate simulation parameters. B. assess the needs of the organization and the skills of the employees. C. conduct preemployment tests. D. start designing programs. 339. ____________ introduces new employees to the organization, their fellow workers, their supervisors, and to the policies, practices, and objectives of the firm. A. Vestibule training B. Employee initiation C. Employee orientation D. Job specification 340. In a(n) ______________ an inexperienced worker learns by working alongside an experienced employee to master the skills and procedures of a craft. A. orientation period B. simulation period C. indentureship program D. apprenticeship program 341. A worker who successfully completes an apprenticeship program earns the title: A. master craftsman. B. journeyman. C. senior artisan. D. probationary craftsman. 342. ______________ is the easiest kind of training to implement, when the job requires simple tasks and/or repetitive. A. Vestibule training B. Job simulation C. On-the-job training D. An employee boot camp 343. Shadowing is another term used to refer to ______________. A. job rotation B. vestibule training C. role playing D. on-the-job training 344. Computer and robotics training is sometimes performed in a nearby classroom type setting. We refer to near-the-job-training as ______________. A. vestibule training B. orienteering C. apprenticeship training D. mentoring 345. __________ is a type of training that duplicates the exact combination of conditions that occur on the job. A. Modular training B. Job simulation C. "Dress rehearsal" training D. Performance feedback 346. Off-the-job training: A. is further development that occurs at the workplace, but after scheduled work hours. B. focuses only on the skills needed to perform the job. C. may include higher education. D. is training that all employees should take-on, on their own, in order to stay competitive in their career field. 347. ___________ is the process of training and educating employees to become good managers and then developing their managerial skills over time. A. Management development B. Vestibule training C. Pre-mentoring D. Self-actualization training 348. Corporate managers who supervise, coach, and guide lower-level employees and serve as their organizational sponsors are called: A. networkers. B. role models. C. mentors. D. corporate guides. 349. __________ is the process of establishing and maintaining contacts with key managers in one's own organization and in other organizations, and using those contacts to establish strong relationships that serve as informal development systems. A. Training and development B. Social integration C. Orienteering D. Networking 350. A management training program that gives managers assignments in a variety of departments in order to expose them to different functions within the organization is called: A. job enlargement. B. vestibule training. C. job rotation. D. an apprenticeship program. 351. Selected employees who work as assistants to higher-level managers and participate in managerial functions are given such titles as: A. second in command B. benefactor C. underwriter in process D. understudy or undersecretary 352. Which of the following statements describes the relationship between employee training and employee development? A. They are just two names for the same thing. B. Training is short-term skills oriented while development is long-term career oriented. C. Development is provided by the company and is designed to meet the specific needs of the organization, whereas training focuses on more general skills and normally is provided by schools, colleges and institutions other than the employer. D. Training focuses on conceptual skills while development seeks to improve technical skills. 353. According to information in Chapter 11, which of the following is not one of the three steps HR managers use as part of training and development? A. Assessing the types of training needed by your firm. B. Designing the training activities, including selecting the type(s) of training activities that will be pursued. C. Predicting the success of each new employee/trainee prior to training. D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the training after it is accomplished. 354. A major purpose of employee orientation programs is to: A. initiate new employees to the organization, their fellow employees, and their immediate supervisors. B. give experienced employees a chance to learn new skills. C. test new employees to determine where they should be assigned. D. help workers who have been laid off to find new jobs. 355. Job rotation helps lower-level managers prepare for higher-level positions by: A. letting them assume upper management positions for a limited time period. B. exposing them to different functions within the organization, thus giving them the broad perspective needed by top managers. C. helping them hone their highly specialized technical skills. D. giving them the opportunity to learn about every aspect of work performed in their department by spending a day doing the job of each person within the department. 356. Women often have more trouble finding mentors than men because: A. women are less aware of the way to look for a mentor. B. most successful women who could serve as mentors are so committed to family responsibilities that they do not have time to mentor other women. C. most older managers who could serve as mentors are male. D. clubs and organizations where most mentoring takes place either exclude women or make it difficult for them join. 357. With the advent of more sophisticated technology, employers who operate locally and globally and want all employees to receive the same training may opt for ______. A. apprenticeship programs B. mentorship programs C. job rotation programs D. online training programs 358. Which of the following statements about networking is the most accurate? A. White males are much more aware of the importance of networking than women and minorities. B. Although African-American and Hispanic managers are becoming aware of the importance of networking, there are no organizations available to help them make networking connections. C. Women have more difficulty forming networks than men because they can be barred from male only clubs and social organizations where much of the networking occurs. D. Students can begin building network connections in college, even before they take on a full time job. 359. As companies continue to develop women and minorities for management positions, they: A. increase the available talent pool of skilled employees. B. decrease chances for men to compete for professional positions. C. increase the morale of all employees. D. decrease the birthrate. 