Bio100modulequestions

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F Has anybody taken the final yet? I did got a 69 my set of questions had a lot on diseases Use pastebin there are some answers that are in this doc! ​Link?? http://pastebin.com/EQNi5gnN​ -> Th... anks (: https://www.coursehero.com/file/14935618/FINAL-ANSWERSpdf/​ USE THIS LINK! The ‘unformatted text preview’ at the bottom has alot of the answers from the final that aren’t in here. most 1. Protein metabolism 2. Is Lipid metabolism 3. Protein, carbohydrate lipid metabolism all produce the same 4. amount. 5. Carbohydrate metabolis 6. Free oxygen radicals When you drink water, what structure first transports it to all cells. = Aquaporinsthre The primary drivers of all life is/are (be complete with your answer) ^Development will cause levels to promote the production of AT Pof DNA or RNA to only control reproduction but not energy production Which of the following is the beginning of metastasis?? ​Help pls its B (thank you!​cancer cells from the primary tumor spread to the lymph only a. N an Cancer cells spread to surrounding tiss ​ Cancer cells produce digestive enzymes b. Break down the healthy tissue around the tumor How do brain stem neurons play a role in respiration? a. Control diaphragm and other muscles of ventilation b. Control the opening and closing of the nosef c. None of these d. Sense toxic gases and will obstruct the airway ANSWER? Q: which parts of the brain contribute to our social behavior? a. Orbitofrontal cortex insulin is b. Mirror neurons c. All of these are correct d. amygdala incQ: which of the following is the process of movement of genes in and out a population? a. Fitness b. Genetic drift c. Heredity d. Gene flow Q: Matt’s blood sugar levels are very low as he is swimming in the waters off of Point Loma. He begins to drown and does not have much oxyn in his blood. Which of the following ? a. Oxidative phosphorylationInsulin b. Glycolysis c. Krebs cycle d. Glucagon SO WHATS THE ANSWER? Q: The process of cell death is called? A: Apoptosis I HAD QUESTIONS THAT HAD REPEATED ANSWERS WHAT THE HECK Which of the following describes convergent evolution? A: seperate evolutionary lineages evolved similar features tht are the result of common environments Q: The validity of scientific data is supported by control experiments and repetition of experiments. Concerning the case being made for global warming from a scientific point of view, which of the following is correct? A: (A) Although there are no control experiment, data from the environment suggest that the earth is warming very quickly. Q: After NADH Loses it’s hydrogen ion at the electron transport syatem, the hydrogen ion subsequently does which of the following? A: Q: Within James’ body ther​e are different chemical reactions taking place. As he eats his rack of lamb the food is metabolized to maintain his energy. This ongoing process causes an addition of hydrogen ions as well as electrons to make ATP. What is the name of this process? A. Reproduction B. Ventilation C. Oxidation incD. Homeostasis E. reductions Q: which of the following is not a teratogen? 1. Pesticides 2. Radiation 3. Syphilis 4. Vitamin A 5. Gatorade Q:​which of the following organelles has its own DNA but not the form of Double helix and makes ATP? A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) None of these answers C) Golgi complex D) Mitochondria Q which of the following organelles is not directly involved in the production of proteins? A: nucleus B: Rough endoplasmic reticulum C: ​Plasma membrane D: Golgi complex A contagious agent is described as… a. An infectious pathogen that is hereditary b. An infectious pathogen that can kill a host without the pathogen dying as well c. An infectious pathogen that can be used as a vaccine d. An infectious pathogen that can be transmitted from one person or species to another Which of the following comprises pus? a. Dying epithelial cells b. Dying hepatocytes c. Dying phagocytes a. have inherent systems to counteract these changes b. The ph of the ocean can become more acidic or basic but ut will not harm oceanic plants and animals since they have inherent systems to counteract these changes c. Depending on how much it becomes more acidic or alkaline it can influence the chemical structures and chemical reactions of both oceanic plants and animals Where are MHC class II cells found? a. Antigen cells b. T cells incc. B cells d. All cells Edema in the pulmonary circulation refers to which of the following? a. Additional fluid in the trachea b. Additional intracellular fluid c. Additional capillary fluid d. Additional interstitial fluid e. Additional surfactant What does a phagocyte use to destroy a microbe? a. B cells b. Dopamine c. Lysosomes d. ribosomes Which of the following is the property that limits the ability of land to store heat? a. High specific heat b. Land covers the earth more than water c. High fluidity d. Low specific heatthree elements Q: Which of the following ins not a major component of the climate system? 1. Atmosphere 2. Biosphere 3. Mantle of the earth ​ -probably this one but idk 4. ocean Q: when a person faints, which system more t likely failed. 1. heart stopped beating for 15 seconds 2. veins didn’t send enough back to the right side of the heart 3. barorceptor reflex did not work 4. sympathetic nervous system caused a vasodilation Q: what is an av shunt? 1. an av shunt is a short vessel that allows blood to flow directly from the vein to the artery, bypassing the capillaries 2. an av shunt is made of small bands of smooth muscle that can be regulated by the autonomic nervous system 3. coronary arteries 4. an av shunt is a short vessel that shows blood to flow directly from artery to the vein, bypassing the capillaries inc5. an av shunt is when vessels constrict and therefore restricts blood flow into the capillary bed Q: A new coach tells his team that the reason they get fatigued after three exercise is because they do not have enough oxygen in their red blood cells. He has no data to support his position t. Therefore his advice is? 1. Valid since he knows how fatigued people act 2. Not valid since has has not collected any data to support his claim 3. Not valid since he has not reproduced the findings 4. Valid since he is an expert working with people The cocaine in plants activates many different cells and organs in insects. Specifically, in terms of its activation of insect neurons, which of the following is correct? Cocaine directly affects which of the following? 1. Nicotine receptors on the plasma membrans of all cells 2. Nicotine receptors on the mitochondra of brain cells 3. Nucleus of cell 4. Nicotine recpetors on the plasma membrane of brain cells 5. Nicotine receptors on the golgi bodies of nerons ^ HELP This is my last question pls help HELP on this one plssss^^ What is this?!?!?!?!?!?!?!?!?!? Q:Generally speaking,which of the following molecules has the least amount of energy that you can use for intense physical exercise? 1. -carbohydrates 2. -lipids 3. -a chemically specifically designed to signal uncontrolled cell growth 4. -water since it promotes all chemical reactions 5. -protein Q: stroke volume is determined by three major factors. which one is altered by the strength of muscle contraction? 1. strength of contraction of the left ventricle Q: Mutations are the result of which of the following? 1. change in the normal nucleotide sequence in the DNA directly resolution in different inccarbohydrates​ <<< that is wrong (what’s the answer then?) ​directly resulting in different proteins The greenhouse gas effect is… 1. the cooling of the atmosphere by oxygen which effectively releases cool air into the lower atmosphere 2. the heat absorption by certain gases in the atmosphere which effective “trap” heat in the lower atmosphere and re-radiation downward of some of that heat 3. The heat absorption by water only in the atmosphere which effectively “traps” heat in the upper atmosphere and expels the heat through ozone holes in the atmosphere 4. The trapping of heat…. Q: which of the following has the fastest transient time of the bolus of the food as it moves through the gastrointestinal -​gastroesophageal sphin Q:which of the following is in the correct order in regards to complexity? (least to greatest) 1. -cells< tissue < organ<organisms Q: you are a nurse and your diabetic mother tells you that the doctor says that she has too much glucose in her blood making her blood hypertonic. what are the consequences of this condition in your mother? 1. the cells in your mother’s body will remain isotonic since water can’t leave the cells. it is an important protective mechanism of the body 2. the cells in your mother’s body will absorb the glucose making the cells hypertonic 3. 4. the cells in your mother’s body will become hypotonic since the blood is hypertonic 5. the cells in your mother’s body will become hypotonic 7. ^^^^^ Q: mutations are the result of which of the following? 1. change in the normal nucleotide sequence in the DNA directly resolution in different carbohydrates Q: which of the following enzymes break up metabolize carbohydrates? 1. All of these Q:Which of the following represents the proper sequence for the “central dogma” ? inc-​Dna to rna to protein Q: A pregnant mother ingests a chemical which her mother said would be great for the baby. when the baby was born, it had a large head and flippers for arms. what caused this phenotype? 1. The chemicals were teratogens which influenced oxidative phosphorylation causing the changes in the phenotype Q: in the chemical process of oxodative phosphorylation, which of the following is phosphorylated with the assistance of ATP synthase? 1. Adp Q:​ you are sunburned after a long day at the beach. Which one is not an example of UV damage to your skin cells? 1. A mutation can occur in skin cell DNA that can lead to errors in transcription 2. Errors can occur during DNA replication 3. Thymine bases in your skin dna bond with each other instead of across the double helix 4. A mutation can occur in your ovaries 5. UV light can cause mutations in DNA of skin cells Q: When venous pressure increases, what effect does it have capillary hydrostatic pressure? 1. Decreases it and may cause edema 2. Nothing but it does increases capillary oncotic pressure 3. Nothing but it decreases capillary oncotic pressure 4. Increases it and may cause edema A hyper-osmotic soulution is: ^ a solution separated from another by way of semipermeable membrane in which the hyperosmotic solution has ​more electrolytes and less wate​r than the other solution <3 Certain plants survive in very salty water. You would think that the salty water would dehydrate the cells in the roots of these trees. That does not happen. Why? A: The cells of the roots produce a hypertonic solution so water enters the cells.​eas) it is the large intestine module 12: as amino acids are being converted into different structures, which comes first? -Peptides incas you chemically digest your proteins, carbohydrates and lipids in the small intestine, the products will then go to which site next? -liver ← that’s not correct (I think it is the large intestine or pancr which of the following occurs when oxyhemoglobin reaches the capillaries of the heart muscle -releases its oxygen which diffuses from the mitochondria to the capillary -releases its oxygen which diffuses from the capillary to the nucleus -​releases oxygen which leaves the capillary and diffuses into cell activation of the autonomic nervous system results in which of the following -activation or inactivation of all systems that have smooth muscle such as your biceps -activation of cardiac muscle after skeletal muscle activation -activation or inactivation of all systems that have smooth muscle such as your intestinal tract voluntary responses such as running away from an attacker and also causing vasoconstriction of the capillaries (not this one) In the lock and key example of signal (hormona) molecules, which is the lock and which is the key - the signal is the lock and receptor is key - the protein is the lock and signal is key - the receptor is lock and ligand is key - propogation is lock and ligand is keywhich of the follow There are a number of hormones that are produced to control appetite. These hormones have their effect on which group of cells? brain cells large intestinal cells neurons in the intestinal tract Neurons Where do electrical signals originate in the heart? a. Internodal tr b. Sa node c. His-purkinje system d. Av node In following are features of the testing portion of the scientific method? incA: All of these. Most textbooks emphasize the ____ phase of muscle contraction, but the controlled____ phase is the hallmark of superbly trained athlete giving smoothness to the motion Contraction; relaxation Experiments conducted on humans today require that A: the subjects be informed of their rights and the implications of the ​experiments (incorrect) ???​wrong answer Anaerobic respiration- wrong answer Lactate You are running to catch a football in a SDSU vs UW-Madison game. If you catch the ball, you will win the game. Your eyes are following the ball so you can catch it. What directly fuels muscles of the eyeball to follow the football? A: ATP in your eye muscle cells ATP’s failure to replenish the cardiac muscle is due to: A lack of blood carrying oxygen reaching the heart Which of the following determines the amount of energy one gets from proteins, carbohydrates and lipids? A: The number of hydrogen bonds that are used You have been eating nothing but beans as you transition over towards being a vegetarian. Your friends say that the proteins in beans cannot be beneficial as glucose since beans do not give you much energy. This is incorrect, since A: Protein is metabolized into both pyruvate and Acetyl CoA which will eventually produce ATP Which of the following organelles is not directly ivolved in the production of proteins? 1. Rough ER 2. Nucleus 3. Golgi Complex 4. Plasma membrane (I think) incModule 2 How We Study Biology All scientific studies vary in their sophistication. Which of the following will most directly affect their outcome? A: Who analyses the data Which of the following are features of the testing portion of the scientific method? A: perform a reproducible set of experiments that has controls. (Reference feedback loop) what event continues the submission process? A: ? (not “Acceptance of the proposal”) (Reference feedback loop) Why does the rejection of the proposal initiate the negative feedback loop? A: In the module, Dr. Smith’s study on alcoholism had him giving a group of students a liquid that did not contain ethanol but did smell like ethanol. The use of this liquid in this group of students is considered to be a? (answer the most correct option) A;? (not “a placebo. Meaning that this agent has no effect on the students but the students think it does) It is your responsibility to.. A: Learn what you consider important relative to your self-education How does inductive reasoning start? A; Inductive reasoning starts with an observation which you are attempting to explain or understand. The function of a science teacher is? A: Bridge the world between research and the real world A scientist receives a $350k/yr grant. Relative to this diagram, this award symbolizes.. A: Negative feedback Using logic to arrive at specific conclusions based on a premise which is considered to be a general observation is? A: deductive reasoning. Inductive Reasoning? A: Using specific observations and measurements to arrive at a conclusion. Progressing from particular observations to arrive at a general principle. Alternative medicine is an example of this kind of reasoning. A certain disease is cured by acupuncture. Therefore, acupuncture always cures the disease. incThe use of the scientific method has resulted in which of the following? A: All of the following Which of the following helps to increase the validity of scientific data? A: A variable environment that takes into account more than one conditions. Experiments conducted on humans today require that… A: The subjects be informed of their rights and understand implications and side effects of the experimental agent Research conducted by the scientific method and the non-scientific method is similar in which way? A: Both methods are used by persons who are curious about a phenomenon Which of the How does inductive reasoning start? inductive reasoning starts with an observation which you are attempting to explain or understand if one solution is hyperosmotic relative to another, water will always flow from the hypoosmotic to the hyperosmotic. why/ A. water will from the compartment in which it is in higher concentration to one which is lower Which of the following is an example of deductive reasoning? A: 1) all triangles have 180 degrees(premise) 2) a right triangle is a form of a triangle 3) therefore, a right triangle has 180 degrees The explanation for mood is which of the following? A: Partially determined by neurochemical imbalances in the brain but also have a behavioral aspect. A physician notices that a certain drug that is used to control manic depression, causes her patients to gain 40 lbs in 4 months. She gave a placebo to another group of patients and they did not gain weight and their manic depression episodes were not controlled. She presents the data on her subjects at a scientific meeting. This data is which kind? A: Answers 2 and 3 certain cells are producing chemical signals that have no receptor to detect them. it is a genetic flaw. this kind of feedback could be called? incA: ballistic One of the wonders in science is the fact that identical twins, although distinct in many ways, share identical biochemical makeup A: False Peer review of data refers to which of the following? ● A: Persons who have expertise in a specific area will review the material `Using logic to arrive at a specific conclusion based on a premise is called: A: Deductive reasoning When did traditional medicine begin? A: When Homo sapiens began using plants to cure various illness Which of the following should be considered for all phases of a research project? A: Application of ethics as you plan the research a hypoosmotic solution is: A: a solution that has less electrolytes and more water than the other solution Antonio is crossing the desert and runs out of water. he has to go 10 miles before he gets some more water. he has a 4 year old son, pedro, with him. the father is worried that they will not find water. what hormone is immediately released in the father as he tries to find water? A: Adrenalin Although the scientific method is based on the premise that every experiment can be repeated, very few experiments are actually repeated after their initial publication. Why? A: Many studies require financial support. Hence to repeat a study, financial support must be available Which of the following is an example of inductive reasoning? A: 1) Priscilla likes men (premise) 2) Julius Caesar is a man 3) Therefore, Priscilla likes Julius Caesar No two humans are identical ​from a genetic point of view. A: This statement is true Using logic to arrive at a specific conclusion based on a premise is called: incA: Deductive reasoning A researcher thinks that she has the cure for ebola. She is working with infected persons in small towns in Africa. She has no approval from the Universities in Africa nor approval from the patients. Her data suggests that her drug is able to stop Ebola progression in 25% of the infected patients. Which of the following is true. - Choices A and B are correct. Module 3: Properties of Life He runs to catch the pass. Which of the following systems determines his running? A: Set point or points located in the brain that coordinate the contraction and relaxation of select muscle groups you A SDSU tennis player is drinking Gatorade and her opponent is drinking oxygenated water in Borrego Springs where the tefmperature is 120F. The SDSU student wins the match. This proves which of the following? A: The data is not sufficient to draw any conclusions Evolution is defined in its more general way as ? - Development of new species from older ones determined…. ​jhall! For ATP to be generated, the cell needs A: Both oxygen and food A redwood tree lives for a thousand yea a cactus may live to be 500 years old and humans live to be 188. what factors determine the longevity of these structures? A: chromosomal inheritance + environmental In a negative feedback loop, when glucose levels are too high in blood, the pancreas will secrete insulin and this will stimulate the absorption of glucose and the process of glycogenesis. The body trying to restore back to its constant internal environment in a process is called: A: Homeostasis inccellular communication occurs how? A: physical and chemical signals Without ATP in a critical mass of cells, which of the following would occur? A; cessation of cellular, tissue, organ function oxidizing and reducing agents are vital in biological processes including metabolism. a(n)_____ agent gains electrons and is reduced. A; oxidizing In the case with the cell producing ATP; the more ATP that is generated the more the ATP generating machinery will shut down. This is an example of which of the following? A: negative feedback which of the following would be the most lethal poison? An agent that causes… A: a decrease in oxygen at the electron transport level drin Her brain cells are slowly dying. this is an example of which of the following? A: all of the above. Tumor su Death is a process characterized by which of the following? A: loss of the ability to make and utilize energy the processes of proteins turning into amino acids and amino acids becoming polypeptides are examples of catabolic and anabolic reactions. although one reaction involves breaking down and the other building up, both of these processes need to be powered by: A: ATP ATP is: A: the energy currency of the cell The chemical and physical changes that occur within us are… A: Expressions of the chromosomal information coming from past genetic information (and the effects of the environment on the chromosomal expression) ​This ​is wrong. The answer is both Within Sally’s body are different chemical reactions taking place. As she eats her cheeseburger and her food is metabolized to maintain her energy, this on-going process will cause a loss of hydrogen ions as well as a loss of electrons incA: Oxidation In metabolism, if oxygen accepts an electron, it is considered to be? A: reduced ____________ increase the absorptive area and the surface area of the intestinal wall and also secrete ___________ and ____________ A.