360. It's good strategy to develop women and minorities for management positions because: A. it's a sure thing that the U.S. government will continue to pass laws that penalize companies even more for passing up women and minorities when it comes to promotion. B. women and minorities in management positions attract other women and minorities as customers and provide these groups with better service. C. it's less expensive to train these diverse groups. They do not demand as much in terms of travel and training time. D. it is considered immoral to pass-up women and minority groups seeking jobs. 361. Chris is a member of the carpenters' union who recently achieved the classification of journeyman. This means that Chris: A. is a contingent worker. B. passed a written exam, but is still working to learn the basic skills needed to be a carpenter. C. has successfully completed his apprenticeship program. D. is an apprentice and still on the journey of becoming a certified professional carpenter. 362. When Zoe began her Ph.D. program at Vanderbilt University, she was immediately assigned to a female ________ who would serve as a coach and guide to shorten the learning curve and help Zoe meet the right people who could enhance her career. Her program also required ___________, where she would spend four to six weeks in different labs, gaining experience and exposure to a variety of research in her field of study. A. mentor; off-the-job training B. journeyman; network C. understudy; vestibule training D. mentor; job rotation 363. Backstreet Books, an eclectic bookstore on a large college campus is owned by a large bookstore chain. Corporate HR knows that sexual harassment in the workplace is a serious issue. In order to provide consistency in its effort to train employees about sexual harassment, HR management created _____________. Employees have a flexible time period when they can log-on and receive exactly the same training as employees in all of the company owned and managed bookstores. A. online training B. off-the-job training C. vestibule training D. simulation training 364. Bob says he has achieved his "dream job". As an engineer for a major defense systems company, he is responsible for using sophisticated airplane and weaponry equipment that creates the exact conditions that a professional may experience if he/she uses the equipment in a real-life situation. He spends several hours each day performing ____________. A. vestibule training exercises B. apprenticeship training exercises C. distance learning training exercises D. simulation training exercises 365. At Washington Seat Belt Industries, new workers are immediately assigned to jobs. They learn by doing the actual work and by watching longer-term employees. This company uses a policy of: A. vertical assimilation. B. on-the-job training. C. operational apprenticeships. D. vestibule training. 366. Julie Daniels recently became a member of the Plumbers Union. She has been told she will work with John Weimeister, a skilled and experienced plumber, for at least three years in order to learn all of the skills and techniques of her craft. This type of training is referred to as: A. skill replication. B. applied supervision. C. apprenticeship training. D. vestibule training. 367. Before American Road Builders, Inc., permits its new employees to operate the heavy equipment it uses to build roads, it sends them to a nearby classroom where they learn the safe and proper way to work with all of the tools and equipment they will use when they perform their jobs. American Road Builders is using a training technique known as: A. vestibule training. B. offline training. C. job replication. D. modular training. 368. Greg, a control room engineer at Tri State Power, Inc.'s nuclear power plant regularly practices handling emergency situations in a computerized mockup that duplicates the sights, sounds, and experiences of a real control room under emergency conditions. TriState uses _______ to train its engineers. A. time intensive training B. job replication C. vestibule training D. job simulation 369. Jake accepted a management trainee position at Opelika Resorts, a real estate development company. Corporate management believes Jake has potential to move into a top management position within the organization. They have begun assigning Jake to a different department every few months so he can obtain the broad perspective needed by top managers. This company is using ______________ to develop Jake's management skills. A. job rotation B. multitasking C. understudying D. cross-functional management 370. Julie Jahn recently began working in an entry-level management position. She has already shown great promise, so the company has decided to groom her for an upper level position. Christine Scheid, one of the more senior women managers in the company, has agreed to help Julie by introducing her to the right people, and by providing her with the guidance and advice she needs to be successful within the firm. Christine is acting as Julie's: A. mentor. B. assimilation assistant. C. transfer agent. D. network captain. 371. If you aspire to become a sous chef (the second in command in a large restaurant kitchen), you will pursue several types of training and development. Your __________ will include learning how to perform as a line chef, as you work your way through pastry, grill, pantry, and sauté. The only way you will learn the variations in the line jobs is to experience them! As a(n) _________, you will work alongside another sous chef for a few years in order to learn how to juggle all the middle management type of activities expected of this professional. Your ____________ training will be extensive, as you go to Culinary School, attend a community college, and/or take management classes to help you learn to minimize conflict in the kitchen as well as improve the productivity of those you manage. A. apprenticeship; journeyman; online B. apprenticeship; simulator; off-the-job C. job rotation; apprentice; off-the-job D. on-the-job training; journeyman; vestibule 372. U.S. President Obama nominated New York Judge Sonia Sotamayor to the Supreme Court, to fill the position vacated by Justice Sutter. At the hearings that preceded the vote by the Senate, there was extensive discussion about Judge Sotamayor's past speeches where she alluded to a sensitivity toward minority problems and situations due to the fact that she is a Hispanic minority and a woman. The concern by many senators is that the law should be applied equally among all groups in the U.S.; in fact, some were worried about reverse discrimination. Others favored the fact that her background would bring a different perspective to the court. Although there are differences between an appointment to the Supreme Court and appointing employees to management positions, there are also similarities in these actions. High profile positions and appointments serve as examples. From a business perspective, why might such an action be a good thing? A. Creating a diverse supreme court is never a good idea. It will certainly lend itself to more laws similar to affirmative action and other hiring issues. B. Businesses always follow the lead of politicians and political appointments. Companies now have a "heads-up" that their competitors will start campaigns to promote minorities to top positions. C. Creating a team of diverse individuals working for your business will help you make decisions based on a variety of perspectives, and ultimately to attract and retain a diverse group of customers. D. It's unethical and illegal to pass-up a minority candidate that is equally qualified. The senators had no choice but to confirm this nomination, and they are warning businesses that they must do the same, or face future repercussions. 373. The _____________ is an evaluation of the performance level of employees against established standards to make decisions about promotions, compensation, additional training, or firing. A. job analysis B. performance appraisal C. MBO assessment D. objective analysis 374. The first step in the performance appraisal process is to: A. perform a human resource inventory. B. establish performance standards. C. analyze the jobs to see what tasks must be performed. D. meet with employees and discuss the overall objectives of the firm. 375. The last step in performance appraisal is to: A. talk to the employee being appraised. B. evaluate the employee's performance. C. take any corrective action that the appraisal indicates is necessary. D. use the results to make decisions about compensation, promotions, and additional training. 376. A newer form of performance appraisal is called the ___________ because it encourages feedback from all around the employee including those who report to him/her. A. 360-degree review B. roundabout assessment C. environmental review D. multilevel assessment 377. The purpose of a performance appraisal is to: A. protect the firm from lawsuits by disgruntled employees. B. improve employee performance. C. obtain information for the firm's financial performance that must be provided in the annual report to stockholders. D. give managers the information they need to determine the firm's strengths and weaknesses relative to its most serious competitors. 378. The information contained in performance appraisals helps managers: A. write job descriptions. B. compute the firm's overall performance in terms of a rate of return on investment. C. evaluate job applicants. D. make decisions about promotions, compensation, training, and firing. 379. Unlike a traditional performance appraisal, a 360-degree review: A. is performed by experts from outside the organization. B. provides feedback from all around the employee. C. uses only objective measures of performance. D. compares the performance of each worker to every other worker. 380. Which of the following statements about performance appraisals is the most accurate? A. The most difficult step of a performance appraisal is almost always the actual evaluation of the employee's performance. B. Performance standards do not have to be measurable in order to be effective. C. The discussion of the results of a performance evaluation with an employee should allow the employee an opportunity to make suggestions about how to improve on current procedures. D. Most employees have a good understanding of the standards they are expected to meet, even if their managers do not explicitly communicate these standards. 381. A department manager evaluated the performance of her subordinates as part of a performance appraisal process. If she follows the six-step appraisal process, the next step is: A. meet with employees to discuss the results. B. write up a performance review report and submit it to top management. C. adjust the standards based on how well the employees did. D. make decisions about training, promotions, and pay raises. 382. Managers at Wrise & Schein want to make sure their decisions about compensation, promotions and firings are based on sound information that meet legal requirements. One way to achieve this objective would be to: A. outsource all such decisions to an outside expert. B. establish an effective performance appraisal system. C. make sure that these decisions are not influenced by the employee's immediate supervisor. D. base all pay, promotion, and firing decisions on the Hay system. 383. Jorge Martinez hates to do performance appraisals of his subordinates because he always struggles when he has to evaluate their performance. In order to make the actual performance evaluations a better experience for all, Jorge should: A. base his evaluation on a written test. B. use a democratic approach and let the employees evaluate each other. C. set performance standards that are reasonable, understandable, and measurable, then clearly communicate these standards to his subordinates. D. use the principle of motion economy to break down each subordinate's job into a series of steps that can be easily evaluated and compared to ideal performance standards. 