​villi in the intestinal tract, enzymes and water Over a very long period of time, humans have evolved to stand upright and have genes that control brain development, which evolves more rapid than any other mammal on earth. Which biological if molecule needs to be produced in order for this evolutionary change to happen? A: Proteins in the form of enzymes Reproduction is a process that is found in which group? A: All living beings-whether they are plants or animals - ultimately exchange chromosomes The function of reproduction is to: A: Protect the species from extinction Extinction is an example of what type of evolution? A: macroevolution We eat food to give us energy. Which process is fundamental towards the conversion of food into biological energy? A: Oxidation of proteins, carbohydrates and lipids The stripping or loss of electrons or hydrogen ions is called ___ and the addition of electrons or hydrogen ions is called ___ A: Oxidation; reduction ATP is A: the energy currency of the cell Oxidizing and reducing agents are vital in biological processes including metabolism. A(n) ____ agent loses​ electrons and is oxidized A: Reducing In metabolism, if oxygen accepts an electron, it is considered to be A: reduced incIn the case of someone who wants to lose weight, they will be using the process of oxidation – losing electrons. They will want to oxidize their stored food in their fat cells. This is called ___ A: Catabolism A group of interconnected proteins called ___ strips hydrogen ions and electrons from the chemicals that make up our food A: Enzymes sapiens Our species, Homo sapiens, may be considered unique in that it… A: Overrides feedback lo A: All living beings – whether they are plants or animals – ultimately exchange chromosomes Overpopulation is a crisis facing the world. In terms of species survival, which system plays a major role in the biological drive for reproduction? Which is the most correct? A: Genetic clocks that produce hormones that promote reproduction The processes of proteins turning into amino acids and amino acids becoming polypetides are examples of catabolic and anabolic reactions. Although one reaction involves breaking down and other building up, both of these processes need to be powdered by A: ATP The stripping or loss of electrons or hydrogen ions is called __ and the addition of electrons or hydrogen ions is called ___ Aall: Oxidation; reduction A marine rushes into a burning building to save the occupants in war torn Syria. Based on the diagram, in which he saved 20 people, the feedback to him would be A: negative Which of the following describes a chromosome? A: strands of chemical called nucleotides Your hormone levels are preset to have certain fluctuation. These fluctuations are based on… A: various feedback systems that sense the concentration of the hormones and act to control the level. THis molecule controls the production of enzymes. It is A: it is DNA which is a nucleotide that resides in the nucleus of cells incTHese____ions and____power your body by producing ATP. A: Hydrogen; electrons THe mechanism that cells utilize to maintain homeostasis is called_____ A: Feedback All organisms live for certain fixed periods of time. THis time is determined by A: chromosomes PICTURE PICTURE are the concomplex repr Module 4: Cells Exocytosis is A:The process of sending the vesicles generated outside the cell into the blood or elsewhere. Cardiac cell is an the heart need a large supply of which of the follow? A: Blood Energy Capture results in the production of what major molecule? A: ATP Which of the following is a description of lysosome? A: It contains powerful ​digestive​ enzymes and are responsible for the breakdown and absorption of materials taken in by the cells. incWhat is the difference between skin cells and bone cells? A: traits expressed The nicotine in a cigarette activates which structure? A: Nicotine receptors on the plasma membrane Cells in the prostate continue to grow in a 22 year old male. They break through the prostate lining and travel throughout the body. For the cells to develop and reproduce, which cell organelle directs this activity? A: Nucleus If this organelle does not receive oxygen, what happens to the cell? A: The Cell dies If a group of cells does not have enough ATP, what happens to the organ? A: It decreases its activity Heart cells contain nicotine receptors. A: True; nicotine attaches to the receptors. Cells that transport oxygen and carbon dioxide between lungs and tissues are: A: Red blood cells Membrane-spanning proteins that link cells together are called: A: E-cadherin The fundamental unit of life is: A: Cell Which organelle is responsible for ATP production in the cell? A: Mitochondria The moat represents what in an idealized biological world? A: Capillary In order to build a computer, a crew of geniuses must come together and create some sort of complex directions for how the computer must be built. They send these to a factory where more geniuses carefully put them together and send them off to the warehouses where they will be shipped. In a cell, what factory inclike organelle is responsible for putting the directions from the nucleus together to make proteins? A: Endoplasmic reticulum When you feel happy, a chemical is released in the brain that goes to your pleasure center. For this chemical to have its effect, it must interact originally with which of the following? A: Plasma membrane receptor The Cell Membrane regulates the internal environment of the cell by which method A: 1, 2 and 3 are correct. What type of products are contained with in the vesicles produced by the golgi complex? - All of the above jhall! The fluid inside the cell is called: A: Intracellular fluid The rough ER functions in synthesis of A: Proteins A set of flattened sacs that function in the packaging and ​s​ of newly synthesized proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum is A: Golgi complex Concerning the feedback presentation. if the amount of testosterone made by the cell was 10 mg rather than 300 PICTURE incmg, what kind of feedback signal would go to comparator? (Low levels of testosterone are found in men suffering from prostate cancer). A: Positive Some chemicals are produced by the Golgi complexes in the neurons in your brain and then are sent into your blood. A: True What codes the nucleus contain?tr A: Chromosomes White blood cells… A: defend the body against foreign invaders Which of the following is the term that describes cell death? A: Apoptosis From the “castle” example in the reading, the throne room represents what structure? A: Nucleus Certain cells are producing chemical signals that have receptors to detect them genetic flaw. This king of feedback could be called? A: ballistic If a cell cannot maintain its shape and collapses the plasma membrane may be lacking in which of the following? A: Microtubules A startup company is designing insulin to be inhaled. Based on the goal listed on the diagram, if the drug is producing more than the desired output, the feedback would be… A: negative Against your better judgment you are taking steroids to increase the growth of muscles. which cell system normally produces the steroids? A: smooth endoplasmic reticulum What does the nucleus contain? A: Chromosomes incWhich of the following organelles requires oxygen? A: Mitochondria Nicotine, which is present in cigarette smoke, activates neurons. Which anatomical cell structure is the first site for this activation? A: Plasma membrane The support beams for the cell are microfibers. Which of the following molecules make up a microfiber? A: Actin (which is a chemical structure found in many cells besides muscles) The nicotine in a cigarette activates which structure? A: Nicotine receptors on the plasma membrane Cells in the prostate continue to grow in a 22 year old male. They break through the prostate lining and travel throughout the body. For the cells to develop and reproduce, which cell organelle directs this activity? A: Nucleus If this organelle does not receive oxygen, what happens to the cell? A: The Cell dies If a group of cells does not have enough ATP, what happens to the organ? A: It decreases its activity Heart cells contain nicotine receptors. A: True; nicotine attaches to the receptors. Cells that transport oxygen and carbon dioxide between lungs and tissues are: A: Red blood cells Membrane-spanning proteins that link cells together are called: A: E-cadherin What does the mitochondria require to make ATP? A: Both of these The fundamental unit of life is: A: cell incThe term "concentration gradient" is defined as: A:The ​gradual​ difference in concentration of a solution between areas of high concentration and low concentration If a patient was having problems staying hydrated what systems might be overactive A: Kidneys Blood is normally what to cells? A: Isotonic <The movement of solute molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration that does not require energy is A: diffusion The movement of water molecules across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high concentrion to an area of low concentration is A: Osmosis ​T​he principle means of passive ​transport​ is A: diffusion A hypo-osmotic solution is: A: A solution that has less electrolytes and more water than the other solution. Water may pass in or out of a cell via its concentration gradient without any ATP requirement. A: passive transport Channels in the plasma membrane of cells that only allow water to pass are A: aquaporins Q: In all animals who use the electron system to generate ATP, the electron acceptor is directly transported to all the cells by the way ? A: Water Plant cells exposed to a hypertonic salt solution will do which of the following? A: Crenate the scenario presented in the modules about the overheated US calvary and the football player dying from lack of water. What caused their death. (Assume for this question, that the American Indians did not incdirectly kill the soldiers?) A: Dehydration led to an increase in body temperature that led to heart failure In all biological systems, which feedback loops are working on maintaining the output? A: Both at the same time If a cell was hypertonic to the solution it was in, what would happen to it? A: Burst If a patient was having problems staying hydrated what part of their cell membrane could have a problem? A: kidneys which of the following would be cells shrink if placed in A: hypertonic You are crossing the desert, temp 120 F and you are sweating. which of the following will determine how much water you will lose? A: both osmosis and hormones You are crossing a hot desert and have no food. You are 5ft 6 inches and weigh 180 lbs. The temp is 120 F. Will you be able to survive for 20 days without food? You have plenty of water. A: You will be able to survive since your additional fat will be used by your body to produce ATP. When a person is bleeding the blood comes from which compartment initially? A: extracellular The comparator would be found in which of the following? A: Hypothalamus the cell membrane regulates internal of the cell by which method? A. 1,2,3 incPICTURE I think it was F (this was a tricky questions) Not F…. Just got it incorrect also THE correct answer is E ​No it is not Decrease blood in osmolarity: B incWhy was gatorade a better drink for players than water? It replenishes both water and electrolytes Module 5: Water https://quizlet.com/36436210/bio-100-water-flash-cards/ Three mexican fisherman were reported…. incA: salt water is hypertonic and it would draw water from the cells which of the following is intracellular fluid? A: B Your coach want you to not stop for water…. A: ADH If two solutions have the same number of electrolytes and are separated by a membrane that only allows water to flow, will there be movement of water a: no, the water will not move Animal cells exposed to a hypertonic salt solution… A: crenate After a night of drinking you feel a hangover… What caused this hangover? A: Ethanol inhibited the release of ADH, promoting an increase in urine production Water is considered to be important since A; It is the chemical solvent needed for all chemical reactions in the cell Why was gatorade a better drink for player? A; it replenishes water and electrolytes Active transport is needed to A: Maintain proper concentrations of ions in and out of the cell A hypoosmotic solution is A; a solution that has less electrolytes and more water than the other solution Module 6: Glycolysis The adjective,glycolytic,refers to which condition? A: Chemical reactions that do not require oxygen- called anaerobic All enzymes for anaerobic respiration _______ chemical reaction are found only in the _____ of the cells. incA; 9, Cytoplasm Glycolysis occurs in which of the following? A: B A person has been shot and is losing blood. A medic puts a mask over his nose so he can get oxygen. He tells his staff that oxygen will help glycolytic pathways make atp directly . A: oxygen will play no direct role in producing ATP in the glycolytic pathways After aerobic respiration the ph of the blood is decreased, why does this happen? A; Co2 is a byproduct of aerobic and carries it to the lungs for release into the air. the co2 dissolved in the blood decreases the blood ph If atp is not needed, it will attach to the enzymes in the glycolytic pathway and ______ them, resulting in a decrease in _____ and atp A: inhibit; cellular respiration If atp is needed, it will unbind from the enzymes in the glycolytic pathwayand___ them, resulting in a____ in cellular respiration and ATP A: activate ; increase you are a sprint runner, you have large thigh and buttlock. in which box would you place the desire to run as fast as you can. A: A fermentation requires glucose to function. winemakers put yeast and grape juice in a sealed wine vat therefore, is glycolysis the sole means of producing energy in making alcohol? A: yes, since glycolysis breaks down sugar The brain requires glucose to function. It is known since antiquity that cutting off air supply to the brain results in death. Therefore, is glycolysis the sole means of producing energy in the eurons?(Think question... not in the module) A: --Since oxygen is required for normal function of the brain, Glycolysis cannot be the sole means of metabolic energy to the brain. Where in the cell does substrate phosphorylation occur? A: cytoplasm incWhy does gatorade contain sugar? A: it promotes the uptake of water and electrolytes in the intestinal tract A 35 year old African American male is swimming in 8 feet of water and gets a cramp in his leg. He can not swim anymore and drowns. What caused the cramps? A: --Glycolysis in his leg muscle producing lactic acid It is a hot day and you are on the soccer team. You are running down field and you get cramps in both of the muscles in the back of your legs. You stumble. The coach comes to help you and rubs your legs. You are able to hobble off the field. Rubbing your legs does what? A: Increases blood flow that assists in the removal of lactic acid The greatest amount of ATP is produced as a result of which chemical reaction? A: OXIDATIVE PHOSPHORYLATION. Methanogens are.... A: Primitive archaebacteria that use carbon dioxide instead of oxygen to produce ATP. The first method for making ATP is.... A: substrate phosphorylation Or Subtrate phosphorylation In the event that ATP is not needed, (in other words, you have enough energy), what happens? A: ATP will inhibit enzymes in the glycolytic pathway. Lactic acid which may be the explanation for skeletal muscle fatigue is produced directly from which molecule? A: ​pyruvate Glycolysis as a chemical reaction is coupled with which other chemical reaction which requires oxygen? A: ​aerobic respiration which is oxidative phosphorylation if a cholesterol molecule needs to be transported to another part of the body. how does it travel? A: it is hydrophobic and needs the assistance of a lipoprotein to traverse the body in the blood stream Which of the following produces ATP by substrate phoshorylation A: B&C – step one middle green, step two middle g incLactic acid in your muscles is the byproduct of which metabolic system? A: glycolysis Substrate phosphorylation refers to which condition? A: Production of ATP by converting ADP directly to ATP in the cytoplasm Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in which organelle? A: --Mitochondria In glycolysis, sugar is broken down into which molecule that is the gateway to the krebs cycle? A: --Pyruvate or pyruvic acid What are the key products of the Krebs cycle? A: FADH and NADH Which of the following chemical compounds prevents the Kreb (citric acid) cycle from using the citric acid? A: Fluorocitrate Pyruvate (Pyruvic Acid) is A: A water-soluble liquid that is important in many metabolic and fermentation processes The metabolic pathway that occurs in the absence of oxygen to produce ATP is Was The ATP b direct phosphorylation of ADP A: Substrate level production of l phosphorylation The process in which oxygen is used to generate energy from food molecules is A: aerobic respiration The synthesis of ATP coupled with electron transport is A:-Oxidative phosphorylation All cells do not have the same sensitivity to lack of oxygen. Brain, heart, intestinal and kidney cells have a great need of oxygen muscle cells. Muscle cells can go 20 minutes without oxygen, but brain and heart cells can go no more than 3 minutes. Brain and heart cells need a high level of oxygen since?(Another thought question) inc: --They require more energy (ATP) than muscle cells The endoplasmic reticulum is… A: a network of internal membranes that fold over to each other to form compartments You are running away from some drug dealers. All of a sudden you have a muscle cramp in your leg muscles and you cannot run anymore. The story gets messy after this point but what caused the muscle cramp? A: Lactic acid build up in the muscle The adjective,glycolytic,refers to which condition? A: Chemical reactions that do not require oxygen- called anaerobic Brain requires glucose to function. It is known since antiquity that cutting off air supply to the brain results in death. Therefore, is glycolysis the sole means of producing energy in the neurons?(Think question... not in the module) A: Since oxygen is required for normal function of the brain, glycolysis cannot be the sole means of metabolic energy to the brain. A 35 year old African American male is swimming in 8 feet of water and gets a cramp in his leg. He can not swim anymore and drowns. What caused the cramps? A: Glycolysis in his leg muscle producing lactic acid It is a hot day and you are on the soccer team. You are running down field and you get cramps in both of the muscles in the back of your legs. You stumble. The coach comes to help you and rubs your legs. You are able to hobble off the field. Rubbing your legs does what? A: --Increases blood flow that assists in the removal of lactic acid The greatest amount of ATP is produced as a result of which chemical reaction? A: OXIDATIVE PHOSPHORYLATION. Methanogens are.... A:--primitive archaebacteria that use carbon dioxide instead of oxygen to produce ATP. If there is no need for additional ATP from glycolysis, the ATP that is produced will stop glycolysis. This process is called? A: --negative feedback incThe first method for making ATP is.... A: converting ADP to ATP In the event that ATP is not needed, (in other words, you have enough energy), what happens? A: --ATP will inhibit enzymes in the glycolytic pathway. Lactic acid which may be the explanation for skeletal muscle fatigue is produced directly from which molecule? A: --pyruvate Substrate phosphorylation refers to which condition? A: Production of ATP by converting ADP directly to ATP in the cytoplasm Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in which organelle? A: --Mitochondria Glycolysis as a chemical reaction is coupled with which other chemical reaction which requires oxygen? A: Aerobic respiration which is oxidative respiration In glycolysis, sugar is broken down into which molecule that is the gateway to the krebs cycle? A: Pyruvate or pyruvic acid The metabolic pathway that occurs in the absence of oxygen to produce ATP is A: The metabolic pathway that requires oxygen to produce large amounts of ATP is C: Oxidative phosporylation production of ATP by direct phosphorylation of ADP A: Substrate level phosphorylation The process in which oxygen is used to generate energy from food molecules is A: Aerobic respiration -r The synthesis of ATP coupled with electron transport is A: Oxidative phosphorylation All cells do not have the same sensitivity to lack of oxygen. Brain, heart,intestinal and kidney cells have a great need of oxygen than muscle cells.Muscle cells can go 20 minutes without oxygen, but brain and incheart cells can go no more than 3 minutes. Brain and heart cells need a high level of oxygen since?(Another thought question) A: --They require more energy(ATP) than muscle cells Pyruvate (pyruvic Acid) is… A: A water soluble liquid that is important in many metabolic and fermentation THe production of ATP by direct phosphorylation of ADP A: substrate level phosphorylation Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) A:is a nucleotide that is converted to ATP by the addition of a phosphate group. What organ requires aerobic respiration to survive? A: All of the above PICTURE Module 7 : Oxidative Phosphorylation incWhere in the mitochondria are the cytochromes located? A: ​Cristae NAD is _____ when it picks up _____ directly from the_______….. A: Reduced, Hydrogen, Citric Acid Cycle What are the key products of the Krebs cycle? A: FADH and NADH During oxidative phosphorylation, what is oxidized? A: ( proteins carbs lipids) Jonathan was lost out in the woods. He was able to find fresh water but there was nothing he could eat that would not make him sick. Will Jonathan be able to survive 30 days without eating? B: No, surviving just on water for 30 days while trying to keep warm will use many calories, his skinny build will not help him… In the treatment of patients, Oxygen masks give oxygen to the patient. This oxygen does what? A: Produces ATP indirectly by way of oxidative phosphorylation Is it true that if you only eat protein and do not exercise that you will not become overweight A; No, proteins are converted into Acetyl-CoA which is involved in making ATP. If you do not exercise to use up this ATP, you will become overweight Which of the following is released into the blood and then into the air? A: CO2 (carbon dioxide) Which of the following determines the amount of energy one gets from proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids A; the number of hydrogen bonds that are used A person is very fatigued. You give ​him​ oxygen and state that will give him energy by way of glycolysis. That is incorrect since A: By definition, glycolysis is an anaerobic set of chemical reactions. A person is very fatigued. You give him oxygen and state that will give him energy by way of oxidative phosphorylation. That is correct since A: Oxidative phosphorylation requires oxygen to be an electro​n acceptor incIf cells are not able to produce ATP what process could be interrupted? A: All of the above – aerobic respiration, krebs cycle, glycolysis The space between the outer and inner membrane of the mitochondria is called? A: intermembrane space Cells that need more ATP for their specific function will have which of the following? A: Large number of mitochondria Bile is used in the digestion of lipids. Where is it produced. A: it is a mixture of special bile salts, water, and cholesterol secreted by liver cells. Matt one of Dr. Pozos' assistants had gastric bypass surgery a few years ago and lost a lot of weight. Based on this illustration which part of his digestive tract was completely bypassed? (Hint: Use WebMD) A: duodenum Jonathan was lost out in the woods. He was able to find fresh water but there was nothing he could eat that would not make him sick. Will Jonathan be able to survive a 30 days without eating? A: Yes, you can survive for 30 days without eating any food since the fat and protein in your body can be metabolized to give you the ATP you need. {[Got this wrong; I think it’s the no, because he’s too skinny and he needs to keep warm answer]} ___________ is the diffusion of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase which subsequently causes ATP synthase to combine a phosphate ion with ADP. A: Chemiosmosis Within the digestive system which of the following layers of an organ generates peristalsis? A: muscularis mucosae which has smooth muscle In the condition of oxidative phosphorylation, what is phosphorylated? A: ADP There are diseases in which the mitochondria is deficient, meaning that it does not function properly. If the mitochondria is deficient, what happens to the cells in which it is located? A: Cells function abnormally since they require ATP to power the cell’s functions What protein structure inside the mitochondria is responsible for directly producing ATP? incA: ATP synthase Isotonic refers to: A; An isotonic cell is in a state of equilibrium with its surroundings in terms of water ​and​ solute concentration Which chemical structure is responsible for production of ATP from your food? A: Hydrogen ions The energy in the food you eat, is transferred to the cytochrome system in the mitochondria by a process of ? A: Oxidation of both NADH and FADH. What protein structure inside the mitochondria is responsible for directly producing ATP? A: ATP synthase at h​Carbohydrates, proteins, and fat are all metabolized to what molecule? A: Acetyl-CoA The classic definition of fatigue is the production of which product? A: ​Lactate The enzyme that couples proton movement across the inner mitochondrial membrane with ATP synthesis A: ATP Synthase The space between the inner membrane and the outer membrane of the mitochondrion is A: intermembrane space what are the Folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane A: cristae The matrix is A: the space inside the inner membrane of the mitochondria A metabolic cycle fueled by Acetyl CoA that produces most of the NADH and FADH for ATP production A: Krebs Cycle/Citric Acid cycle The Mitochondrial Matrix is: A: The space inside the inner membrane of a mitochondria which contains enzymes for aerobic increspiration. What is an example of a micromotor? A: ATP Synthase When NADH and FADH are oxidized, what molecule is reduced? A: Oxygen Is it true that if you only eat protein and do not exercise that you will not become overweight? A: No, proteins are converted into Acetyl-CoA, which is involved in making ATP. If you do not exercise to use up this ATP you will become overweight In the treatment of patients, Oxygen masks give oxygen to the patient. This oxygen does what? A: Indirectly produces ATPby way of oxidative phsophorylation A person is very fatigued. You give him oxygen and state that will give him energy by way of glycolysis. That is incorrect since A: By definition, glycolysis is an anaerobic set of chemical reactions. The space between the outer and inner membrane of the mitochondria is called? A: intermembrane space Cells that need more ATP for their specific function will have which of the following? A: Large number of mitochondria Jonathan was lost out in the woods. He was able to find fresh water but there was nothing he could eat that would not make him sick. Will Jonathan be able to survive a 30 days without eating? A: No, surviving just on water for 30 days while trying to keep warm will use up many calories. His skinny build will not help him since he does not have extra calories to keep warm. ___________ is the diffusion of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase which subsequently causes ATP synthase to combine a phosphate ion with ADP. A: Chemiosmosis In the condition of oxidative phosphorylation, what is phosphorylated? A: ADP There are diseases in which the mitochondria is deficient, meaning that it does not function properly. If the mitochondria is deficient, what happens to the cells in which it is located? incA: Cells function abnormally since they require ATP to power the cells’ functions What structure inside the mitochondria is responsible for directly producing ATP? A: ATP synthase Which chemical structure is responsible for production of ATP from your food? A: Hydrogen ions The energy in the food you eat, is transferred to the cytochrome system in the mitochondria by a process of ? A: Oxidation of both NADH and FADH. The classic definition of fatigue is the production of which product? A: Lactate You are running to catch a football in a SDSU vs UW-Madison game. If you catch the ball, you will win the game. Your eyes are following the ball so you can catch it. What directly fuels muscles of the eyeball to follow the football? A: ATP in your eye muscle cells You have been eating nothing but beans as you transition over towards being a vegetarian. Your friends say that the proteins in beans cannot be beneficial as glucose since beans do not give you much energy. This is incorrect, since A: Protein is metabolized into both pyruvate and Acetyl CoA which will eventually produce ATP The enzyme that couples proton movement across the inner mitochondrial membrane with ATP synthesis A: ATP Synthase The space between the inner membrane and the outer membrane of the mitochondrion is A: intermembrane space Folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane A: cristae The matrix is A: the space inside the inner membrane of the mitochondria A metabolic cycle fueled by Acetyl CoA that produces most of the NADH and FADH for ATP production A: Krebs Cycle incThe Mitochondrial Matrix is: A: The space inside the inner membrane of a mitochondria which contains enzymes for aerobic respiration. in the treatment of patients, oxygen masks give oxygen to the patients. this oxygen does what? A; produces ATP indirectly from oxidative phosphorylation----CORRECT When NADH and FADH are oxidized, what molecule is reduced? A; Oxygen People who are overweight have what? A: an abundance of atp that is converted to fa Cancer cells are constantly growing that means that they must contain what? A: Many mitochondria F Carbohydrates, proteins, and fat are all metabolized to what molecule? A: Acetyl-CoA A shark is swimming above the swimmer. How does the shark get its energy to ​D Oxidation phosphorylation using oxygen from the water You are running away from some terrorists. Which of the following boxes would predict the increase in blood flow to the muscles? D what is the function of cytochromes? A: separation of a hydrogen ion from its associated electron in the scenario presented in the modules about the overheated us calvary and the football player dying from lack of water. what caused their death. (assume for this question, that the american indians did not directly kill the soldiers? A: dehydration led to an increase body temperature that led to heart failure. In the condition of oxidative phosphorylation, what is phosphorylated? A: ADP incWhich of the following is, the enzyme that couples proton movement across the inner mitochondrial membrane with ATP synthesis? A: ATP synthase A person suffered a heart attack. Which box would be most affected by this condition. assic defi Module 8: Loss of Oxidative Phosphorylation What aspect of the molecules you eat, give you energy? A: Hydrogen Ions incAcidosis in humans occurs when the blood pH falls below A: 7.35 In the case of carbon monoxide poisoning, which biological system is most affected since it requires great quantities of ATP? A: ITS HEART CELLS. What is needed to perform cellular work? A: ATP Normal pH for a human is 7.4. If the patient has a low pH of 6.5, what system would you want to decrease? A:​ Cardiovascular a person has a fire going with their house completely closed up, they are found later unconscious. what condition could they be suffering from A: both of these The oxygen carrying molecule of red blood cells is: A: Hemoglobin Carbon Monoxide (CO) is harmful to our health because: A: It has a higher affinity for hemoglobon (HB) then O2 and does not allow O2 delivery to mitochondria. Normal pH for a human is 7.4 What system in your body would act as the sensor for the carbon dioxide level? A: Cardiovascular Carbon Monoxide (CO) is harmful to our health because: A: It has a higher affinity for hemoglobin (HB) then O2 and does not allow O2 delivery to mitochondr which of the following is, the enzyme that couples proton movement across the inner mitochondrial membrane with atp synthesis? A; Atp synthase If Carbon Monoxide (CO) binds to hemoglobin instead of oxygen (O2) the end result is: A: Decreased ATP production and Death incIn the case of carbon monoxide poisoning, which system is most affected so as to minimize ATP production A: Delivery of oxygen to the cells A young man is clinically depressed and attempts to commit suicide by carbon monoxide poisoning. He had a hose attached to his exhaust and the other end was in his car. Luckily he was pulled from the car. He survived but he has a pronounced motor problem. He walks slowly, and cannot move fast. His symptoms are ​caused by damage to which group​? A: brain cells The brain produces a chemical called dopamine that plays a major role in our sensation of pleasure. The dopamine is produced in the neurons of the pleasure center of the brain and are released at the terminal ending of these neurons. ATP is for its dopamine release and uptake in the brain. Uncle Joe suffered a stroke in the pleasure center and is now recovering. However, he is depressed. His depression may be due to which of the following? A: Decrease in dopamine production due to decrease in ATP production Which of the following metabolic poisons is the easiest to recover from? A: Dinitrophenol an aerobic organism is not longer able to get oxygen, what happens to its pH? A: Becomes more acidotic A fish is given an injection of cyanide poisoning. Will the fish have the same reaction as a human? A: Yes, since the metabolic machinery is the same between the fish and human. The fish will die. Which system can go the longest in terms of time without oxygen? A: Skeletal Muscle cells If you wished to design a poison that would have the most lethal, immediate effect on an organism, which systems would you target? A: Oxygen delivery to cells Which part of the aerobic pathway in neurons can be interrupted so that ATP can continue to be produced. A: None. All pathways need to work together to support the neurons Acidosis occurs when the blood pH falls below: incA: 7.35 In most cases in which there is a decrease in oxygen to aerobic systems, what will continue to be produced? A: Lactic Acid The poison, fluoroacetate, causes the body to have convulsions, and cardiac and respiratory collapse. Why is it that this poison is referred to as "Suffocation from within"? A: All of the above. These structures oxidize electrons from NADH and FADH in the electron transport system. They are called? A: cytochromes A poison that disrupts ATP production by interrupting the function of complex IV in the electron transport system A: Cyanide An antibiotic that kills bacterial cells by interrupting the fun These structures "carry" electrons in the electron transport system A: cytochromes Anoxia is defined as A: low levels of oxygen If Carbon Monoxide (CO) binds to hemoglobin instead of oxygen (O2) the end result is A: Decreased ATP production and ​d​eath A person is ​out working ​in an orange tree grove and they suddenly collapse. Their symptoms include convulsions, and cardiac and respiratory collapse. What poison could they have ingested? A: Fluoroacetate what place in your body contains the most water? A: intracellular Which type of cell can go the longest with Krebs and ETC cycles interrupted? A: Skeletal muscle cells incA person has a fire going with their house completely closed up, they are found later unconscious. What condition could they be suffering from? A: Both of these – acidosis and anoxia Which of the following would be the most lethal poison? An agent that causes… A: A decrease in oxygen at the electron transport level What is needed to perform cellular work? A: ATP oxygen carrying molecule of red blood cells is: A: Hemoglobin Carbon Monoxide (CO) is harmful to our health because: A: It has a higher affinity for hemoglobin (HB) then O2 does and does not allow O2 Delivery to aamitochondria If Carbon Monoxide (CO) binds to hemoglobin instead of oxygen (O2) the end result is: A: decreased ATP production and Death n monoxide poisoning, which system is most affected so as to minimize ATP production A: Delivery of oxygen to the cells A young man is clinically depressed and attempts to commit suicide by carbon monoxide poisoning. He had a hose attached to his exhaust and the other end was in his car. Luckily he was pulled from the car. He survived but he has a pronounced motor problem. He walks slowly, and cannot move fast. His symptoms are similar to which condition? A: Parkinsonism (or brain cells) (See above scenario) His symptoms are caused by damage to which group? A: Brain Cells a The brain produces a chemical called dopamine that plays a major role in our sensation of pleasure. The dopamine is produced in the neurons of the pleasure center of the brain and are released at the terminal ending of these neurons. ATP is essential for its dopamine release and uptake in the brain. Uncle Joe suffered a stroke in the pleasure center and is now recovering. However, he is depressed. His depression may be due to which of the following? A: Decrease in dopamine production due to decrease in ATP production incWhich of the following metabolic poisons is the easiest to recover from? A: Dinitrophenol If an aerobic organism is not longer able to get oxygen, what happens to its pH? A: Becomes more acidotic A fish is given an injection of cyanide poisoning. Will the fish have the same reaction as a human? A: Yes, since the metabolic machinery is the same between the fish and human. The fish will die. Which system can go the longest in terms of time without oxygen? A: Skeletal Muscle cells If you wished to design a poison that would have the most lethal, immediate effect on an organism, which systems would you target? A: oxygen delivery to cells Which part of the aerobic pathway in neurons can be interrupted so that ATP can continue to be produced. A: None. All pathways need to work together to support the neurons Acidosis occurs when the blood pH falls below: A: 7.35 In most cases in which there is a decrease in oxygen to aerobic systems, what will continue to be produced? A: Lactic Acid The poison, fluoroacetate, causes the body to have convulsions, and cardiac and respiratory collapse. Why is it that this poison is referred to as"Suffocation from within"? A: All of the above. A poison that disrupts ATP production by interrupting the function of complex IV in the electron transport system A: Cyanide An antibiotic that kills bacterial cells by interrupting the function of ATP synthase A: oligomycin These structures "carry" electrons in the electron transport system A: cytochromes incAnoxia is defined as A: low levels of oxygen A starving goat in the desert of Peru eats a plant (Lethalis Desertus) that has a chemical that disrupts ATP synthase. What will be the result of ingesting this agent? A: Less ATP will be produced if the ETC is not able to produce ATP what could be interrupted? (choose all that apply) A: substrate phosphorylation, krebs cycle, glycolysis PICTURE CORRECT ANSWER IS : B (It is dinitrophenol) incModule 9: ATP Certain levels of ethanol (booze) or marijuana causes brain cells to become hyperexcitable.This means that certain cells are not working at their normal rate. What is affected by these chemicals? a)ATP hydrolysis in the brain cells (this one got marked wrong for me) b) glutamate metabolism in the brain cells c)Overall metabolism of the cell is decreased meaning that it is functioning as if there was not enough energy d)ATP production in the brain cells e) glucose metabolism in the brain cells (… this one was wrong too?????????) (I got it wrong ) ATP chemical structure is related chemically to B: all of the answers Without ATP which of the following processes will occur? A: none of the above (is the answer) ATP is located where? A: In both animals and plant​ cells where chemical reactions occur _________ is the adding of a phosphate (PO4) group to a molecule. A: Phosphorylation Biochemical energy that is stored in the ATP molecule is found where? A: the gamma phosphate which is the thrid​ phosphate group ​to cause conformational change in the chemical reactants ATP is related chemically to which other biological molecules A: DNA, RNA, NAD, NADP One of the most important properties of proteins is their ability to undergo "conformational change" which means? A: proteins are structurally flexible and can undergo slight changes in shape What is it called when oxygen (02) and hemoglobin are transferred in the blood? A: oxyhemoglobin incWhat process ​u​ndergo to pr​ust ATP u​omote the chemical union of actin and myosin? A: Lose a high energy phosphate by way of hydrolysis ________ causes brain cells to become excitable. A: glutamate The process that cleaves a phosphate molecule from ATP is called: A: Hydrolysis The study of energy is called: A: Thermodynamics When does myosin attach to actin? A: After ATP is split into ADP and inorganic phosphate The nucleotide found in ATP is: A: Adenine How does ATP interact with protein? A: It changes the shape of the protein to allow a chemical reaction to occur The sugar found in ATP is: A: Ribose How many phosphate groups are attached to ATP? A: 3 What is the final electron acceptor in the Electron Transport Chain (ETC)? A: Oxygen (O2) incOxygen is required for oxidative phosphorylation and in animals as a chemical called hemoglobin transfers the oxygen to cells. The hemoglobin carries the oxygen in the circulation. When oxygen leaves the hemoglobin molecule to go into your cells, this process is called? A: Diffusion When having a heart attack, your heart muscle does not contract. Why is this? A: ATP is not replenishing itself due to a decrease in oxygen levels in the blood. Blood pH is 7.4. If oxygen is not present, what happens to blood pH? A: decreases if only two moles of ATP are made and 4 are required, the feedback loop will be… A: positive Reactive Oxygen species (ROS) are produced where in the body? A: all cells ________ is the ultimate source of energy for ATP. A: The hydrogen molecule found in food Energy currency is required for: A: Anabolism and Catabolism The function of ATP is to do which of the following? A: Promote all chemical reactions in the body In the mitochondria, the oxygen combines with the electrons from the electron transport chain, which allows: A: The protons to enter ATP synthase Most textbooks emphasize the ___ phase of muscle contraction, but the controlled ___ phase is the hallmark of a superbly trained athlete giving smoothness to the motion A: Contraction, relaxation _________ is the adding of a phosphate (PO4) group to a molecule. incA: Phosphorylation Define: Conformational Change A: A shape-change within a molecule The biochemical energy that is stored in the ATP molecule is found where? A: the gamma phosphate to cause conformational change in the chemical reactants (third) ATP is related chemically to which other biological molecules A: DNA, RNA, NAD, NADP One of the most important properties of proteins is their ability to undergo "conformational change" which means? A: proteins are structurally flexible and can undergo slight changes in shape What is it called when oxygen (02) and hemoglobin are transferred in the blood? A: oxyhemoglobin What process must ATP undergo to promote the chemical union of actin and myosin? A: Lose a high energy phosphate by way of hydrolysis ________ causes brain cells to become excitable. A: glutamate Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) can damage DNA, RNA, and proteins...Where are ROS produced in the body? A: All Cells The process that cleaves a phosphate molecule from ATP is called: A: Hydrolysis The study of energy is called: A: Thermodynamics The nucleotide found in ATP is: A: Adenine How does ATP interact with protein? A: It changes the shape of the protein to allow a chemical reaction to occur incThe sugar found in ATP is: A: Ribose How many phosphate groups are attached to ATP? A: 3 What is the final electron acceptor in the Electron Transport System (ETS)? A: Oxygen (O2) When having a heart attack, your heart muscle does not contract. Why is this? A: ATP is not replenishing itself so as to promote muscle contraction due to a decrease in oxygen levels in the blood Carbon dioxide is produced where in the cell? A: mitochondria as a result of the Krebs Cycle Blood pH is 7.4. If oxygen is not present, what happens to blood pH? A: decreases Reactive Oxygen species are produced where in the body? A: all cells Energy in the form of ATP is required for what functions: A: Anabolism and Catabolism What is the final electron acceptor in the Electron Transport Chain (ETC)? A: Oxygen O2 During muscle contraction-such as your eyes moving to read this message -actin and myosin in your muscles that control eye movement need to attach and detach. When does myosin attach to actin? A: After ATP is split into ADP and inorganic phosphate ATPs failure to replenish the cardiac muscle is due to A: NOT a lack of energy released by atp hydrolysis. (ANSWER: Lack of blood carrying oxygen reaching the heart.) In the two blank boxes, which one would require red blood cell? A: A incModule 10: Photosynthesis Which organelle in the plant cells would direct the setpoint of chlorophyll? A: Nucleus Which part of the chloroplast is responsible for the light dependent phase (LDP)? A: Thylakoids The "head" of a chlorophyll molecule is a ring called a A: porphyrin The primary neural location that cocaine has its effects is ? A: Nucleus accumbens When an insecticide binds to the nucleus accumbens region within the brain, which of the following effects happens to humans? A. Feeling of euphoria The neurotransmitter found in insects that is similar to dopamine is? A: Octopamine Cocaine is a byproduct of which system? A: Light Independent Phase (LIP) More than likely, the production of Cocaine by plants is to do which of the following? A: ​Act​ an Insecticide. For light to act in photosynthesis, it must activate which photosystem? A: Photosystem II and then Photosystem I What enzyme is common to both plant and animal cells in production of ATP? A: ATP synthase O pre in photosynthesis​ w​hich of the two major categories of the chemical reactions is oxygen the byproduct? A: Light dependent phase (LDP) incWhen NADP gains a hydrogen ion, it is: A: Reduced The light dependent phase (LDP) does which of the following? A: Produces oxygen What does ATP synthase need to produce ATP? A: H+ The major organelle in the plant cell that is responsible for the light dependent phase is? A: Chloroplasts What molecules feed into the Calvin Cycle? A: ATP and NADPHcho What are the disc shaped membrane bound sacs found inside chloroplasts that contain chlorophyll and enzymes for the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis? A: thylakoids The green photosynthetic pigment found in plants, algae, and cyanobacteria is… A: chlorophyll A plant organelle that contains chlorophyll and is the site of protein synthesis A: chloroplasts What molecule is split to produce the electrons that are used by photosystems I and II to produce NADPH? A: h20 The most abundant protein on earth is A: Rubisco. photosynthesis Plants undergo 2 distinct chemical reaction phases. Which of the following are the 2 phases? A: LDP and LIP Which part of the chloroplast is responsible for the light dependent phase (LDP)? A: Thylakoids incThe "head" of a chlorophyll molecule is a ring called a A: porphyrin The primary neural location that cocaine has its effects is? A: Nucleus accumbens The neurotransmitter found in insects that is similar to dopamine is? A: Octopamine Cocaine is a byproduct of which system? A: Light Independent Phase (LIP) 3-phosphoglyceric acid is a product of which of the following? A: Light independent photosynthesis More than likely, the production of Cocaine by plants is to do which of the following? A: Act as an Insecticide. For light to act in photosynthesis, it must activate which photosystem? A: Photosystem II and then Photosystem I What enzyme is common to both plant and animal cells in production of ATP? A: ATP synthase Hydrogen ion cannot power ATP synthase alone. Which of the following must hydrogen ions bind to in order to power ATP synthase? A: NADP Which of the the chemical reactions in photosynthesis is oxygen the byproduct? A: Light dependent phase (LDP) When NADP gains a hydrogen ion, it is: A: Reduced The light dependent phase (LDP) does which of the following? A: Produces oxygen What does ATP synthase need to produce ATP? incA: H+ The major organelle in the plant cell that is responsible for the light dependent phase is? A: Chloroplasts What molecules feed into the Calvin Cycle? A: ATP and NADPH Cyclic phosphorylation A: the oldest of the two forms and noncyclic is the newer version and most common The green photosynthetic pigment found in plants, algae, and cyanobacteria is A: chlorophyll What are the disc shaped membrane bound sacs found inside chloroplasts that contain chlorophyll and enzymes for the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis? A: thylakoids Marijuana is now being sold for non medical purposes in Colorado. Marijuana is a byproduct of? A. Light independent phase (LIP) A plant organelle that contains chlorophyll and is the site of protein synthesis A: chloroplasts What molecule is split to produce the electrons that are used by photosystems I and II to produce NADPH? A: h20 The most abundant protein on earth is A: Rubisco. Photosynthesis is essentially used for: A: Creating ATP for the plant Porphyrin... A: a ring on the “head” of a chlorophyll molecule Stroma A: A fluid filled area in chloroplasts that is enclosed by the inner membrane incfor the dark reaction to occur which of the following enzymes is most important? A: rubisco which brings carbon dioxide from the atmosphere into the cells Rubisco is used to capture oxygen from the atmostphere