384. Managers at the Allerton Bank get a performance appraisal one time each year. The bank uses a relatively new evaluation process that provides feedback about performance not only from superiors but also from subordinates and other managers at the same level. This type of evaluation is known as a(n): A. organization-wide appraisal. B. 360-degree review. C. circular analysis. D. multilevel assessment. 385. As a project manager for a large construction company, Tyler decided to make the performance appraisal process as painless as possible for his work crew. He spent a considerable amount of time creating performance standards he felt were reasonable, and after six months time, he scheduled individual appointments with each worker to discuss strengths and weaknesses and areas that needed improvement according to the standards he privately set. Some employees were sent to vestibule training, and one even got a promotion with additional compensation. What did Tyler fail to do correctly? A. Provide a pleasant environment for the appraisal such as a restaurant setting. B. Dismiss at least 10% of the work crew. C. Copy the HR department on all the results, within 24 hours of each appraisal. D. Communicate the performance standards to the employees so they know what is expected. 386. For many types of service organizations such as hospitals, banks and airlines, the primary cost of operations is: A. establishing and maintaining a presence on the Internet. B. insurance and legal expenses. C. coping with obsolescence that results from the rapid pace of technological change. D. compensation of labor. 387. Workers who are paid a __________ receive a fixed compensation weekly, biweekly, or monthly. A. commission B. salary C. piece rate D. royalty 388. Salespeople often are paid a _______ based on a percentage of their sales. A. commission B. salary C. royalty D. piece rate 389. Blue-collar and clerical workers who punch a time clock typically are paid a(n): A. commission. B. salary. C. hourly wage. D. piecework rate. 390. Notes of appreciation, awards, and gift certificates given to reward employees for accomplishing or surpassing established objectives are all examples of: A. cashless rewards. B. fringe benefits. C. psychographic payments. D. supplemental salary. 391. The __________ system is a pay system that is based on job tiers, with each tier having a strict pay range. A. Steiner B. Gantt C. Hay D. Gilbreath 392. The two most common compensation methods for teams are: A. cash bonuses and cashless bonuses. B. skill-based pay and gain-sharing. C. piecework pay and commissions. D. salaries and capital gains. 393. Although the skills learned do not always translate into profits for the company, ______ pay rewards the growth of both the individual and team participation. A. Skill-based B. Gain-sharing C. Commission D. Stock option 394. A common way of compensating teams is a ___________ system, in which bonuses are based on improvements over a previous performance baseline. A. commission B. stock option C. gain-sharing D. skill-based 395. Sick-leave pay, vacation pay, pension plans, and health plans that provide additional compensation to employees are called: A. fringe benefits. B. off-schedule salary. C. bonus sharing. D. nonmonetary salaries. 396. Today, fringe benefits account for approximately ______ percent of total payroll costs. A. 6 B. 18 C. 24 D. 30 397. Many firms now offer their employees ___________ benefits, such as on-site haircuts and free breakfasts, which help employees maintain a balance between work and family life. A. real-time B. situational C. break time D. soft 398. A fringe benefit plan where employees choose the package of benefits they want up to a certain dollar amount is called a __________ plan. A. cafeteria-style B. variable lifestyle C. 401K D. flexible spending 399. A Professional employer organization (PEO): A. is another name for the human resources department of any organization. B. puts together promotional messages for companies trying to attract good talent. C. is a company that puts together fringe benefit programs for other firms. D. is a government agency that serves as a clearinghouse to check whether the person you want to hire can legally work in the U.S. 400. A major advantage of a piecework pay system is that it: A. creates a powerful incentive to work efficiently. B. requires a minimum of paperwork and record keeping. C. encourages cooperation and teamwork among employees. D. is a system that is strongly supported by both unions and management. 401. A problem with the Hay system of compensating workers is that: A. because it is relatively new, most workers and managers are unfamiliar with it. B. the EEOC has declared it illegal because it discriminates against older workers. C. it is difficult and expensive to administer because of the extensive paperwork needed to compute wages and salaries each pay period. D. it can lead to resentment because more productive employees may earn less than employees who do not perform as well but have worked for the company longer. 402. Human resource managers at Tri Max, Inc. want to encourage teamwork and are looking for a better way to compensate members of teams. One approach they are considering is a skill-based system. Which of the following statements about this type of pay system is most accurate? A. Skill-based systems are unlikely to work with teams because they are designed to encourage individual initiative rather than teamwork. B. A skill-based system is a very effective way to pay teams because this approach makes it easy to correlate skill acquisition with the bottom-line gains of the company. C. A skill-based pay system works well in many cases, but employees tend to resist this approach since it affects only bonuses, which are not guaranteed, rather than base pay. D. Team members have base salaries, but they are additionally compensated according to the number of new skills they acquire as a team. 403. Which of the following statements about team pay is the most accurate? A. Most managers are very satisfied with the team-based pay programs that are currently in place. B. Most managers have concluded that team pay methods are so complex and difficult to administer that they have gone back to pay plans based on rewarding workers for their individual achievements. C. Although individuals who make an outstanding contribution should be recognized and rewarded, a pay system based strictly on individual performance can undermine the cohesiveness teams need to meet their goals. D. Team pay plans should emphasize individual rewards since the team can succeed only if all individuals are highly motivated to work as hard as possible. 404. When workers are a part of a team their compensation should be: A. based strictly on their individual performance in order to encourage each worker to exert his or her maximum effort. B. based strictly on the achievements of their team in order to encourage teamwork and cooperation. C. a stated wage or salary that is not based on either team or individual performance, because it is very difficult to measure individual performance in a team environment. D. based on team performance, with additional rewards for those workers who make outstanding individual contributions. 405. According to the material in the "Reaching Beyond Our Borders" box for Chapter 11, which of the following statements about working with employees from different countries is most accurate? A. The increasingly global nature of markets and the impact of television, movies and the Internet on people's attitudes and perceptions have largely eliminated cultural differences between foreign and domestic workers. B. Currency rate differences and different laws with respect to fringe benefits such as health insurance and time-off, offer challenges for HR management. C. U.S. laws require American firms to hire, train, and pay employees in other countries the same way their U.S. employees are hired, trained and paid. D. More often than not, American firms have found that cultural differences in other nations are so great that it is more efficient to staff key positions in foreign facilities with American workers rather than hire foreign workers. 406. Companies place a considerable amount of attention on compensation plans because: A. firms are likely to face stiff penalties from the government if they do not offer competitive wages and salaries. B. attracting the right employees with good compensation packages can translate into a competitive advantage. C. it is a hygiene factor. D. a good compensation plan will be less costly than other parts of the operation. 407. Tyrone recently earned his license to sell real estate in Indiana, and has interviewed with several agencies in an attempt to find a job. All have told him that his income will be based on a percentage of his real estate sales for the month. Tyrone will be paid: A. a monthly salary. B. a piece rate. C. on a commission basis. D. through a profit-sharing plan. 408. Dana is a supervisor at a small manufacturing plant. Her pay starts at $635 per week. Dana is paid on a(n): A. salary pay system. B. commission pay plan. C. rolling rate system. D. income averaging plan. 409. Dan works for ElekTek, a firm producing sophisticated electronic equipment used in state-of-the-art security systems. Dan is happy to see that the value of ElekTek's stock has reached $47 per share, because certain employees (including Dan) have the opportunity to buy a given number of shares of its stock for $30 per share for the next year regardless of how high the market price goes. Elec Tek is offering some employees a: A. stock annuity plan. B. stock reinvestment plan. C. stock dividend. D. stock option plan. 410. This year, International Accountants, Inc. implemented a new benefits system that gives employees the flexibility to choose among different benefit options, as long as the total cost of the benefits does not exceed a certain amount. The type of benefits package offered to International Accountants employees is a(n): A. flexiplan. B. cafeteria-style benefits plan. C. democratic benefits package. D. open options benefits plan. 411. The most likely reason a firm would pay its sales representatives a commission rather than a salary is that it wants to: A. provide sales representatives with a strong incentive to generate more sales for the company. B. keep the pay system as simple as possible. C. be able to deduct the cost of compensating the sales representatives from its taxable income. D. give the sales representatives a stronger incentive to collaborate with each other and act as a team. 412. This is Anne's year! She finally broke through the glass ceiling - meaning she has reached an executive level position with her company, with a salary upwards of $200,000. Recently a competitor firm has approached her offering her $15,000 less in salary, but the job would come with an upgraded car, memberships in two country clubs of her choice, an additional two weeks paid vacation with use of the company's villa in Jamaica, and paid financial counseling. With respect to compensation, Anne: A. will not consider this offer because it is not worth $15k less in salary, and it would impact her ability for future offers. B. may consider this offer because it is not just about compensation, it is about the job content. C. will not consider this offer because it lacks soft benefits. D. may consider this offer because accepting fringe benefits instead of a higher salary may positively impact her tax consequences. 413. After graduating with a double major in engineering and business, Scott accepted a job with a large telecommunications company with the understanding that his first two years on the job would be spent internationally - Argentina and Korea. The company was willing to offer a compensation package that would compensate him for the sacrifice of leaving his family and living abroad, and if things went well, they anticipated that he would receive a promotion when coming back to the states. According to the Reaching Beyond our Borders box, titled, "Working Worldwide", which of the following is the firm least likely to consider when planning Scott's compensation plan? A. special relocation allowances for housing and travel B. currency conversions and tax consequences C. health insurance concerns D. soft benefits 414. A ___________ plan gives employees some ability to adjust when they work, as long as they work the required number of hours. A. cafeteria-style plan B. flextime C. varitime D. Gantt scheduling 415. The time when all employees must be present in a flextime plan is referred to as: A. compressed time. B. shared time. C. core time. D. company time. 416. A __________ allows workers to work the full number of hours per week in fewer days. A. flextime plan B. compressed workweek C. maximum plan D. double shift plan 417. A disadvantage of flextime plans is that they often: A. confuse workers. B. lead to a higher level of absenteeism. C. cause worker morale to decline. D. require supervisors and managers to work longer hours. 