in the dark phase. Photosystem II converts 2H2O into which of the following? A: O2+ 4H+ For the light reaction to occur, which of the following are needed? Pick the most complete answer A: select wavelengths of light and water Sugars in plants are able to be made by conversion of which of the following? choose 2 A:carbon dioxide and ATP Which organelle in the plant cells would direct the setpoint in the blue boxes, which one would you put hydrogen ion? A: C Module 11 Digestive System, Liver, Molecules of Life _____increase the absorptive area and the surface area of the intestinal wall and also secrete _____ and ____ A: villi in the intestinal tract, enzymes and water Dr. Pozos really loves cheesy fries. After chewing his food which will be the next organ that will play a major role in the digestion of the lipids in his cheesy fries? LIVER AND THE SECRETION OF BILE Which is the correct order of the intestinal tract? A: Esophagus, Stomach, Small Intestine, Liver You recently heard that a cow at a nearby farm was discovered to have mad cow disease. Which of the following is true about this disease? A: It is a prion which is comprised of a protein. Covalent bonds are described by incA. Bonds that form between atoms as a result of sharing electrons Carbon atoms can form up to _____ covalent bonds by sharing electrons with other atoms. A: four #8.e which of the following is false? A.carbohydrates are made from monomers or polymers of hydrophobic hydrocarbons as you chemical 9B:​ What are Pepsins? Protease enzymes that break proteins into smaller amino acids called peptides\\ A. Protease enzymes that break proteins into smaller amino acids called peptides. After ingesting food, which of the following layers of tissue in the intestine does your meal stay in contact with? A. Epithelial layer of the Mucosa Which of the following is not one of the four macromolecules used by animals which does not directly convert to ATP A. Cellulose found in plants which of the following is the correct order of complexity of molecules going from complex to simple? A. Protein to polymer to monomer based on the figure which part of the digestive tract was completely bypassed? A. Duodenum which of the following is false A. urea is more toxic than ammonia All of the following are true about the liver except: A. it does not directly produce bile which of the following is false: A. carbohydrates are made from monomers or polymers of hydrophobic hydrocarbons Alicia was in the laboratory one night when she accidently ingested a mutagenic chemical. This chemical acted directly on her Islets of Langerhans in her pancreas and caused them to turn into blood vessel cells. incWhat consequences would this have on her body? A. Her body would quit producing insulin and glucagon and she would have trouble controlling her glucose levels You have a bad case of diarrhea. From which part of the intestinal system are you losing the most water​? A. Small Intestine Carbon atoms form ____ bonds with hydrogen or other carbon atoms to become stable under the octet rule and are termed organic compounds A. Covalent #8.f which of the following groups of macromolecules would a fish taco be classified? it is a fried piece of fish, with beans and cheese wrapped in a homemade flour tortilla? A. it would have proteins, carbohydrates and lipids Bile salts produced in the liver ASSIST in the breakdown of lipids by acting as an emulsifying agent. What is an emulsifying agent? A. an agent that will chemically interact with both lipids and water, thus stabilizing the interface between lipid (oil) or water droplets in suspension The small intestine is divided into three parts which break down food and send those products directly where? A. The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum to the liver #7.c johnny's blood glucose level is high. which of the following organs is/are responsible for decreasing blood glucose levels in the body? A. both liver and pancreasAF Connective tissue serosa is best defined as: B. The outermost layer of the digestive tract. Your friend drinks a fruit smoothie and wonders where it begins to be broken down in the body, you tell them that A. the smoothie is broken down chemically in your mouth via salivary amylase WHich one of the following are the four types of biological macromolecules from which we get our energy? A. Proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates incYou eat a meal containing a large amount of carbohydrates. WHich of the following will occur? A. The pancreas will sense an increase in blood glucose and will secrete a hormone, insulin, to promote the cells to take up the glucose As discussed within the module, if 2 carbon atoms are bonded by 1 single bond, how many more bonds are needed for both carbons to be stable? A. 6 Which organ counteracts with the hydrochloric acid found in the stomach? A. Pancreas Carbon atoms can form up to __​4​_ covalent bonds by sharing electrons with other atoms. ​A. Four Bile is used in the digestion of lipids. Where is is produced. A: it is a special mixture of bile salts, water, and cholesterol secreted by liver cells You have just eaten a carnita burrito. Which of the following has the fastest transient time of the bolus of the food as it moves through the gastrointestinal system? A: gastroesophageal sphincter Dr. Pozos really loves baked potato chips. Where does his first chip start to mechanically broken? A: mouth Which definition best describes hydrolysis? A: a chemical reaction where a large molecule is split by a water molecule Your friend drinks a fruit smoothie and wonders how the swallowing process occurs. You tell them that… A: The swallowing reflex opens a sphincter at the top of the esophagus Module 12: Proteins Proteins are assembled where? A: ​Endoplasmic Reticulum A person in the arctic and is shivering violently. His core temperature is going down. WHich of the following… A: Primary incHydrogen bonds can be formed by which of the following? A: Interactions of amino acids of the polypeptide You have been very sick recently and decide to visit the doctor. She prescribes a medication that acts on a certain protein in your body. WHy did she give you this medicine? A: In order to block protein that is making you sick What chemical is required to cause the dehydration process to form a polypeptide? A: Protein What chemical is required to cause the dehydration process to form a dipeptide? A: Protein Which of the following is a protein that is very active during digestion? A: An Enzyme Which of the following processes forms a protein? A: dehydration synthesis What are proteins broken down into before they can be absorbed into the body by digestion? A: amino acids Why are proteins broken down into amino acids before they can be absorbed in the body by digestion? A: So that they are small enough to cross the lining of the gut ________ helps set up the countercurrent system in the nephrons. A: urea A person is crossing the desert and his core temperature is rising. Which of the following will be the first to be affected by the rise in body temperature? A: Primary structure Trypsin A: hydrolyzes peptides into amino acids The generation of proteins is due to which of the following structures? E: DNA and RNA A hydrophilic molecule will have what kind of R-group? incC: A water soluble R-group The bond that connects amino acids is called which of the following? A. Peptide bond Hemoglobin is a protein that... (see google or wikipedia for help) A: Carries oxygen in the blood Amyloid beta is a protef fin that... (see google or wiki for help) A: Is the main constituent of amyloid plaques in the brains of Alzheimer's disease patients Which one of the following molecules is a protein? <img src="http://bioespresso.com/modules/files/question/151732.JPG" width=375 height=300> A: A Secondary Structure refers to: A: The folding of a polypeptide in to alpha-helix or beta-pleated sheets How would the metabolism of freshly eaten proteins be affected if your stomach did not contain pepsin or hydrochloric acid? A: the proteins will not be broken down into peptides before entering the small intestine 0 The eight (10 for juveniles) amino acids that must be obtained from the diet are called... A: essential amino acids The small intestines, liver, and kidney can all generate ammonia from... A: amino acids Dr. Pozos surgically removed the kidney's of his helper Priscilla. How will this effect Priscilla's liver? A: The liver will be overworked with an excess of ammonia and urea and will more than likely fail To change the primary structure of a protein one would have to... A: alter the sequence of amino acids Where would you predict the hydrophobic amino acid Isoleucine to be on the tertiary structure of a protein that is normally found in blood? A: buried within the globular domain away from water Urea is synthesized in the liver and transported through the blood... incA: to be excreted in urine Which one of the following is false? A: Urea is more toxic than ammonia Dehydration synthesis between amino acids forms a water molecule from the loss of _____ from the amino group and the loss of _____ from the carboxyl group. A: H; OH The exact sequence of amino acids dictates the __________ of each protein. A: all of these Dr. Pozos is a mad protein scientist. In his spare time he gets alanine, serine, and tryptophan (amino acids) to form peptide bonds with one another. What should he call these molecules that he has made? A: Dipeptides Which of the following has the potential to act as a catalyst for specific chemical reactions? A: An Enzyme While having a dinner comprising of ribs and mashed potatoes your brother asks you, “Sis where are proteins first metabolized”? A: Proteins are first metabolized in the stomach What are proteins broken down into before they can be absorbed into the body by digestion? A: amino acids ________ helps set up the countercurrent system in the nephrons. A: urea Trypsin: A: hydrolyzes peptides into amino acids Hemoglobin is a protein that... (see google or wikipedia for help) A: Carries oxygen in the blood Amyloid beta is a protein that... (see google or wiki for help) A: Is the main constituent of amyloid plaques in the brains of Alzheimer's disease patients incWhich one of the following molecules is a protein? img src="http://bioespresso.com/modules/files/question/151732.JPG" width=375 height=300> A: A Module 13 carbohydrate You are starving in a prison camp. Which molecule will be first used by the cell to regenerate glucose? A: Pyruvate When digesting a starch humans have a distinct evolutionary trait to help break the glycosidic bonds. Which of the following is that trait that helps digest starches? The enzyme salivary amylase You stuff yourself silly every week with baked potatoes bought because they are cheap and you have limited monetary resources. Your body has plenty of ATP available to the cells so the acetyl-CoA you have made will be used to make... A: fatty acids Dr. Monroe wants to prevent Priscilla, the chair of biology, from digesting carbohydrates. Which organ should she remove from Priscilla that produces the enzymes needed for carbohydrate digestion? A: pancreas Actor Patrick Swayze (Dirty Dancing, Ghost, Donnie Darko) died from complications associated with pancreatic cancer. How was his digestion of carbohydrates affected due to limited use of his pancreas? A: may have been reduced because there is no amylase and maltase Dr. Pozos was in motorcycle accident with a clown and lost a lot of blood. The hospital he was taken to only had type O blood. Dr. Pozos' blood type is B. Like all scientists Dr. Pozos carries with him an enzyme that degrades oligosaccharides. Given what you know of blood types from the module what would you predict would happen to Dr. Pozos if he was given a blood transfusion with type O treated with this enzym A: He would live with no anticipated immune complications from the type O transfused blood. ______ Diabetes is a condition in which the _______ no longer produces insulin. incA: Type I; pancreas Matt really loves Fritos. One day he got so excited he accidentally swallowed a handful of them without even chewing. How will this affect the digestion of this salty carbohydrate? A: they will probably digest slower than normal because they were not exposed to salivary amylase How does a cell keep glucose from escaping without breaking down the molecule? A: phosphorylation Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats can all be broken down into A: acetyl-CoA Which of the following is a highly branched starch consisting of several thousand glucose molecules? A: amylopectin The complete oxidation of glucose, including the TCA cycle, in the cells releases energy in the form of... A: ATP Insulin stimulates the conversion of carbohydrates into _____, diminishes the breakdown of fat, and________ amino acid uptake. <BR>A: fat; increases Dr. Pozos discovered recently discovered a toxin that when taken orally causes the body to cease block the release of insulin after eating a meal. What disease is this toxin mimicking? A: type I diabetes How does your body get energy when you are fasting? A: The body MOBILIZES fat reserves for ATP synthesis to supply the body with energy. Dr. Pozos lives a pretty sedentary lifestyle. He has a weight of 185 pounds and is 5 feet and 10 inches tall. What is his BMI and is he overweight? (find a BMI calculator online) A: 26.5 and overweight x _________ defines a saccharide polymer containing a small number (typically 3 to 10) of component sugars, also known as simple sugars. A: Oligosaccharide Dr. Lane just finished running a marathon and needs to consume calories immediately or she will faint. incHowever, she left her wallet at home and has very little money on her. Which of the following would be the most inexpensive source of calories for her? A: a potato As your blood glucose decreases, what happens? A: Insulin levels decrease What is another word for Carbohydrate? A: Saccharide You stuff yourself silly every week at an all-you-can-eat pizza buffet (commonly referred to as carbohydrate heaven) because it was cheap and you have limited monetary resources. Your body has plenty of ATP available to the cells so the acetyl-CoA you have made will be used to make... A: fatty acids You stuff yourself silly every week with baked potatoes bought because they are cheap and you have limited monetary resources. Your body has plenty of ATP available to the cells so the acetyl-CoA you have made will be used to make... A: fatty acids Dr. Monroe wants to prevent Priscilla, the chair of biology, from digesting carbohydrates. Which organ should she remove from Priscilla that produces the enzymes needed for carbohydrate digestion? A: pancreas Actor Patrick Swayze (Dirty Dancing, Ghost, Donnie Darko) died from complications associated with pancreatic cancer. How was his digestion of carbohydrates affected due to limited use of his pancreas? A: may have been reduced because there is no amylase and maltase Proteins, carbohydrates and fats can all be broken down into A: acetyl-CoA Dr. Pozos was in motorcycle accident with a clown and lost a lot of blood. The hospital he was taken to only had type O blood. Dr. Pozos' blood type is B. Like all scientists Dr. Pozos carries with him an enzyme that degrades oligosaccharides. Given what you know of blood types from the module what would you predict would happen to Dr. Pozos if he was given a blood transfusion with type O treated with this enzyme? A: He would live with no anticipated immune complications from the type O transfused blood. ______ Diabetes is a condition in which the _______ no longer produces insulin. incA: Type I; pancreasblood glucosecarbon How does a cell keep glucose from escaping without breaking down the molecule? A: phosphorylation Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats can all be broken down into A: acetyl-CoA Which of the following is a highly branched starch consisting of several thousand glucose molecules? A: amylopectin Cellulose is a carbohydrate that provides structural support for A: all of the choices are correct – pine trees, mangroves, grass, rose bushes Cellulose is a carbohydrate that provides structural support for... A: none of the above – bears, humans, gerbils, dolphins The complete oxidation of glucose, including the TCA cycle, in the cells releases energy in the form of... A: ATP Dr. Pozos really loves baked potato chips. Where does his first chip start to mechanically broken? A: mouth If there is too much insulin in your bloodstream. What can the body do to bring your blood glucose levels back to normal? A: increase the secretion of glucagon Carbohydrates are involved in the production of which of the following? A: glycogen Insulin stimulates the conversion of carbohydrates into _____, diminishes the breakdown of fat, and________ amino acid uptake. A: fat; increases As you eat your rice, where are the enzymes responsible for molecularly breaking the carbohydrate into polysaccharides and monosaccharides? A: Intestines incDr. Pozos recently discovered a toxin that when taken orally causes the body to cease block the release of insulin after eating a meal. What disease is this toxin mimicking? A: type I diabetes How does your body get energy when you are fasting? A: The body mobilizes fat reserves for ATP synthesis to supply the body with energy. Phosphorylation... A: inhibits glucose transport across a cell membrane Which of the following is the normal BMI range? A: 18.5 – 24.9 While on his way to his biology exam James is hit by a car. He is transported to the hospital for treatment. James has type AB blood​. Which of the following blood types would James be able to take? A: ​All of these (James will be able to take A, B and O blood as well as AB of course) You are fighting ninjas and they are winning. As you get scared, you secrete more adrenaline which leads to? A: Increase in glucose The complete oxidation of glucose, including the TCA cycle, in the cells releases energy in the form of… A: ATP You are fighting ninjas and you need more glucose. The sensor states that the glucose levels are at 120 mg/ cc. Which of the following will occur? A: No more glucose will release You know that your friend has diabetes but do not know the exact type. She is not over weight and you know she exercises regularly. She faints and you want to help her. Which type of diabetes does she have and how do you treat her? A: She has Type 1 diabetes (diabetes mellitus) and should be given insulin. While on his way to his biology exam James is hit by a car. He is transported to the hospital for treatment. James has type A blood​. Which of the following blood types would James be able to take? A: ​Type A and Type O In terms of energy, carbohydrates produce the most ATP since they… A: above statement is false. Carbs do not generate the most energy incafter a meal your blood glucose levels are high. which of the following should be expected? A: insulin secretion will increase if there is too much insulin in your bloodstream. What can the body do to bring your blood glucose levels back to normal? A: NOT decrease the secretion of insulin Which of the following is a potential side effect of being obese? A: All of these Phosphorylation… A: Inhibits glucose transport across a cell membrane Which of the following contributes to the function and structure of a protein? A: the exact sequence of amino acids. incA: Pyruvate Module 14: Lipids If an obese person, has a sensor that states that his HDL and LDL are low, based on the feedback loop, he will.. A: Eat more nachos “Loose connective tissue in which fat cells accumulate” defines which term? A: Adipose Tissue Which of the following organelles is responsible for photosynthesis? A: Chloroplast Which of the following organelles packages proteins? incA: Golgi Complex. Matt, Dr, Pozos’ personal chef, has secretly been adding the lipid docosahexaenoic acid in place of butter to his dinners. How will this affect his health? A: decrease in strokes Lipids have the most calories is because they have the most… A:​ most hydrogen bonds Adipose tissue cells act as insulators for which areas of your body? (Be complete in your answer) a. All answers are correct Which characteristic makes glycerides filled with more energy than other types of fats? A: A large number of hydrogen ions When lipids are ingested as food they are emulsito fatty acids by__________. A: bile salts; pan​fied by __________, and broken in​creatic lipase from the pancreas A molecule formed from one glycerol and three fatty acid subunits by dehydration synthesis is a... A: triglyceride Fats and oils differ in their A: saturation of fatty acids The definition "A secretion that forms a waterproof coating over leaves, stems, and certain fruits of some terrestrial plants" is termed: A: cutin Adipose tissue cells consist of fat globules in the form of triglycerides which can occupy... A: most of the cell volume which of the following is a molecule containing glycerol, two fatty acids talls, and a phosphate head? A: phospholipid Fatty acids that cannot be constructed within an organism from other components are referred to as A: Essential fatty acids (EFAs) Carbon atoms form ___ bonds with hydrogen or other carbon atoms to become stable under the octet rule and are termed organic compounds. incA: covalent The main use of Acetyl-CoA is: A: to convey the carbon atoms within the acetyl group to the citric acid cycle to be oxidized for energy production. If Dr. Pozos developed a condition where his body could not produce ketone bodies, how would this affect him when he is fasting? A: He would not be able to use any of his fat reserves for energy Which of the following has the most unsaturated fatty acids? A: Olive Oil Fatty acids make fats and oils by bonding to... A: Glycerol Fatty acids are formed in which of the following structures? A: liver How would changing the polar phosphate group on a phospholipid to a non-polar group affect its physical/chemical properties? A: it would make the molecule completely hydrophobic and would cease to function as a cell membrane component "Loose connective tissue in which fat cells accumulate" defines which term/ A: adipose tissue In humans, fatty acids are predominantly formed in the _________________________. A: liver, adipose tissue, and mammary glands during lactation Matt has eaten half a pound of sugar on a dare from Dr. Monroe the body builder. Name the process that the EXCESS sugars will undergo to be stored in the body. A: lipogenesis Adipose tissue cells consist of fat globules which can occupy up to ___ of the cell volume. A: most of the cell volume incIf a person is not able to fit into his clothes, and his set point is altered to increase adipose levels, he will; do which of the following? A: eat more A person is not breathing because the diaphragm is not contracting, what nerve could be injured? A: Phrenic nerve Polyunsaturated fats present in plant oils that our bodies do not synthesize are called... A: essential fatty acids Dr. Villa wants to prevent Dr. Pozos' body from breaking down lipids for digestion. To accomplish this which organ should he remove that produces a lipid hydrolyzing enzyme? A: Pancreas In the small intestines fatty acids, cholesterol, and triglycerides combine in epithelial cells to form complex structures called... A: chylomicrons The small intestine is divided into three parts which breaks down food and send those products directly where? A: The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum to the liver All of the following are true about bile EXCEPT: A: It is synthesized in the gallbladder Which one of the following has been hydrogenated to be solid at room temperature? A: margarine fastingty Matt, Dr. Pozos' personal chef, has secretly been adding the lipid docosahexaenoic acid in place of butter to his dinners. How will this affect his health? A: decrease in strokes When lipids are ingested as food they are emulsified by __________, and broken into fatty acids by__________. A: bile salts; pancreatic lipase from the pancreas Which anatomical site do you think the set point would be located? A: Brain incLipids have the most energy since they produce the most A: Both ATP and hydrogen ions A molecule formed from one glycerol and three fatty acid subunits by dehydration synthesis is a... A: triglyceride Fats and oils differ in their A: saturation of fatty acids The definition "A secretion that forms a waterproof coating over leaves, stems, and certain fruits of some terrestrial plants" is termed: A: cutin A: most of the cell volume The main use of Acetyl-CoA is: A: to convey the carbon atoms within the acetyl group to the citric acid cycle to be oxidized for energy production. Which characteristics makes glycerides filled with more energy than other types of fats? A: a large number of hydrogen ions If Dr. Pozos developed a condition where his body could not produce ketone bodies, how would this affect him when he is fasting? A: He would not be able to use any of his fat reserves for energy Which of the following has the most unsaturated fatty acids? A: Olive Oil Fatty acids make fats and oils by bonding to... A: Glycerol How would changing the polar phosphate group on a phospholipid to a non-polar group affect its physical/chemical properties? A: it would make the molecule completely hydrophobic and would cease to function as a cell membrane component "Loose connective tissue in which fat cells accumulate" defines which term/ incA: adipose tissue If an anorexic person wants to increase her adipose tissue, the set point is located in? A: Brain In humans, fatty acids are predominantly formed in the _________________________. A: liver, adipose tissue, and mammary glands during lactation Matt has eaten half a pound of sugar on a dare from Dr. Monroe the body builder. Name the process that the EXCESS sugars will undergo to be stored in the body. A: lipogenesis Adipose tissue cells consist of fat globules which can occupy up to ___ of the cell volume. A: 90% Polyunsaturated fats present in plant oils that our bodies do not synthesize are called... A: essential fatty acids Dr. Villa wants to prevent Dr. Pozos' body from breaking down lipids for digestion. To accomplish this which organ should he remove that produces a lipid hydrolyzing enzyme? A: Pancreas A monophospholipid layer allows for A: The structure to be filled with hydrophobic molecules like lipids In the small intestines fatty acids, cholesterol, and phospholipi triglycerides combine in epithelial cells to form complex structures called... A: chylomicrons All of the following are true about bile EXCEPT: A: It is synthesized in the gallbladder Which one of the following has been hydrogenated to be so ulid at room tempera A: margarine Matt, Dr. Pozos' personal chef, has secretly been adding the lipid docosahexaenoic acid in place of butter to his dinners. How will this affect his health? A: decrease in strokes incThe definition “A secretion that forms a waterproof coating over leaves, stems, and certain fruits of some terrestrial plants” is termed A: Cutin Which of the following is a reason as to why animals would create a waxy substance? A: Use as a waterproofing agent Fatty acids that cannot be constructed within an organism from other components are referred to as A: Essential fatty acids (EFAs) Which of the following is a simple and healthy way for controlling HDL and LDL levels? A: Exercise Aminophospholipid allows for… A: The structure to be filled with hydrophobic molecules like lipids Which of the following is known for creating plaques in blood vessels? A: LDLs A beeswax candle is which of the following? A: hydrogenated unsaturated fatty acid Lipids and lipid derivatives help to form which of the following? A: hormones incPICTURE ​Module 1​6​: DNA The cellular information to make a protein is stored long-term as this type of molecule.c A: DNA These macromolecules are different forms of cellular information required to run the cell. A: dna, rna, and proteins. DNA is stored within ce A: Long strands of double stranded DNA wrapped around proteins as chromosomes Which of the following is NOT true about an organism's genome? A: It is organized as lots of pieces of double stranded DNA. Which of the following is NOT TRUE a: humans are fully adapted to bipedal locomotionnean incA DNA double helix is formed through the interactions ​derthal hominoids​this part of a nucleotide. A: Nitrogenous base Every cell in your body contains __________ percent of your genome. A: 100 If we isolated DNA from your skin cells and your liver cells, they would have __________ DNA A: identical From the <a href="http://news.bbc.co.uk/hi/english/static/in_depth/sci_tech/2000/human_genome/default.stm">websit e associated with the module,</a> how much DNA resides in each cell of the human body? A: 6 feet According to the website associated with the module, how many genes are estimated to exist in the human genome? A: at least 30,000 If you wanted to make a copy of DNA in the lab, which protein would you need to complete the synthesis of a new strand of DNA? A: DNA polymerase What is the difference between the functions of the protein in Figure 9 and DNA polymerase shown in Figure 10? A: The protein in Figure 9 unwinds double stranded DNA to create a template strand Which property of nucleotides allows DNA to make exact copies of itself? A: Base Pairing Two double stranded DNA molecules are made from DNA replication. Which of the following statements is true about the 2 new DNA molecules? A: Both molecules contain one original strand and one new strand Create the correct opposite strand for TGCACCA A:ACGTGGT a human genome is made up of inc3 billion, 23 Create the correct opposite strand for TGC ACA. A: CGT GGT the correct opposite strand for GAC TTA. A: CTG AAT The intense UV light from the San Diego sun can lead to distorted DNA within a cell. This type of DNA damage can have which of the following consequences? A: All of these A gene is __________, which contains the information to make ____________. A:​ A sequence of nucleotides​, protein 10B: A: a sequence of nucleotides in a stretch of DNA; a protein Antibodies are... A: Recognize and bind to specific antigens DNA is stored within cells as Long strands of double stranded DNA wrapped around proteins as chromosomes Where does the influenza virus settle in your body? A: Respiratory system Which is the strongest type of influenza virus? <BR>---A This part of the nucleotide binds two nucleotides together to form a single strand of DNA. A:Phosphate group The protein in Figure 9 unwinds double stranded DNA to create a template strand A gene is __________, which contains the information to make ____________. A: a sequence of nucleotides in a stretch of DNA; a protein incThe cellular information to make a protein is stored long-term as this type of molecule. A: DNA These macromolecules are different forms of cellular information required to run the cell. A: dna, rna, and proteins. DNA is stored within cells as A: Long strands of double stranded DNA wrapped around proteins as chromosomes Which of the following is NOT true about an organism's genome? A: It is organized as lots of pieces of double stranded DNA. 3A: A: Phosphate Group A DNA double helix is formed through the interactions of this part of a nucleotide. A: Nitrogenous base Every cell in your body contains __________ percent of your genome. A: 100 If we isolated DNA from your skin cells and your liver cells, they would have __________ DNA A: identical From the <a href="http://news.bbc.co.uk/hi/english/static/in_depth/sci_tech/2000/human_genome/default.stm">websit e associated with the module,</a> how much DNA resides in each cell of the human body? A: 6 feet cancer cells are cons According to the website associated with the module, how many genes are estimated to exist in the human genome? A: at least 30,000 If you wanted to make a copy of DNA in the lab, which protein would you need to complete the synthesis of a new strand of DNA? A: DNA polymerase What is the difference between the functions of the protein in Figure 9 and DNA polymerase shown in Figure 10? incA: The protein in Figure 9 unwinds double stranded DNA to create a template strand Which property of nucleotides allows DNA to make exact copies of itself? A: Base Pairing Two double stranded DNA molecules are made from DNA replication. Which of the following statements is true about the 2 new DNA molecules? A: Both molecules contain one original strand and one new strand Create the correct opposite strand for TGC ACA. A: ACG TGT Create the correct opposite strand for GAC TTA. A: CTG AAT 9A: A: All of these The intense UV light from the San Diego sun can lead to distorted DNA within a cell. This type of DNA damage can have which of the following consequences? A: All of these A gene is __________, which contains the information to make ____________. A: ​a sequence of nucleotides in a stretch of DNA​, protein 10B: A: a sequence of nucleotides in a stretch of DNA; a protein Antibodies are... A: Recognize and bind to specific antigens DNA is stored within cells as A: Long strands of double stranded DNA wrapped around proteins as chromosomes Where does the influenza virus settle in your body? A: Respiratory system Which is the strongest type of influenza virus? A: A incThis part of the nucleotide binds two nucleotides together to form a single strand of DNA. A: Phosphate group W Figure 9 DNA Polymerase? ---The protein in Figure 9 unwinds double stranded DNA to create a template strand A gene is __________, which contains the information to make ____________. A.---sequence of nucleotides in a stretch of DNA; a protein The term for a nitrogenous base with one carbon ring is known as ____; while a nitrogenous base with two carbon rings is known as___ A:​Pyrimidine, Purinemutations in dna Adenine always pairs with ​e Adenine always pairs with ___; whereas Guanine always pairs with ___. A: Thymine, Cytosine For guanine to bond to adenine, it requires A: Guanine does not bind to adenine Which of the following is a purine? A: adenine The most important reason we study DNA is that it….(Choose the most complete answer) A: Determines the function of the cell Once DNA is paired together it is very long. The t cells handle the long strands by wrapping them around A: Proteins The order of nucleotides in a stretch of DNA makes a ___ which contains the information to make a ___. A: gene, protein During cell replication, DNA does which of the following? A: It is replicated only after receiving signals from proteins in the cell The “central dogma of molecular biology” is an established opinion held among molecular biologists pertaining to: incA: the flow of cellular information from the three main macromolecules of molecular biology: DNA, RNA, and proteins DNA and RNA are made up of monomers, which in the case of nucleic acids, are called Nucleotides. What are the three parts that make up a Nucleotide? A: A 5-carbon sugar, phosphate group, and nitrogenous base What is required to make DNA replicate? A: All of these (lipids, proteins, carbohydrates) Mutations in DNA can be caused by A: All of these The human genome is made up of ____ base pairs that are separated on ___ chromosomes. A: 3 billion, 23 Module 17: Gene Expression What is the amino acid sequence coded for with the following nucleotide sequence? GGCCCAAUUUAU Gly, Pro, Ile, Tyr incTranslation occurs in the… A: Ribosomes in the nuclear membrane What would be the receptor in the cell that new proteins have been made? A: Molecule sensitive to protein structure Using the table, which amino acid is encoded by the sequence CAU? A: HIS For guanine to bond to adenine, it requires: A: Guanine does not bind to adenine The protein in this figure has following function: A: ​Unwinding DNA and synthesizing a complementary strand to the template strand The process of transcribing mRNA from DNA is performed by a protein called A: RNA polymerase What does it mean for a gene to be expressed? In other words, what does “gene expression” really mean? A: Information in a gene is made into protein incHow did scientists know the genetic code was in sets of three nucleotides? A: A three-letter code provides enough codes to make all 20 amino acids while single and paired nucleotides did not provide enough codes. __________ refers to the DNA strand that forms the template for the transcribed mRNA. A: Non-coding strand Within a stretch of DNA, one ______ encodes for one________. A: gene, protein 3B:urine A: Gly, Pro, Ile, Tyr. Transcribe the following DNA sequence into mRNA: TGA CCT GAA A: ACUGGACUU From the following double stranded DNA sequence, transcribe the correct mRNA molecule (Remember which is the template strand): 5’-TTC AGT GCC-3’ 3’-AAGG CATCH-5’ A: UUCCAGAUAGCC 5A: A: Unwinding DNA and synthesizing a complementary strand to the template strand This region (a) tells RNA polymerase where to bind to DNA while this region (b) tells RNA where to start transcription: A: (a) promoter, (b) start site The final product of transcription is: A: single stranded RNA Which of the following are the codes for building all proteins in your body? A: purines and pyrimidines Transcription of a gene has just finished. What happens next? A: mRNA is transported out of the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis 7A: A: storing genetic code incWhen the Activator and Inducer are bound together, they bind to a region of the promoter called the operator and signal that transcription should start. The ____ senses the environment and binds to the ____. A: Inducer, Activator Transfer RNA is produced from which of the following? A: DNA In the molecule, _____ is the part that is complementary to the sequence on mRNA. A: anti-codon PICTURE How does tRNA bring the correct amino acid to the translation complex for protein synthesis A: The two features of tRNA molecule, the anti-codon and the specific binding of one amino acid, allows tRNA to bring in the correct amino acid How many possible codons are there? A: 64 incWhich of the following is true about translation? A: The tRNA with the UAC anti-codon is always the first tRNA bound to the translation complex. Put the following steps in the correct order for translation? 1. methionine is transferred to the next tRNA 2. mRNA binds to the ribosome 3. the ribosomes moves to the next codon 4. tRNA carrying methionine binds to the start codon 5. the process continues until the ribosome reaches a stop codon 6. a tRNA with the corresponding anti-codon for the next codon binds A: 2,4,6,1,3,5 How does translation know when to end? A: When the ribosome reaches UAA, UAG, or UGA codons While working hard on a science project in the lab, you realize your sample is contaminated with an unknown protein. You have to figure out what this protein is or you will fail your science class. You decide to sequence the DNA and it has the following sequence: 5’ – CAGTA CCAAT – 3’. What is the sequence of the protein made from this piece of DNA? A: Gln, Leu, Ala, Asn You are working on a crime scene and have discovered a piece of DNA. The protein it encodes will break the case and you will be promoted to lead detective. After sequencing the DNA you know the DNA sequence is 5’ – AAA TGC CCC TAT – 3’. What are the amino acids of the mystery protein? A: Lys, Cys, Pro, Tyr. if no new proteins were made, where would the problem be? A: all of these (receptors, effectors, set point) Which is the amino acid sequence coded for with the following nucleotide sequence? GGCCC AUUUU A: Gly, Pro, Ile, Tyr Using the table, which amino acid is encoded by the sequence CAU? A: HIS What does it mean for a gene to be expressed? In other words, what does “gene expression” really mean? A: Information in a gene is made into protein How did scientists know the genetic code was in sets of three nucleotides? A: A three-letter code provides enough codes to make all 20 amino acids while single and paired nucleotides did not provide enough codes. inc__________ refers to the DNA strand that forms the template for the transcribed mRNA. A: Non-coding strand Within a stretch of DNA, one ______ encodes for one________. A: gene, protein RNA molecules serve several functions in gene expression. Which of the following is NOT one of those functions? Storing the genetic code How many possible codons are there? 64 3B: A: Gly, Pro, Ile, Tyr. Transcribe the following DNA sequence into mRNA: TGA CCT GAA A: ACUGGACUU From the following double stranded DNA sequence, transcribe the correct mRNA molecule (Remember which is the template strand): 5’-TTC AGT GCC-3’ 3’-AAGG CATCH-5’++ A: UUCCAGAUAGCC the anti 5A: A: Unwinding DNA and synthesizing a complementary strand to the template strand This region (a) tells RNA polymerase where to bind to DNA while this region (b) tells RNA where to start transcription: A: (a) promoter, (b) start site The final product of transcription is: A: single stranded RNA Transcription of a gene has just finished. What happens next? A: mRNA is transported out of the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis 7A: A: storing genetic code incIn the molecule, _____ is the part that is complementary to the sequence on mRNA. A: anti-codon How does tRNA bring the correct amino acid to the translation complex for protein synthesis A: The two features of tRNA molecule, the anti-codon and the specific binding of Which of the following is true about translation A: The tRNA with the UAC anti-codon is always the first tRNA bound to the translation complex. Put the following steps in the correct order for translation? 1. methionine is transferred to the next tRNA 2. mRNA binds to the ribosome 3. the ribosomes moves to the next codon 4. tRNA carrying methionine binds to the start codon 5. the process continues until the ribosome reaches a stop codon 6. a tRNA with the corresponding anti-codon for the next codon binds A: 2,4,6,1,3,5 How does translation know when to end? A: When the ribosome reaches UAA, UAG, or UGA codons While working hard on a science project in the lab, you realize your sample is contaminated with an unknown protein. You have to figure out what this protein is or you will fail your science class. You decide to sequence the DNA and it has the following sequence: 5’ – CAGTA CCAAT – 3’. What is the whithin A: Gln, Leu, Ala, Asn You are working on a crime scene and have discovered a piece of DNA. The protein it encodes will break the case and you will be promoted to lead detective. After sequencing the DNA you know the DNA sequence is 5’ – AAA TGC CCC TAT – 3’. What are the amino acids of the mystery protein? A: Lys, Cys, Pro, Tyr. Which is the amino acid sequence coded for with the following nucleotide sequence? GGCCC AUUUU A: Gly, Pro, Ile, Tyr Using the table, which amino acid is encoded by the sequence AGA? A: Arg The three steps of Transcription include: Initiation, Elongation, and termination the end result of Rna polymerase is that the… incA: Rna will replicate itself The strand with a base sequence directly corresponding to the mRNA sequence is called the ___ because the sequence corresponds to the ___ that are translated into ___. A: coding strand, codons, protein Transcription begins with ___ binding to the promoter initiating synthesis. A: RNA polymerase Which of the following processes requires both mRNA and tRNA A: translation Adenine always pairs with _____; whereas Guanine always pairs with _____. A: Thymine; Cytosine rom the inc.​Module 18: Mutation and Disease Which of the following is NOT a way nucleotide mutations lead to altered proteins? A: One nucleotide is replaced by another nucleotide, which can lengthen an amino acid sequence. The following is the result of what type of DNA mutation? Glu, Pro, Lys ----> Glu, Pro, STOP A: substitution Transcription of a gene has just finished what happens next? A: mRNA is transported out of the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis. Where is the information necessary to make a protein stored in our DNA? A: Genes A symptom associated with cystic fibrosis where the fingers and toes have a rounded appearance:he prob A. Clubbing Which of the following nucleotide sequences would NOT cause a frameshift in the sequence TAA GCC? A: TAT GCG A symptom associated with sickle cell anemia where the hands and feet swell due to blockage of vesseLS: Hand-foot disease Which of the following is NOT true of sickle cell anemia? The amino acid substitution causes the hemoglobin protein to clump together causing mishaped red blood cells​(​fixed):) What causes the CFTR channel to open in order to allow chloride ions to pass through? A: Phosphorylation incCystic fibrosis affects: A. Mucous glands of lungs, small intestines, and pancreas _______ is/are the typical treatment option(s) for cystic fibrosis to help clear mucous from the lungs. A. Bronchial draining If the set point wants 200 cells so that a cancerous tumor can grow in your intestine, and the output is 50 cells, the set point is located in A: Toxic chemicals that cause increase in mitosis cystic fibrosis is caused by the lack of gene that makes cftr channel act normally. how does the gene control the cftr channel? A: all of the above( production of lipids, productions of ATP, Productions of enzymes) A nucleotide sequence was mutated during replication and the amino acid sequence changed from His, d, Val, … to His, Val, … What was the likely cause of this change in amino acid sequence? A: The three nucleotides encoding Gly were deleted in the nucleotide sequence. You have a young patient in your office complaining of sudden pain in his joints and abdomen. He also describes often feeling tired and weak. You draw a blood sample for a few tests. You suspect he may have a genetic disorder. Which mutation do you hypothesize to be the cause of your young patient’s symptoms? A: substitution in the hemoglobin beta chain gene. After running some tests, you find a valine instead of glutamic acid in your patient’s hemoglobin beta gene. This is consistent with which of the following symptoms? A:Shortness of breath and fatigue Mutations can occur at which of the following steps? A. DNA Separation, Transcription and Translation Which of the following is NOT true of sickle cell anemia? A: The amino acid substitution causes a truncated hemoglobin protein that is nonfunctional that causes the sickling of red blood cells. -----wrong What is a possible reason the HBB mutation evolved to cause sickle cell anemia? A: The mutation may have occurred to give humans an advantage over malaria because sickle-shaped cells are more resistant to malarial infection. A young patient is experiencing difficulty in breathing and is coughing up thick mucous. Your patient also incappears to be malnourished. You suspect a devastating genetic disease and get a DNA sample. How will you know if your hypothesis is correct? A: The DNA sequence shows a deletion of the nucleotides that encode phenylalanine in the CFTR gene that leads to cystic fibrosis. Which of the following is true of the mutation that causes cystic fibrosis? A: The mutation occurs in a chloride channel that maintains the balance between sodium and chloride ions within the cells. After sequencing DNA from a patient, you observe a loss of the nucleotides that encodes phenylalanine in the CFTR gene. This mutation is consistent with all of the following symptoms EXCEPT: A: acute chest syndrome From the website on sickle cell anemia, how is sickle cell anemia inherited? A: People get two copies of the sickle cell gene – one from each parent. Both sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis manifest their specific diseases because: A: the mutated proteins have lost their normal functions "Nucleotide insertions and deletions can lead to a shift in the way the nucleotide sequence is read." These are called: A: frameshifts The HBB mutation observed in sickle cell anemia causes the disease by all of the following ways EXCEPT: A: The mutated hemoglobin is degraded​ ​and no longer functions. The loss of function of the CFTR protein causes ____________________, which directly causes the thick mucous in the lungs and pancreas of cystic fibrosis patients. A: cells that line the lung and pancreas to lose their ability to maintain a balance between sodium and chloride ions within the cell gene therapy the genotype of cystic fibrosis is caused by: A: deletion​ mutation Gene therapy uses the following information to design a treatment for a given disease: A: a given disease is caused by a mutation in one specific gene All of the following are ways gene therapy can correct a mutated gene EXCEPT: incA: all of these are correct Viruses are used to deliver gene therapy because: A: they can recognize specific cells and inject genetic material into them. How is it that