418. Most workers resist taking advantage of flexible work schedules because: A. they believe doing so may hurt their careers. B. the plans usually require them to take a pay cut. C. their existing schedules already fit their lifestyles. D. such schedules give them less time to interact with other workers in the organization. 419. In a _____________ arrangement two part-time employees fill one full-time job. A. job enlargement B. multitasking C. job sharing D. split shift 420. Companies that employ home-based workers are establishing a reservation system called ___________ that temporarily assigns employees to a desk if they need to come to an office location. A. job sharing B. hoteling C. flextime D. telecommuting 421. Companies are utilizing home-based workers as ________, shifting away from the expense of maintaining in-house operators or less qualified offshore operators. A. call agents B. staff positions such as attorneys C. multitaskers D. receptionists 422. Although there are advantages and disadvantages to home-based workers for both the employer and employee the disadvantages to employer, employee, and society in general can be summarized as: A. It increases the overall costs to everyone: employers, employees, and society. B. It increases theft because employees are likely to take more office supplies home, which changes their overall attitude about honesty. C. It decreases important social interaction between and among employees on a number of levels, resulting in a change in the social network and corporate culture. D. It decreases everyone's competitive advantage. 423. A major characteristic of a compressed workweek is that: A. workers receive the same pay for fewer hours of work. B. the pace of work is increased so that workers perform the same amount of work in fewer hours. C. employees work fewer days each week, but work more hours each workday. D. two or more part-time workers are hired to fill each full-time position. 424. A firm that wants to reduce its office costs, broaden its base of available talent and improve job satisfaction could achieve all of these goals by: A. recruiting only from internal sources. B. making greater use of scientific management techniques. C. implementing the Hay system of compensation. D. allowing more workers to work from home. 425. Which of the following firms would have the strongest incentive to adopt a job sharing plan? A. The ABC Company wants to simplify its hiring and training procedures. B. The CDE Corporation wants to offer employees more flexibility in the types of fringe benefits they receive. C. EFG Clothiers wants to reduce the span of control of its supervisors. D. GHI Health Services wants to reduce absenteeism and tardiness. 426. Which of the following statements about home-based work and telecommuting is most accurate? A. Although home-based work may become very popular in the future, only a small percentage of workers currently work at home on a regular basis. B. Telecommuting offers big advantages for many workers, but is likely to increase costs for employers significantly. C. Home-based work tends to increase the productivity of almost all workers, since people tend to be more productive when they are comfortable and can work flexible hours. D. Home-based work allows workers to choose their own hours and interrupt work for child care and other tasks, but this freedom and flexibility can create problems for some workers. 427. At a large law firm, Gina works daily as a secretary from 9:00 a.m. until 1:00 p.m., when she is replaced by Cassie who works from 1:00 until 5:00 p.m. The arrangement Gina and Cassie have at the law firm is known as: A. job enlargement. B. job sharing. C. job rotation. D. job allocation. 428. At Friendly Financial Consulting, employees are allowed to choose what time they start each workday, as long as they arrive between the hours of 7:00 a.m. and 10:00 a.m. They must be on the job from 10:00 a.m. until noon and from 1:00 p.m. until 3:00 p.m. They are required to work a total of 8 hours each day, so the earlier they arrive, the earlier they can leave. This is a ___________ system. A. job sharing B. job enlargement C. flextime D. compressed work week 429. Humphrey Communications uses a flextime plan, however, all employees must be on the job from 10:00 a.m. until 2:00 p.m. These hours are referred to as the: A. core time. B. mandatory attendance time. C. shared facilities time. D. compressed time. 430. Wal-Mart stores in northern Illinois have gone to a ___________, where management works four 10-hour days, and has four days off. A. flextime system B. compressed workweek C. job rotation system D. constrained workweek 431. Steely Percussion Inc. briefly tried to implement a flextime system only to abandon it after a few months. Which of the following is the most likely reason Steely would drop its flextime plan? A. It caused an increase in traffic congestion. B. It often made communication among employees more difficult. C. The employees resented being required to come to work early or stay late. D. Workers tend to be less productive when they have to work longer hours in a single day. 432. Tony is an office manager with a financial company. His company recently announced that it will soon implement a flextime plan. Under this new system, Donnie is likely to find that: A. he will have to work longer hours. B. workers tend to forget their work schedules. C. almost all of his workers decide to change to an earlier schedule. D. he will have to work harder to maintain high morale among the employees in his office. 433. Steve works in purchasing for the Department of the Army on the east coast. He arrives at work at 6:00 a.m. and leaves by 3:00 p.m. He enjoys this schedule because he is an early riser. A disadvantage to the government in allowing Steve to use flextime is: A. morning workers are never as productive as afternoon workers. B. there is a 1 hour window of opportunity to talk with defense contractors on the west coast, who work 8:00 a.m. - 5:00 p.m. C. this system will increase absenteeism. D. the government is required to hire twice as many people and spend additional funds training these individuals. 