a mutation in DNA stored inside the nucleus of a cell can cause a disease affecting multiple organs? A: The mutated DNA is expressed in multiple cells through the process of transcription and translation, and the altered protein causes the disease wherever the DNA was expressed. Which of the following is NOT a way nucleotide mutations lead to altered proteins? A: One nucleotide is replaced by another nucleotide, which can lengthen an amino acid sequence. A symptom associated with sickle cell anemia where sickle cell gets trapped in the lung and cause infection: A. Acute Chest Syndrome The following is the result of what type of DNA mutation? Glu, Pro, Lys ----> Glu, Pro, STOP A: substitution Which of the following nucleotide sequences would NOT cause a frameshift in the sequence TAA GCC? A: TAT GCG A nucleotide sequence was mutated during replication and the amino acid sequence changed from His, Gly, Val, … to His, Val, … What was the likely cause of this change in amino acid sequence? A: The three nucleotides encoding Gly were deleted in the nucleotide sequence. You have a young patient in your office complaining of sudden pain in his joints and abdomen. He also describes often feeling tired and weak. You draw a blood sample for a few tests. You suspect he may have a genetic disorder. Which mutation do you hypothesize to be the cause of your young patient’s symptoms? A: substitution in the hemoglobin beta chain gene. After running some tests, you find a valine instead of glutamic acid in your patient’s hemoglobin beta gene. This is consistent with which of the following symptoms? A:Shortness of breath and fatigue Which of the following is NOT true of sickle cell anemia? A: The amino acid substitution causes a hemoglobin protein ​to clump together causing mishapped red blood cells incWhat is a possible reason the HBB mutation evolved to cause sickle cell anemia? A: The mutation may have occurred to give humans an advantage over malaria because sickle-shaped cells are more resistant to malarial infection. A young patient is experiencing difficulty in breathing and is coughing up thick mucous. Your patient also appears to be malnourished. You suspect a devastating genetic disease and get a DNA sample. How will you know if your hypothesis is correct? A: The DNA sequence shows a deletion of the nucleotides that encode phenylalanine in the CFTR gene that leads to cystic fibrosis. Which of the following is true of the mutation that causes cystic fibrosis? A: The mutation occurs in a chloride channel that maintains the balance between sodium and chloride ions within the cells. After sequencing DNA from a patient, you observe a loss of the nucleotides that encodes phenylalanine in the CFTR gene. This mutation is consistent with all of the following symptoms EXCEPT: A: acute chest syndrome From the website on sickle cell anemia, how is sickle cell anemia inherited? A: People get two copies of the sickle cell gene – one from each parent. Both sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis manifest their specific diseases because: A: the mutated proteins have lost their normal functions "Nucleotide insertions and deletions can lead to a shift in the way the nucleotide sequence is read." These are called: A: frameshifts The HBB mutation observed in sickle cell anemia causes the disease by all of the following ways EXCEPT: A: The mutated hemoglobin is degraded and no longer functions. The loss of function of the CFTR protein causes ____________________, which directly causes the thick mucous in the lungs and pancreas of cystic fibrosis patients. A: cells that line the lung and pancreas to lose their ability to maintain a balance between sodium and chloride ions within the cell Gene therapy uses the following information to design a treatment for a given disease: incA: a given disease is caused by a mutation in one specific gene All of the following are ways gene therapy can correct a mutated gene EXCEPT: A: all of these are correct Viruses are used to deliver gene therapy because: A: they can recognize specific cells and inject genetic material into them. How is it that a mutation in DNA stored inside the nucleus of a cell can cause a disease affecting multiple organs? A: The mutated DNA is expressed in multiple cells through the process of transcription and translation, and the altered protein causes the disease wherever the DNA was expressed. In an RNA nucleotide the sugar is called ​RIBOSE ​and has an OH group on its 2’ carbon, while in DNA the sugar is called ​deoxyribose ​and the 2’ carbon only has hydrogen A symptom associated with cystic fibrosis which is characterized by inflammation of nasal sinuses: A: Sinusitis Which of the following are symptoms of inflammation EXCEPT A” Obesity ____ is/are a common treatment option(s) for sickle cell anemia to replenish the body’s red blood c​ells A: Blood Transfusions mutations are caused by alterations in…. A: Genes THe CFTR channel requires energy in the form of ___ to actively pump ___ outside the cell. A: ATP, Chloride ions Although there are no current cures for these and other genetic diseases, there is a therapy on the horizon thanks to our understanding of the ___ that may provide cures in our lifetime. A: Human Genome What causes the CFTR channel to open in order to allow chloride ions to pass through? Phosphorylation incModule 19: Cell Division Which amino acid is encoded by the sequence AGA? A: Arg Which of the following structures separate the sister chromatids in cell division? A. Microtubules Which phase does the division of the cytoplasm occur? A: Telophase The stage of mitosis when chromosomes separate in a eukaryotic cell A: Anaphase Each of us is made of an estimated ______ cells, yet we b​e​gin from the fusion of just _____ cell(s). A. 100 trillion, two Which of the following is a purpose of cell division? A: All of these Which of the following is not a purpose of cell division? A: Energy Production Which of the following is not necessary for the cell cycle to proceed? A: Gastrulation Cyclin Dependent Kinases have no activity unless A: They are bound to the cyclin How many chromatids does each chromosome have during G1? A: 1 incHow many chromatids does each chromosome have during G2? A:2 Gametes are produced by the process of A: meiosis At which step of the cell cycle are microtubules made? A: G2 A defect exists in a cell that results in the failure of microtubules to bind kinetochores. Which of the following is the most likely result? A: Cyclin-dependent kinases do not phosphorylate their target molecule A defect exists in a cell that results in cyclin dependent kinases that are constitutively (always) active. Which of the following is the most likely result? A: Cancerous Cells develop Which of the following structures separate the sister chromatids in cell division ? Microtubules Homologous recombination A: Occurs during Prophase I During Prophase I of meiosis, sister chromatids pair together in a process called A: synapsis Meiosis involves __________ rounds) of DNA replication and _________ round(s) of cell division. A: one, two What are the 4 requirements for Cell Division? A: replication, segregation, cytokinesis, signal Trisomy__ (3 copies of chromosome 16) is the most common disjunction event in humans, occurring in 1% of all pregnancies. As one of the body’s many feedback mechanisms, this is normally detected and miscarriage is induced during the first trimester. You are likely more familiar with trisomy__, or ____-associated with birth defects, mental retardation, and reduced life expectancy. A: 16, 21, Down’s syndrome Meiotic nondisjunction can result in incA: trisomy Which of the following is a direct example of mitosis? A. All of these Cycin-dependent-kinases have no activity unless A: they are bound to cyclin Which of the following activities is a direct example of mitosis? A: All of these A stage in either meiosis or mitosis in a eukaryotic cell reversing the effects of prophase and prometaphase events: A: Telophase <p> <B>9B:</b> What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?<BR> <img src=> <BR>A: interphase http://bioespresso.com/modules/files/question/449496.jpg What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture? A: prophase The reason for meiosis is which of the following? A: decrease the chromosome number in sperm and egg What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?<BR> <img src=http://bioespresso.com/modules/files/question/152414.jpg> A: metaphase Which proto-oncogene acts as a growth factor receptor and when mutated is implicated in hereditary forms of thyroid cancer? A: RET Which of the following is a purpose of cell division? incA: All of these Which of the following is not a purpose of cell division? Which of the following is not a purpose of cell division? A: Energy Production Which of the following is not necessary for the cell cycle to proceed? A: Gastrulation How many chromatids does each chromosome have during G1? A: 1 How many chromatids does each chromosome have during G2? A: 2 3B: A: microtubules Gametes are produced by the process of A: meiosis At which step of the cell cycle are microtubules made? A: G2 Cyclin-dependent-kinases have no activity unless A: they are bound to cyclin What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture? (looks like two forks facing each other) <img src=http://bioespresso.com/modules/files/question/152408.jpg> A: Anaphase The state of mitosis when chromosomes separate in a eukaryotic cell: A. Anaphase What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?​<BR>​ (looks like a round circle) incA: interphase What phase of mitosis is shomitwn in the picture? A: prophase What phaseFind and replace Fin of mitosis is shown in the picture?<BR> <img src=http://bioespresso.com/modules/files/question/152414.jpg> A: metaphase Which proto-oncogene acts as a growth factor receptor and when mutated is implicated in hereditary forms of thyroid cancer? A: RET Fertilization takes place when specialized cells called ____ fuse together. THe ___ supplied combines together to provide the genetic basis for a new individual. A: Gametes, genome A type of enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from high-energy donor molecules, such as ATP, to specific target molecules (substrates) The process is termed phosphorylation (the addition of o phosphate group to a protein or other organic molecule) this enzyme is called: A. kinases In the protein phosphorylation stage, which chemical is directly involved in the phosphorylation? A.DNA In sickle cell anemia, which of the following is the phenotype Blocked blood vessels incOf a Module 20: Cancer (Picture) Besides the tumor cells attaching to the blood vessel, which other systems is a means of transport for the migration cancer cells? A: Capillaries Both radiation therapy and chemotherapy cause a: two of these Cancer involves A: all of these Which of the following is required to form cancer? A: Mutation of at least 1 oncogene Which of the following are the two ways that a cell dies? (Choose 2) A: Necrosis, Apoptosis l Radiation and Chemotherapy are used to treat breast cancer. They work on which cellular organelle? A. Nucleus The process in which genes that send a “stop” signal become mutated and the cell does not receive signals to stop incA: Tumor Suppressor Genes Angiogenesis is A: Required to bring nutrients to the inside of large tumors The function of angiogenesis is to do which of the following? A: Bring oxygen to the cells The function of a science teacher is to Bridge the world between research and the real world Which of the following is a characteristic of a cancerous cells? A: All of these A tumor suppressor gene: A: stops cell cycle progression Cancer A: is treatable if caught earl​y The function of oncogenes is which of the following? A: promote cancerous growth The process in which genes that send out a “stop” signal become mutated and the cell does not receive signals to stop A: Tumor suppressor genes Which of the following is a risk factor for developing cancer? A: all of these are risk factors Which of the following is not a characteristic of dysplasia? A: well defined tumor boundaries Necrosis is A: none of these A: all of these incThe ability of cancer to spread to new tissues is called A: metastasis Which one of the following is not a stagmetasmutatione of metastasis A: meiotic drive During metastasis, where are cancer cells most likely to die? A: Inside a blood vessel <p> <B>5A:</b> Your doctor checks your DNA and informs you that he found proto-oncogenes. Should you <br>A: do nothing An oncogene A: always promotes cell cycle progression A tumor suppressor gene A: stops cell cycle progression Chemotherapy A: causes cancer cells to kill themselves A chemical that induces DNA mutations is known as a: <BR>A: carcinogen Which of the following increases the risk of cancer <br>A: all of these Which of the following decreases cancer risk? <BR>A: A Healthy Diet If you have a p53 mutation, chemo- and radiation therapy may be less effective than normal because A: your cells cannot induce apoptosis You have a mole growing on your arm. Which of the following characteristics would suggest it may be cancerous? A: all of these incA mutation in a single tumor suppressor gene A: increases cancer risk Suppose there is a family with a history of colon cancer where the mutation responsible for that family's predisposition is known. If a family member without cancer undergoes genetic testing and finds out that he did not inherit the mutated copy of the gene, that result tells us... A: That his risk of cancer will be the same as the average person in the population. Cancer involves A: all of these A drug is developed that blocks angiogenesis. It will have the following effect(s) on cancer cells A: ​tumors would be limited in size Angiogenesis is A: Required to bring nutrients to the inside of large tumors Which of the following is not a characteristic of dysplasia? A: well defined tumor boundaries Necrosis is A: none of these Apoptosis A: all of these The ability of cancer to spread to new tissues is called A: metastasis Which one of the following is not a stage of metastasis A: meiotic drive a mu Your doctor checks your DNA and informs you that he found proto-oncogenes. Should you A: do nothing An oncogene incA: always promotes cell cycle progression A tumor suppressor gene A: stops cell cycle progression Chemotherapy A: causes cancer cells to kill themselves Which of the following is not a stage of metastasis A: meiotic drive A chemical that induces DNA mutations is known as a A: carcinogen Which of the following increases the risk of cancer A: all of these Which of the following decreases cancer risk? A: A Healthy Diet If you have a p53 mutation, chemo- and radiation therapy may be less effective than normal because <br>A: your cells cannot induce apoptosis You have a mole growing on your arm. Which of the following characteristics would suggest it may be cancerous? <BR>A: all of these A mutation in a single tumor suppressor gene A: increases cancer risk Suppose there is a family with a history of colon cancer where the mutation responsible for that family's predisposition is known. If a family member without cancer undergoes genetic testing and finds out that he did not inherit the mutated copy of the gene, that result tells us... A: That his risk of cancer will be the same as the average person in the population. Both radiation therapy and chemotherapy cause A: apoptosis and healthy cells to die (1 answer) A doctor discovers that their patient has a defective p53 gene. What will the doctor most likely tell the incpatient? A: Chemotherapy and radiation will be less effective than other treatments Mutation of a single gene will most likely… A: not cause cancer In this diagram, besides the tumor cells attaching to the blood vessel, which other system is a means of transport for the migrating cancer cells? A: ​Lymph In the following diagram, is shown how blood vessels grow to support growing tissue including cancer. What would be the source of energy for this process. Consider that the blood vessels have to grow into low oxygen environments? A: Oxidative Phosphorylation Module 21: Genetics According to this diagram, R is... R R R RR RR r Rr Rr a. Incomplete dominant Genes are: A: Portions of DNA molecules that determine characteristics of living things and how those characteristics transmit from one generation to the next Trisomy ____ (3 copies of chromosome 16) is the most common disjunction in humans, occurring in 1% of all pregnancies. As one of the bodies many feedback mechanisms, this is normally detected and incmiscarriage is induced during the first trimester. You are likely more familiar with trisomy___, or ____- associated with birth defects, mental retardation, and reduced life expectancy. A. 16, 21, down’s syndromen Addition of methyl groups to DNA will: A: Block RNA polymerase from attaching to DNA Recessive alleles are expressed: A: Only when two recessive alleles exist together in an individual The inherited genetic code of an organism is ​called: A: genotype Histone deacetylation results in: A: gene silencing Mechanisms of epigenetic modification include: A: DNA methylation which of the following is the theory that governs development A: an interaction between nature and nurture DNA methylation results in: A: gene silencing the genotype rr would most likely represent what color flower? A;yellow DNA is densely packed in the nucleus. One way this is achieved is by coiling around proteins called A: histones Epigenetics refers to: A: Changes in gene function that occur without DNA mutations, and that are passed on Mendel's law of independent assortment is caused by the process of A: homologous recombination The term phenotype refers to: incA: the observable characteristics of an individual which result from expression of genes A Punnett Square A: All of these Your phenotype is very white skin. WHich of the following causes this? r A. all of these If attached earlobes is a trait carried in a recessive allele, how many attached earlobes alleles must one individual have to show the phenotype? A: 2 The inherited modification in the expression of a gene, which is not directly related to the nucleotide sequence of that gene, is called A: Epigenetic Inheritance A heterozygous individual with free earlobes must have: A: two different alleles If the allele for free earlobes is the dominant allele, a heterozygous individual will have which phenotype: A: free earlobes The different forms of a gene are called: A: alleles In a diploid cell, there are: A: Two alleles for each characteristic A homozygous dominant person with free earlobes mates with someone with attached earlobes. The offspring has free earlobes. What is this person's genotype? A: Ff Genes are: A: Portions of DNA molecules that determine characteristics of living things and how those characteristics transmit from one generation to the next incAddition of methyl groups to DNA will: A: Block RNA polymerase from attaching to DNA Recessive alleles are expressed: A: Only when two recessive alleles exist together in an individual The inherited genetic code of an organism is called: A: genotype Histone deacetylation results in: A: gene silencing DNA is densely packed in the nucleus. One way this is achieved is by coiling around proteins called A: histones Epigenetic modification refers to which of the following? A: Any environmentally induced modification to DNA which is passed on to the next generation Epigenetics refers to: A: Changes in gene function that occur without DNA mutations, and that are passed on Mendel's law of independent assortment is caused by the process of A: homologous recombination The term phenotype refers to: A: the observable characteristics of an individual which result from expression of genes A Punnett Square A: All of these If attached earlobes is a trait carried in a recessive allele, how many attached earlobes alleles must one individual have to show the phenotype? A: 2 The inherited modification in the expression of a gene, which is not directly related to the nucleotide sequence of that gene, is called A: Epigenetic Inheritance A heterozygous individual with free earlobes must have: in incA: two different alleles If the allele for free earlobes is the dominant allele, a heterozygous individual will have which phenotype: A: free earlobes The different forms of a gene are called: A: alleles In a diploid cell, there are: A: Two alleles for each characteristic A homozygous dominant person with free earlobes mates with someone with attached earlobes. The offspring has free earlobes. What is this person's genotype? A: Ff If the parents of a child are (BB) for brown eyes and (Bb) for brown eyes, which of the following is the possibility that their child will be (bb)? A: 0% Genetics is an expression of which of the following? A: Both transcription and translation Which of the following laws denotes that, “in the gametes, alleles of one gene separate independently of those of another gene, and thus all possible combinations of alleles are equally probable”? A: Law of independent assortment According to this diagram, R is C: Incomplete dominant Methylation is correlated with which of the following? A: Maternal care According to this diagram, r expresses its function when… A: when RR is present The Law of Dominance states that…. A: Each trait is determined by two factors (alleles), inherited one from each parent. These factors each exhibit a characteristic dominant, co-dominant, or recessive expression, and those that are dominant will incmask the expression of those that are recessive Module 23: Early Embryonic Development In the case that two sperms are able to fertilize the same egg, what caused this problem? a: cell surface was not able to modified fast enough after the first penetration If sperm were not able to make ATP, which function would be most directly affected? A: Motility The most important protein within the egg’s zona pellucida is called ZP3, which is required for species-specific sperm recognition and binding. Imagine that the DNA encoding the sperm-binding region of the ZP3 gene is mutated. What would be the most obvious effect? A: Failure of sperm attachment to the zona pellucida You are in India and in a rural village a child is born with four sets of limbs e.g. four arms and four legs. This is the result of some ​lack​ of negative feedback at which stage of development? A: Gastrulation according to the module, the blue line in the image marks the _____ axis. A: anterior-posterior Which of the following creates the placenta? A: Trophoblasts The structure labeled "A" is required for which of the following events? incA: Zona pellucida penetration. In the case that two sperms are able to fertilize the same egg, what caused this problem? A: cell surface was not able to be modified fast enough after the first penetration The indicated structure is important for which aspect of fertilization or development? A: All of these Early embryonic cell divisions are called __________. A: cleavage Which of the following always results in embryonic death? A: Polyspermy A hallmark of cleavage is A: all of these. Gastrulation ​can be​ defined by which of the following? A: Stage of embryonic development following cleavage, hallmarked by movement of cells through the primitive streak to establish the three germ layers. At __ weeks a human baby is named a fetus. A: 8 The indicated structure can give rise to ________. <BR><img src=http://bioespresso.com/modules/files/question/1527 <br>A: placenta Embryonic stem cells are harvested from which embryonic stage? A: The purpose of implantation is to _________. A: establish a physical connection to the mother. Alcohol and drug abuse by pregnant women can cause severe birth defects. However, alcohol and drug use during the first week or two of pregnancy does not seem to have any adverse effects on embryonic development. This is likely because ________. A: the embryo has not established a connection to the mother's blood supply yet. incCleavage stage cell divisions include which natural selection phases of the mitotic cell cycle? A: S and M. embryo Imagine that scientists removed 2 blastomere cells from a young 8-cell stage embryo in order to perform a genetic test. How would this impact the embryo’s development? A: There will not be a major impact on