434. Two advantages of using ___________ to fill open positions are: 1)It improves the morale of current employees, and 2) the person filling the position is already familiar with the organization's culture and procedures. A. unskilled workers B. apprenticed workers C. promotions from within D. external sources 435. One implication of today's flatter corporate structures is that: A. employees are more likely to get a lateral transfer, before a promotion. B. firms are becoming less interested in hiring contingent workers. C. a greater number of workers are now classified as middle managers. D. workers are expecting more of their pay in the form of stock options. 436. If a firm wants to know why valuable employees are leaving the company, it will conduct ____________. A. performance appraisals B. job inventories C. job simulations D. exit interviews 437. The _______________ doctrine states that employers have as much right to fire workers as the workers have to leave the company voluntarily. A. first-in, first-out B. employment at will C. reciprocal employment D. mutual consent 438. A(n) __________ is a financial incentive a firm offers to encourage employees to accept an early retirement offer. A. ESOP B. green fair-way C. golden handshake D. silver lining 439. A reason workers tend to receive fewer promotions than in the past is that: A. most firms now believe hiring people outside the organization is a better way to fill management positions because it brings in "new blood." B. the movement toward flatter organizational structures, provide fewer opportunities to move upward. C. firms have found that promoting employees can create jealousy and resentment among the workers who are not promoted. D. very few of today's supervisors and lower-level managers have the qualifications needed to move into higher management positions. 440. Which of the following statements about early retirement is most accurate? A. Traditional early retirement plans are no longer legal because they represent age discrimination. B. An advantage of early retirement as a method of downsizing is that early retirement provides opportunities for younger employees to be promoted. C. Federal law requires firms to offer early retirement benefits to any worker who voluntarily offers to retire before the age of 60. D. Workers who receive an offer for early retirement are likely to gain by refusing the firm's first offer and holding out for a better deal. 441. One of the reasons many firms have chosen to use temporary employees rather than rehire full-time employees is that: A. the government provides strong tax incentives to hire temporary workers. B. such workers usually are more loyal to the firm. C. most labor laws only apply to full-time workers, so there are fewer legal hassles associated with hiring temporary workers. D. it enables them to avoid the prohibitively high costs associated with terminating employees. 442. A firm would implement a policy of holding exit interviews if it wanted to: A. find out why so many of its good employees were quitting. B. implement a golden handshake policy. C. allow immediate supervisors one more chance to convince retiring workers to stay on the job. D. make sure workers who agreed to telecommute understood their new responsibilities. 443. Frank has thirty years of service as a manager for his company. He remembers when managers had almost complete freedom to fire workers. Frank thinks this is only fair. "After all," Frank points out, "workers quit whenever they get a better offer. Shouldn't managers have as much freedom to fire workers as the workers have to quit?" Frank's comments suggest that he believes in the doctrine of: A. bonded employment. B. reciprocated employment. C. employment by mutual consent. D. employment at will. 444. The Krandall Corporation wants to reduce its labor force, but is concerned about the impact downsizing will have on its remaining employees. One policy that might allow Krandall to reduce its labor force without adversely affecting morale is to: A. develop an affirmative action plan. B. offer early retirement benefits. C. implement a job sharing program. D. make more extensive use of job rotation. 445. While talking with a group of family and friends, Jeanne mentions that she was offered an impressive golden handshake by her employer. Which of the following statements is she most likely to make next? A. "That will teach those guys to discriminate against me." B. "It's great to work for a company that encourages employees to further their education." C. "I've already looked into using some of the money to go on a trip to Europe when I retire." D. "Of course, I would have really preferred to receive money, but just knowing that top executives will take the time to recognize my accomplishments, makes me feel better about my work." 446. Janey worked in the student bookstore of a community college. The store was quite large and offered a variety of food items and paraphernalia besides books and school supplies. Although she liked the retail atmosphere, there was little opportunity for advancement because the three persons in management positions were doing well in their jobs and not planning to retire very soon. When the College opened a new branch, Janey seized the opportunity to be reassigned to the new location and manage the smaller operation. Her change was not a promotion, it was considered a(n) __________, however, it served to improve her morale because she was performing more tasks and had greater responsibility than at the previous bookstore. A. advancement B. vertical move C. forward shift D. lateral transfer 447. As a new regional manager, Tim was informed that his first assignment was to travel to Hawaii and dismiss (fire) the sales rep that held that territory. "What luck!" he thought. My first time in Hawaii and I have to make enemies instead of friends." Fortunately, he remembered that his HR management instructor in College offered advice on how to keep from making mistakes when terminating employees. As he went back through his notes, he dialed the number for the company HR manager, to get his advice on how to proceed. Which of the following statements is not good advice? A. Do not provide the employee with the real reason he/she is being dismissed. They can use it against you at a later time. B. If you offer the employee severance pay, make certain that you receive a signed statement releasing your company from any claims. C. Check with HR to determine if the employee signed an agreement at the time of hire that retained management's ability to dismiss at will. D. Make certain that you avoid using any words such as "permanent" employment that would give the employee reason to make a claim against the firm. 448. The Creative Director at Image First Promotion Company got word yesterday that the firm lost the Hottie Potatee account. As its second best customer, the Director must quickly perform damage control and unfortunately dismiss two creative writers and one web development content provider. As he prepares to call each of them to his office and perform the dismissals, he decides to make one final call to the company HR manager to make certain that he is doing and saying the right things. The HR manager will disagree with which of the following statements? A. He will offer each employee a three-month severance package, as long as they agree to sign a non-compete agreement for that time period. B. He will be consistent in his remarks to the three employees. C. He will create a story that their jobs are being eliminated due to new technology since revealing that the firm lost a major account could tarnish the image of the firm. D. Assure each employee that they can count on him for future job references and that he will be honest with anyone inquiring as to why they were dismissed. 449. Dramatic changes in the U.S. labor force will make the work of human resource managers more interesting, and more difficult, in the future. Identify and describe three trends that will challenge future human resource managers. 450. Identify and describe three common methods of training and developing employees. 451. What is the purpose of a performance appraisal? What are the major steps involved in the performance appraisal process? 452. What are the key features of flextime plans, compressed workweeks, and job sharing plans? Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of these approaches to scheduling employees. 453. What are the main provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, and how have these provisions affected human resource management in American companies? Mini-Case Dee Pozitt had been the assistant human resource director at Fleesum Financial Services for a bit more than a year when the company's human resource director was injured in a sky diving accident. Because of his injuries the director would be unable to work for several months. Howie Fleesum, the company's CEO, decided to name Dee the acting director of human resources. Though she had been at the firm for a shorter period of time than most other managers, he felt that her position as the director's assistant had given her insights into the company's human resource issues that the other managers lacked. He also was very impressed by the glowing performance appraisal Dee recently received from the director, her peers, and even subordinates. Before accepting the position as acting director, Dee made sure that Mr. Fleesum recognized her authority to implement some major changes in policies she and the director had been planning before his accident. The changes were intended to make the company more responsive to the needs of employees, thus improving morale and reducing worker turnover. Although Dee was sorry the director was injured, she was pleased that Mr. Fleesum had confidence in her and was willing to give her the authority to implement important new programs. The only aspect of her opportunity that worried her was the resentment and hostility she sensed from a few of the older, more experienced managers. One of the most hostile coworkers was a fellow named Mort Gage. Dee decided she had better talk to Mort and find out why he was so upset. 454. When Dee talked to Mort about his resentment toward her, he said that he should have been promoted to the position instead of her. "The only reason you got the job," Mort told her, "was that Mr. Fleesum wanted to promote a woman. I was more experienced and better qualified, so I should have gotten the job." Mort's statement suggests that he thinks he was a victim of: A. inverse discrimination. B. de facto discrimination. C. reverse discrimination. D. conditional disqualification. 455. Before the director's accident, Dee had worked with him to devise a plan that would allow each employee to select the fringe benefits he or she wants up to a certain dollar amount. The type of plan Dee and the director developed is known as a(n): A. cafeteria-style fringe benefits plan. B. benefits buffet. C. open options plan. D. flexible spending plan. 456. Dee wants to give Fleesum's employees more freedom to schedule when they begin and end their workdays. Her plan still requires employees to work eight hours per day, but allows them to start as early as 7:00 a.m. or as late as 9:00 a.m., and leave as early as 4:00 p.m. or as late as 6:00 p.m. Her plan also requires all workers to be on the job between 9:00 a.m. and noon, and between 2:00 p.m. and 4:00 p.m. The type of plan Dee wants to implement is known as a: A. compressed work day. B. flextime plan. C. personal time frame plan. D. block scheduling plan. 457. Dee's performance appraisal allowed the director to evaluate her performance, but also allowed peers and subordinates to provide feedback as well. This type of appraisal is called a(n): A. vertical appraisal. B. horizontal appraisal. C. global review. D. 360-degree review. 458. Fleesum recently began using cross-functional teams. Dee wants to make sure the teams collaborate effectively, but also wants to avoid stifling individual initiative. One method she could use to achieve this goal would be to: A. use a more autocratic management style. B. use a skill-based pay plan for the teams. C. base the compensation of team members on a commission rather than a salary. D. implement a job sharing plan for team members. [Show More]

Last updated: 1 year ago

Preview 1 out of 179 pages