the embryo’s development. Which of the following cannot form from mesoderm? A: Brain Which stage comes first A: fertilization Which of the following is in the correct order? A: fertilization to cleavage to gastrulation to differentiation to organogenesis an acrosome is… A: ​Compartment in sperm head containing enzymes that penetrate the zona pellucida during fertilization If the indicated germ layer became damaged during development and the cells could no longer assemble properly, which of the following would fail to form? A: Lining of the digestive tract According to the module, the blue line in the image marks the _______ axis. A: anterior-posterior Which of the following describes the axial location of your heart? A: anterior, ventral, left Hox genes are required for ________. A: anterior-posterior differentiation a doctor g A teratoma is a type of tumor (it can be either benign or cancerous) made up of jumbled mixture of cells that resemble different tissue types. A doctor removes a teratoma from a young woman and finds evidence of hair, lung tissue, brain tissue, and bone. From which germ layer did this woman’s teratoma originate? A: All of these A genetic syndrome exists where male babies are born with an extra Y chromosome,resulting in an XYY genotype. Which of the following reproductive errors correctly explains this genetic anomaly? incA: Meiotic chromosome non-disjunction Compensatory regeneration is characterized by? A: The cell division of adult differentiated cells to produces cells similar to themselves If sperm were not able to make ATP, which function would be most directly affected? A: Motility The most important protein within the egg’s zona pellucida is called ZP3, which is required for species-specific sperm recognition and binding. Imagine that the DNA encoding the sperm-binding region of the ZP3 gene is mutated. What would be the most obvious effect? A: Failure of sperm attachment to the zona pellucida The structure labeled "A" is required for which of the following events? A: Zona pellucida penetration. Early embryonic cell divisions are called __________. A: cleavage A hallmark of cleavage is A: all of these. Gastrulation is defined by which of the following? A: Stage of embryonic development following cleavage, hallmarked by movement of cells through the primitive streak to establish the three germ layers. At the implantation stage… A: Diploid At __ weeks a human baby is named a fetus. A: 8 The indicated structure can give rise to ________. <img src=http://bioespresso.com/modules/files/question/152712.jpg> A: placenta Embryonic stem cells are harvested from which embryonic stage A: incThe purpose of implantation is to _________. A: establish a physical connection to the mother. Alcohol and drug abuse by pregnant women can cause severe birth defects. However, alcohol and drug use during the first week or two of pregnancy does not seem to have any adverse effects on embryonic development. This is likely because ________. A: the embryo has not established a connection to the mother's blood supply yet. Cleavage stage cell divisions include which phases of the mitotic cell cycle? A: S and M. Imagine that scientists removed 2 blastomere cells from a young 8-cell stage embryo in order to perform a genetic test. How would this impact the embryo’s development? A: There will not be a major impact on the embryo’s development. Which of the following cannot form from mesoderm? A: Brain If the indicated germ layer became damaged during development and the cells could no longer assemble properly, which of the following would fail to form? A: Lining of the digestive tract According to the module, the blue line in the image marks the _______ axis. A: anterior-posterior Which of the following describes the axial location of your heart? A: anterior, ventral, left incDifferentiation is A: Transformation of a cell into a more specialized role through the acquisition of genetic changes and physical characteristics; for example from a stem cell into a blood cell or neuron Hox genes are required for ________. A: anterior-posterior differentiation A teratoma is a type of tumor (it can be either benign or cancerous) made up of jumbled mixture of cells that resemble different tissue types. A doctor removes a teratoma from a young woman and finds evidence of hair, lung tissue, brain tissue, and bone. From which germ layer did this woman’s teratoma originate? A: All of these A genetic syndrome exists where male babies are born with an extra Y chromosome,resulting in an XYY genotype. Which of the following reproductive errors correctly explains this genetic anomaly? A: Meiotic chromosome non-disjunction Compensatory regeneration is characterized by? A: The cell division of adult differentiated cells to produces cells similar to themselves Successful fertilization depends more on the… A: Sperm in which meiotic phase do the homologous chromosomes pair up A: meiotic division 1 in which meiotic phase do the daughter homologous pairs divide into four gametes? A: meiotic division 2 Which of the following steps is the first sign of mitosis? A: cleavage Which of the following is formed from endoderm? A: Respiratory system Which of the following is in the correct order? A: Fertilization to cleavage to gastrulation to differentiation to organogenesis A blastomere is… A: early embryonic cells at the cleavage stage incThe egg contains A: A haploid nucleus Embryonic stem cells are harvested from which embryonic stage? A: The circle one with lots of small circles inside You are in india and a rural village, a child is born with four arms and four legs . This is a result of some negative feedback at which stage of development? A: Gastrulation Which of the following is the first step of mitosis? A: Cleavage Module 23: Development of Organ Systems _______ is the acquisition of characteristic changes in cell size, shape, and function. A: Differentiation A: ______ refers to substance secreted in fetal lungs that prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing. A: Surfactantcus f Differentiated cells form: incA: tissues Which of the following stem cells types would have the greatest chance of generating red blood cells? A: totipotent Which stem cells are directly involved in the genesis of skin cells? A. Unipotent Which of the following stem cell types would have the greatest chance of generating red blood cells? A. Totipotent Human embryonic stem cells from the inner cell mass are at which level of potency? A: Pluripotent, because they can form all cell types in the future embryo’s body, but not extra-embryonic tissues its true... Has the blastocyst stage embryo, shown below, gone through differentiatio n yet A: Yes, because trophoblast cells have a different function than cells of the inner cell mass. This diagram is from your module. Which numbered protein can be considered tissue-specific? A: All of these Heart cells and liver cells function differently because _________. A: none of these explanations is plausible Which letter in the diagram below indicates a structure important for tissue-specific gene expression? A: A, B, and C Mesoderm instructing a region of endoderm to become the stomach is an example of ________. A: cell communication Which of the following can cause a cell to differentiate? A: All of these Primitive gut… A: Long, hollow tube of endodermal cells that will form the lining of the digestive and respiratory systems _____ is the first stage of nervous system formation where the neural plate folds up to form the neural tube incA: Neurulation Which of the following is the first working organ in a fetus? A: The heart Transcription factors work with A: RNA polymerase Transcription factors… A: Proteins that bind promoters and instruct RNA polymerase as to whether the gene should be transcribed or not Increasing complexity during embryonic development is represented by which of the following progressions? A: stem cells -->differentiated cells -->tissues -->organs Your finger cells have all the same chromosomes as your leg bone cells. Why do your fingers not look like your leg bone? A: Both stem cells in the leg bone cells are expressed differently than in the finger cells and certain genes are expressed only in the finger cells and stem cells in the leg bone cells are expressed differently than in the finger During embryonic development, do organs assemble into tissues? A: No, tissues assemble into organs The indicated structure becomes the _______ later in development. A: brain and spinal cord Which of the following is true about the indicated structure? A: Derives from ectoderm and Requires Hox genes for differentiation Which organ derives from the foregut? A: All of these The lining of the trachea and lungs derive from ________. A: the foregut Which two organ systems derive from a common precursor structure? A: Digestive system and respiratory system inc9B A: none of these Which of the following is not a characteristic of stem cells? A: Carries out a specialized function The fetus ________. A: must produce surfactant before its lungs can function With out surfactant, what would happen to alveoli? A. The alveoli would collapse resulting in no gas exchange between the air and the blood _______ is the acquisition of characteristic changes in cell size, shape, and function. A: Differentiation Differentiated cells form: A: tissues Human embryonic stem cells from the inner cell mass are at which level of potency? A: Pluripotent, because they can form all cell types in the future embryo’s body, but not extra-embryonic tissues WRONG Has the blastocyst stage embryo, shown below, gone through differentiation yet A: Yes, because trophoblast cells have a different function than cells of the inner cell mass. This diagram is from your module. Which numbered protein can be considered tissue-specific? A: All of these Heart cells and liver cells function differently because _________. A: none of these​ ​explanations is plausible Which letter in the diagram below indicates a structure important for tissue-specific gene expression? A: A, B, and C Hox genes are _______. A: all of these Mesoderm instructing a region of endoderm to become the stomach is an example of ________. incA: cell communication Which of the following can cause a cell to differentiate? A: All of these Increasing complexity during embryonic development is represented by which of the following progressions? A: stem cells -->differentiated cells -->tissues -->organs During embryonic development, do organs assemble into tissues? A: No, tissues assemble into organs The indicated structure becomes the _______ later in development. A: brain and spinal cord Which of the following is true about the indicated structure? A: Derives from ectoderm and Requires Hox genes for differentiation product Which organ derives from the foregut? A: All of these Mesoderm instructing a region of endoderm to become the stomach is an example of ___ A: cell communication How do the accessory organs form? A: from the main gut tube Which of the following is the best way to describe the progression of transcription factors? A: they act in cascade Which of the following organ systems does not originate from a tubular structure? A: none of these A marine lost part of his foot due to walking on a landmine. For maximal results, to grow a new foot, you would use which kind of cell? A:Totipotent stem cells From which embryonic layers does your brain originate? incA: ectoderm The lining of the trachea and lungs derive from ________. A: the foregut Which two organ systems derive from a common precursor structure? A: Digestive system and respiratory system Which of the following is not a characteristic of stem cells? <br>A: Carries out a specialized function The fetus ________. A: must produce surfactant before its lungs can function Self-renewal… A: Stem cell characteristic describing the ability to divide repeatedly while retaining an undifferentiated state in daughter cells For the finger and leg bone question!!!! Pick the longest answer. cureevolut Module 24: Development & Society Which of the following is not a teratogen? (Use Google if necessary.) A: None of these Which of the following statements about retinoic acid is false? A: It does not harm the embryo if present in excess amounts Mothers of the children shown below took what drug during pregnancy? A: Thalidomide The ultimate goal of therapeutic cloning is to _______. A: create stem cells for future disease treatments incWhich of the following is true of reproductive cloning? A: It has potential use in the agriculture industry Creating identical versions of a prize-winning bull is an example of _______. A: reproductive cloning Stem cell research is useful for ________. A: All of these Stem cell research has the potential to cure which of the following? A: All of these The most common source of embryonic stem cells is ________. A: the inner cell mass of embryos created by in vitro fertilization Which class of cells has the greatest potential for researchers in terms of differentiation? A: Embryonic stem cells Induced pluripotent stem cells are a promising breakthrough for stem cell research because ______. A: All of these The key to generating induced pluripotent stem cells is _______. A: expressing ES cell-specific transcription factors Which of the following is an advantage of using adult stem cells rather than embryonic stem cells to develop disease treatments? A: They avoid the ethical problems associated with embryonic stem cells and they have been used successfully in the past Current U.S. policy allows use of federal money to conduct what type of research? A: Stem cell research on ethically-derived stem cell lines What is the greatest ethical barrier to stem cell research? A:Embryos are destroyed in the process of making ES cells What is a major concern with current embryonic stem cell-based therapies? A: They can result in unregulated cell growth (cancer) in animal models incWhich of the following observations provides evidence in support of evolution? A: All of these Hox genes provide evidence for evolution because ________ is similar in flies and humans. A: All of these Which of the following is not a teratogen? (Use Google if necessary.) A: None of these Which of the following statements about retinoic acid is false? A: It does not harm the embryo if present in excess amounts Mothers of the children shown below took what drug during pregnancy? A: Thalidomide What source is used to create therapeutic stem cells in therapeutic cloning? A. All of these The ultimate goal of therapeutic cloning is to _______. A: create stem cells for future disease treatments Which of the following is true of reproductive cloning? A: It has potential use in the agriculture industry Creating identical versions of a prize-winning bull is an example of _______. A: reproductive cloning Stem cell research is useful for ________. A: All of these Stem cell research has the potential to cure which of the following? A: All of these The most common source of embryonic stem cells is ________. A: the inner cell mass of embryos created by in vitro fertilization Which class of cells has the greatest potential for researchers in terms of differentiation? A: Embryonic stem cells incInduced pluripotent stem cells are a promising breakthrough for stem cell research because ______. A: All of these The key to generating induced pluripotent stem cells is _______. A: expressing ES cell-specific transcription factors Which of the following is an advantage of using adult stem cells rather than embryonic stem cells to develop disease treatments? A: They avoid the ethical problems associated with embryonic stem cells and they have been used successfully in the past Current U.S. policy allows use of federal money to conduct what type of research? A: Stem cell research on ethically-derived stem cell lines What is the greatest ethical barrier to stem cell research? A:Embryos are destroyed in the process of making ES cells What is a major concern with current embryonic stem cell-based therapies? A: They can result in unregulated cell growth (cancer) in animal models Which of the following observations provides evidence in support of evolution? A: All of these Hox genes provide evidence for evolution because ________ is similar in flies and humans. A: All of these If a couple wants to donate the stem cells from their embryo for financial reasons, the federal government would… A: Not support your wish A doctor tells her pregnant patient not to drink ethanol during the pregnancy. The patient says that she complied with the request but nevertheless her child has wide set eyes, a flat face and a small head-classic signs of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). The reason that her child has FAS is which of the following? A: Patient did not comply with the request A baby was born with the following birth defects: wide set eyes, a flat face, and a small head. What teratogen most likely caused these birth defects? A: alcohol incCleft palate could be a result of too much of what teratogen? A. Retinoic acid What is a major concern for ES cell therapy? --ALl of these Skin cells were transformed if to what type of stem cell after turning on the expression of four transcription factors commonly present in ES cells? A: Induced Pluripotent stem cells Why is embryonic stem cell research such a controversial subject? A: An embryo must be destroyed to harvest the inner cell mass What type of cloning would you use if you were trying to create a new heart? A: Therapeutic cloning On the topic of embryonic stem cells and the fact that creation of new ES cell lines requires that an embryo be destroyed to harvest the inner cell mass, ES cell advocates say _____, while pro-life advocates say______. A: blastocyst-stage embryos cannot be considered true humans yet because they have not differentiated and are not able to survive without being implanted into a womb; this constitutes abortion since a human life is destroyed. In somatic cell nuclear transfer, DNA from a(n) ___ is transferred into a(n) A: adult somatic cell; egg lacking nucleus Frogs have a similar body plan as do primates with two arms, two legs but only have a three chambered heart. From a genetic point of view the common body plan between amphibians and primates suggest which of the following? A: Common ancestor for both and certain set of genes common to both groups A teratogen ___ A: Is an environmental agent or chemical agent that can cause birth defects The fact that Hox gene ___, ___, and ___ are so highly conserved supports the theory of a common ancestor A: Sequence, chromosomal arrangement, and function The only true example of successful stem cell therapy is… incA: Bone marrow transplantation Module 25: Evolution What is the best definition of evolution? <br>A: a change in the genetic composition of population over successive generations What areas of study does Neo-Darwinism encompass? A: Genetics, systematics, paleontology, classical comparative morphology, and embryology What was the theory put forward by Lamarck? A: Transformism Mendel’s research contributed to modern biology by showing that… A: Plant cells inherently have characteristics that are passed onto their offspring How do scientists know the precise age for a fossil? A: The ratio between uranium and lead can determine the age of any given rock where a fossil is found In the figure, a shovel, a mole paw, a human hand, and a mole cricket forelimb are shown. Which biological structures are analogous? A: Mole paw and mole cricket forelimb Hox genes… A: code for segmented body plan of animal Biogeography is defined as… A: the study of the distribution of life forms over geographical areas In the feedback loop presented, which of the following cellular structures could be included whose sequence would be changed to generate a new form of life? A. RNA Darwin only published “On t​he​ Origin of Species” after he received a letter from whom? A. Alfred Russel Wallace How are homologous structures evidence of a shared common ancestor? incA. They share the same physical and functional characteristics. Walter Gehring performed an experiment where he replaced a fruit fly’s eyeless gene with an eyeless gene from a mouse. The resulting fruit fly had normal eyes. What did this experiment prove? A. Animals descended from a single common ancestor that natural selection passed along to them a set of Hox genes. Which of the following is an important concept in Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection? A: descent with modification Your phenotype is very white skin. Which of the following causes this? A: All of these g “Descent with modification” refers to the fact that… A. Both, different species adapt to different ecological niches and DNA explains the evolution of different species The theory of natural selection was simultaneously invented by Charles Darwin and …. A: Alfred Russel Wallace Why did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of Species? A: Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory Within a population and due to competition between individuals, those individuals with an advantageous trait will survive to pass their genes on to the next generation. This idea is called …. A: natural selection Which of the following does NOT provide evidence for evolution? A: geographical distribution of ecosystems Which of the following is evidence for Darwin's theory of common descent? A: all of these Evidence for the evolution of life comes from all of the following except …. A: creationism The fossil record is incomplete because …. A: of all these reasons incWhich of the following are least likely to be found as a fossil? A: Uromi’s heart muscle The movement of tectonic plates influences evolution by …. A: changing the locations of continents, causing some species to be geographically isolated from others. Which of the following statements about the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat is INCORRECT? A: They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor Which of the following statements about the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of separate ancestors a bat is correct? A: they are analogous because while each carries out the same function but this trait has arisen independent from What is the relationship between a human’s hand and the paw of a dog? A. They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor What is the relationship between Naomi's hand and the hand of Rumi's dog Kaluu? A: They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor Through neo genes or homeobox genes molecular biologist have uncovered that .. A: hox genes direct the building of bodies according to definite detailed plans between very diverse animal species. Homeobox genes ….ular ev A: code for segmented body plan of an animal crit Molecular evidence …. A: can be used to infer evolutionary relationships among organisms. Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense? A: a tiger who has many cubs, twelve of which live to adulthood darwin's th incWhich of these is the most scientifically effective criticism of Darwin's original theory? A: It lacks the theory of heredity The two theories combined in the synthetic theory of evolution, or neo-Darwinism, are …. and …. A: natural selection, Mendelian inheritance. What is the best definition of evolution? A: a change in the genetic composition of population over successive generations What was the theory put forward by Lamarck? A: Transformism Which of the following is an objection to Darwin’s theory of evolution? A. There are situations in which gradual evolution cannot explain the changes seen Which of the following is an important concept in Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection? A: descent with modification The theory of natural selection was simultaneously invented by Charles Darwin and …. A: Alfred Russel Wallace What drives the evolution of new life forms? A: Nucleotide changes Hox genes… A: code for segmented body plan of an animal What year was “On the Origin of Species” published? A: 1859 evide Why did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of Species? A: Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory Within a population and due to competition between individuals, those individuals with an advantageous trait will survive to pass their genes on to the next generation. This idea is called …. A: natural selection Which of the following does NOT provide evidence for evolution? A: a geographical distribution of ecosystems incWhich of the following is evidence for Darwin's theory of common descent? A: all of these Evidence for the evolution of life comes from all of the following except …. A: creationism The fossil record is incomplete because …. A: of all these reasons Which of the following are least likely to be found as a fossil? A: Uromi’s heart muscle The movement of tectonic plates influences evolution by …. A: changing the locations of continents, causing some species to be geographically isolated from others is INCORRECT? A: They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor What is the relationship between Naomi's hand and the hand of Rumi's dog Kaluu? A: They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait present in a common ancestor ^ Answer same as Q: What is the relationship between a human’s hand and the paw of a dog? through studying hox genes or homeobox genes molecular biologist have uncovered that .. A: hox genes direct the building of bodies according to definite detailed plans between very diverse animal species. Homeobox genes …. A: code for segmented body plan of an animal Molecular evidence …. A: can be used to infer evolutionary relationships among organisms. Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense? A: a tiger who has many cubs, twelve of which live to adulthood Which of these is the most scientifically effective criticism of Darwin's original theory? incA: It lacks a theory of heredity The two theories combined in the synthetic theory of evolution, or neo-Darwinism, are …. and …. A: natural selection, Mendelian inheritance. Module 26: Natural Selection Darwin should be credited with …. A: proposing natural selection as a mechanism of evolution. ​h​te? A: Mosquitoes At what level can adaptations occur? A: All of these Why are albino male peacocks not as fit at normal male peacocks? A: Because they are easily spotted by pray or are unsuccessful in competing for a mate. Clade A represents… A: Unusually frequent lineage-splitting An anthropologist is studying the genetics of an isolated town in CHina and notices that 30% of the population can trace their lineage back to the conqueror in that region. This phenomenon is called… A: Founder effect What percentage of the species that have ever lived on earth have gone extinct? A: 99.9% Coelacanths and Ginkgo biloba are examples of what pattern of macroevolution? A: stasis Would the progression in terms of time shown in the feedback loop be the same for bacteria and elephants? A: No, this sequence is dependent on rate of reproduction incWhich of the following is considered a vestigial structure? A: Canine Teeth in human beings Coelacanths and Ginkgo biloba are examples of what pattern of macroevolution? A: stasis Natural selection changes which of the following? A: phenotype of the population A population of Sri Lankan brown cockroaches lives on a forest floor. They suffer heavy predation from chameleons. Because their heads are small, the chameleons are unable to eat the very largest adult cockroaches, and instead prey upon small and medium sized adults. What type of selection does the chameleons impose on the roaches? A: directional selection When both sides of the bell curve is favored and the middle is not, what type of selection is this? A: Disruptive selection which In the Origin of Species, Darwin began his arguments using …. as an example. A: pigeons The basic steps in the artificial selection include …. A: all of these Mutations can be caused by …. A: all of these. Mutations are …. A: a source of new genetic material. Mutations are heritable only if they occur …. A: in reproductive cells Gene Flow…. A: increases the genetic variation in a population. Hunting in the 1980s reduced the population of Northern elephant seals and their genetic variation. Their population size to as few as 20 individuals at the end of the 19th century. Their population has since rebounded to over 30,000 but they have much less genetic variation than a population of southern elephant incseals that was not so intensely hunted. This result in genetic changes of the population is called …. A: bottleneck effect. The Afrikaner population of Dutch settlers in South Africa is descended mainly from a few colonists. Today, the Afrikaner population has an unusually high frequency of the gene that causes Huntington’s disease, because those original Dutch colonists just happened to carry that gene with unusually high frequency. This result in genetic changes of the population is called ….. A: founder effect ? Which of the following statements is NOT true? A: Fitness refers to the strongest who survive Which of the following statements is NOT true? A: Traits that are adventageous do not persist in a population Examples of microevolution are …. A: all of these Which of the following is considered a vestigial selection some one help - canine teeth on a human being Which statement below is NOT true: A: Macroevolution does not happen due to mutations, genetic drift or​ ​gene flow. The tree of life represents …. A: all of these Which of the following statements is NOT true: A: Humans have zero probability of becoming extinct because we are special. Darwin should be credited with …. A: proposing natural selection as a mechanism of evolution. For evolution to take place there must be …. A: any of these Which of these following statements is TRUE? A: Natural selection has been demonstrated to occur in wild populations. incUntil the beginning of the last century, both too small and too large babies had higher risks of death, selecting for average babies. This kind of selection is known as …. <BR>A: Stabilizing selection. A population of Sri Lankan brown cockroaches lives on a forest floor. They suffer heavy predation from chameleons. Because their heads are small, the chameleons are unable to eat the very largest adult cockroaches, and instead prey upon small and medium sized adults. What type of selection does the chameleons impose on the roaches? <br>A: directional selection When both sides of the bell curve is favored and the middle is not, what type of selection is this? A: Disruptive selection In the Origin of Species, Darwin began his arguments using …. as an example. A: pigeons The basic steps in the artificial selection include …. A: all of these Mutations can be caused by …. A: all of these. Mutations are …. A: a source of new genetic material. Mutations are heritable only if they occur …. A: in reproductive cells Gene Flow …. A: increases the genetic variation in a population. Hunting in the 1980s reduced the population of Northern elephant seals and their genetic variation. Their population size to as few as 20 individuals at the end of the 19th century. Their population has since rebounded to over 30,000 but they have much less genetic variation than a population of southern elephant seals that was not so intensely hunted. This result in genetic changes of the population is called …. A: bottleneck effect. The Afrikaner population of Dutch settlers in South Africa is descended mainly from a few colonists. Today, the Afrikaner population has an unusually high frequency of the gene that causes Huntington’s incdisease, because those original Dutch colonists just happened to carry that gene with unusually high frequency. This result in genetic changes of the population is called ….. A: founder effect Which of the following statements is NOT true? A: Fitness refers to the strongest who survive Which of the following statements is NOT true? A: Traits that are advantageous often do not persist in a population Which statement below is NOT true: A: Macroevolution does not happen due to mutations, genetic drift or​ ​gene flow. The fact that the milk snake resembles the deadly coral snake represents what type of adaptation. A: mimicry What causes gene flow? A: Organisms from one population migrate to another Which of the following would have the highest gene flow rate? A: Mosquito The population of American Bison fell due to overhunting, nearly leading to extinction around the year 1890. This is an example of what? A: Bottleneck effect The single amino acid difference in the chestnut belly flycatcher (Monarcha castaneiventris) in the Solomon islands that transformed it into a completely black subspecies is an example of what evolutionary change? A: Microevolution The tree of life represents …. A: all of these Which of the following statements is NOT true: A: Humans have zero probability of becoming extinct because we are special. incModule 27: Evolution and Us Do you believe in evolution in that homo sapiens evolved from more primitive forms of primates? A: yes Which of the following is the closest ancient common ancestor to modern humans? A: Australopithecus Afarensis: CORRECT The creation of better crops is the result of which of the following? A: Plant breeding Which of the following is NOT TRUE A: Humans are fully adapted to bipedal locomotion which of the following was the first species to use tools? A: homo habilis Your friend has just learned about evolution and drug resistance and give you the following advice. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT? A: If mucus from the nose changes from clear to yellow or green, then you have a bacterial infection and should request for antibiotics. DNA can be found in which of the following? A: bones Which of the following mutations will be favored……(long question) A: Hemoglobin F mutation... if many hominids developed, why did only one, us, survive? A: Scientist have not decided on an answer on this question-yet If the earths climate changed into significantly warmer conditions than present, given that increase in body surface area increases heat dissipation, what kinds of humans would you expect in the deep future? Assume that all humans have to live in \natural environmental conditions. i.e. not inside buildings. A: Thinner and taller build compared to present humans. incNeanderthal behavior did not include.. A:Settlement in permanent villages Which of the following is an example of how evolutionary principles help make sound conservation decisions? A: Using phylogenetic information to determine which regions contain the greatest variety of biologically unique species. Which if the following statements about sickle-cell anemia is false? A:the sickle cell disease would be immediately wiped out if a a vaccine for malaria is found. From an evolutionary point of view, bipedalism is a the result of which of the following? A: Both mutations and environmental factors From an evolutionary point of view, the development of a large brain in primates suggests which of the following? A: All of the above. Why is it difficult to come up with an exact count of the number of hominid species? A: Because of all these reasons Maintaining the diversity of crop species is important because all of the following reasons except… A: maintaining diversity results in lower number of variants in crop genes Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Neanderthal and Cro- Magnon man? A: only the Cro-magnon made necklaces and jewelry Which of the below statements is NOT TRUE about human evolution? A: Humans evolved from biological processes that are different from the processes that govern the evolution of all life on Earth incwhat type of environmental change is associated with transition to bipedality A. the climate becoming significantly….. Which of the following contributed to the formation of the trait sickle cell anemia? A: Which of the following is TRUE? A: If many hominids developed, why did only one, us, survive? A: scientist have not decided on an answer yet A point mutation may cause which of the following? A: sickle- cell Module 29: Central Nervous System Help: Dr. Pozos just listed 7 one-word facts on how water is essential to life. Approximately how long can you potentially remember all 7 facts without looking or studying them again? (This question is according to the module) A. 2-3 days after he lists them B. 2-3 hours after he lists them incC. 2-3 minutes after he lists them D. 2-3 years after he lists them E. 2-3 months after he lists them What is/are the difference(s) between short-term and long-term memory? A: all of these are correct Disease can cause a loss in memory by… A: Decreasing the number of specific neurons in those areas of the brain that control memory This is NOT a part of the neuron: A: Acetylcholine Short-term memory requires what molecular process? A: Signaling through neurotransmitters What is not a potential way to lose your short-term memory? A: Drinking a lot of caffeine boosts acetylcholine production in hour basal forebrain Parkinson patients do not have enough dopamine in the brain. Which chemical would you give them to increase the dopamine content? A: All of the above might work (Ephinephrine, Tyrosine, Dopa) A person hits you in the face on your right side. The pain is sensed on the left side of the brain. For the pain to be sensed, what has to occur? A: Sensation has to activate neurons in the thalamus. Dr. Pozos just posted a list of 20 one-word facts on how water is essential to life. Approximately how many of these words can you potentially remember 5 minutes later? A: 3-4 words Neurons are classified into three types: A:sensory neurons, interneurons, and motor neurons What function(s) are performed by the neuron A: Receive information, process it, and transmit it to other cells Neurotransmitters are A. chemical messages incThe cerebral cortex is the control center and it is made up of 4 different lobes. What are the 4 lobes? A. Frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal You are driving to school one morning when you see a car flipped over on the side of the road. You decide to be a hero and help the passengers inside. As you are running to the car to quickly evacuate any passengers, Dr. Pozos lessons on the importance of the spinal cord come into play. What is the first thing you do? A: Call 911 and assist in stabilizing their spinal cord (specifically their cervical) A stroke, while not a disease, is another common cause of memory loss. People with ___ or ____ often have small ischemic strokes that involve very small arteries in the brain. A: Uncontrolled high blood pressure (or) diabetes Nina studied for the Bio100 final over 5 days and scored an “A.” Zach pulled an all nighter before the exam and scored a “C”. Based on what you learned about memory, what is the most likely reason for the difference in grades? A: Zach did not get enough sleep, which impaired his ability to recall information Why is the cerebellum known as “the best friend” to a skateboarder, surfer, paddle boarder, and skier? A: The cerebellum controls balance and refinement of movements Neurotransmitters can be relayed from neurons to which kind of cells? A: All of these are correct Why would seeing a picture of a witch trigger a childhood memory about Halloween? A: the information is linked by association in your brain Dr. Pozos partied like a rock star the night before, but now cannot remember that he danced on the table with a lampshade on his head. How did the alcohol affect his ability to remember? A: all of these are correct What caused the lack of storage of the concept “oxidative phosphorylation”? A: not enough repetitive association Which is a factor involved in alcohol-induced blackouts? A: All of the above Why does drinking a lot of caffeine negatively affect our memory? incA: caffeine increases acetylcholine levels when they are usually decreased during sleep The spinal cord has segments that innervate specific areas of the body. These are: A: Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral Which part of the Central Nervous System has neurons? A: All of the above contain neurons Which of the following is true about neurotransmitters? A: they are used by neurons to communicate with other cells Why do Alzheimer’s patients lose their short-term memory? A: plaques and tangles form in the hippocampus, blocking neuronal communication What processes contribute to long-term potentiation? A: all of these are correct Short-term memory requires what molecular process? A: Signaling through neurotransmitters How does sleep help improve our memories? A: your mind replays the events of the day, reinforcing new memories Why is the cerebellum known as “the best friend” to a skateboarder, surfer, paddle boarder, and skier? A: The cerebellum controls balance and refinement of movements. You have a cumulative final exam for Bio100. What is the best way to study for the test? A: try to associate things you don’t know with things you already know This is NOT a part of the neuron A: Acetylcholine Many addictive drugs work at the synaptic region. What is the most accepted explanation of the molecular basis of addiction? A: Not enough release of synaptic vesicles Why does long-term potentiation strengthen the connection between two neurons? A: The subsequent signals are stronger and longer than the initial signal incAmnesia is a common outcome of a brain injury due to concussions as observed in sports or a serious accident. Amnesia is a severe disruption of A: Memory Parkinson Module 30: Peripheral Nervous System Which of the following is not true about the auditory cortex? A: It receives signals directly from hair cells What is the function of the sympathetic system? A: it controls the “fight or flight” response Define: Hertz A. The amount of peaks of waves that pass a point in one second. How does a cochlear implant work? A: It stimulates the auditory nerve What is the purpose of the cochlea? A. it converts sound pressure into electrical impulses Which part of the peripheral nervous system causes the heart rate to decrease A. parasympathetic What is the purpose of the ossicles? They convert sound waves into sound pressure Frequency refers to 2 components of the sound wave: A. Wavelength and speed When you are scared which of the following systems increases your heart rate and respiration A: Sympathetic System Jennifer Lopez just insulted a contestant on American Idol because they sang horribly out of key. What is the most likely explanation for the bad performance? A: The contestant cannot imitate or remember the correct musical notes to sing incSound waves is composed of different characteristics which are: Both Frequency and Amplitude Which of the following muscles are under the control of the autonomic nervous system? A: smooth muscles and cardiac muscles Once the acetylcholine attaches to the acetylcholine receptor it causes a change in the membrane so that it causes ____ to rush in triggering an ____. A: Sodium ion, action potential The autonomic nervous system is the reason why: A: Physiological changes associated with emotional responses happen Which is true about the autonomic nervous system? A: all of these are correct You are listening to your favorite group singing. They have a unique vocal sound. This sound more than likely comes from which of the following? A. Larynx Every time you breath do you use all of the air in your lungs?fun A: No, the ventilatory system has a reserve of air so that we are not completely dependent on the air that enters and leaves with each ventilatory cycle Which neurotransmitter is released when you are listening to music you like? A: dopamine Which group of neurons control your skeletal mu A: Somatic The autonomic nervous system controls which bodily functions? A: your heart beat and digestion Where are 75% of parasympathetic fibers found? A: the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) incThe main function of the peripheral nervous system is: A. To connect the CNS to the limbs and organs Which system is a part of the peripheral nervous system? A: All of these are correct. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for A: Rest and Digest Turning up the volume on your radio affects sound waves in which manner? A: increases the amplitude of the wave When your fight or flight response is activated, which of the following neurotransmitters is released to increase heart rate? A: epinephrine Which of the following is tone deafness? A: the inability to distinguish between musical notes Which of the following neurotransmitters turns the reward circuit ON? (Choose all that apply) A: dopamine , endorphins When you listen to your favorite music, your heart rate goes up and you start keeping time with your feet. Which system is responsible for feet to tap in time to the music? A: Somatic Dr. Pozos just got turned away from American Idol, even though he trained to have relative pitch. What is the most like explanation for his inability to sing? A: He cannot control his vocal chords, even though he knows the correct note to sing Which of the following describes perfect pitch? A: People who can specifically name the pitch of a note or even a sound without a reference Define: Hair cells A: Sound receptors for the brain and are a special kind of neuron Define: Mechanosensory receptors A: monitor touch, vibration, pressure, and tension of the skin incWhy do you experience a physiological and emotional response to music you like? A: norepinephrine levels rise, controlling your sympathetic system Somatic motor neurons control which of the following? A: All of the above Define: Wavelength A: the space or distance between the high points of two waves. Which of the following is the area in the brain where we experience feelings of pleasure? A: A bundle of neurons called the reward circuit Why do you experience a physiological and emotional response to music you like? A: Norepinephrine levels rise, controlling your sympathetic system You turn the doorknob and you see a zombie> it scares you especially after it starts to chew your arm. Which part of the nervous system is involved in transmitting the pain in your arm that the zombie is chewing? A: Somatic nervous system-nociceptor The main function of the somatic nervous system is to: A: Carry motor information to skeletal muscle You are having a nice dinner with your significant other. It is really going well until you are notified that the relationship is over! You face turns chalk white. Which chemical will cause this reaction? A: Epinephrine Which of the following neurotransmitters turns the reward circuit OFF? A: GABA What is the function of the sympathetic system?g A: It controls the “fight and flight” response A point mutation can cause which of the following? A: Sickle-cell anemia incModule 31: Smooth & Skeletal System Which of the following is the first step in terms of muscle contraction? A:Creatine phosphates make ATP For your blood vessels to constrict which muscle group is primarily responsible? A: Smooth muscle For muscles to contract, they require ATP. This ATP comes from which organelle? A: mitochondria In muscle contraction, which molecule does most of the initial movement? A. Myosin Which of the following are contained in the sarcomeres? (Choose all that apply) A: Actin and Myosin Which of the following muscle types has intercalated discs? A: Cardiac muscle When the muscle contracts, it causes: A: Joint Movement Movement is caused by: A: protein interaction of actin and myosin The sliding filament theory states that… A: myosin connects to actin and moves by way of attaching and detaching itself from actin Which of the following is not a part of a skeletal muscle cell A: motor neurons A calcium influx into an alpha motor neuron will cause which of the following to occur? A: The vesicles located at the end of the ​alphabet ​ha motor neuron will release acetylcholine. What do skeletal muscles require to contract? A: signal from neurons in the spinal cord incthat Which of the following is the nerve cell that sends action potentials to the muscle? A: Alpha motor neuron The action potential from the alpha motoneuron travels to the neuromuscular junction. When the action potential reaches the junction, it causes… A: the calcium ion to flow inward through specific openings called calcium channels Which of the following is true about muscle contraction? A: the process requires ATP What is the preferred method of energy for muscle contraction in regards to long-distance marathon runners? A: oxidative phosphorylation What is the preferred method of energy for muscle contraction in regards to sprinters? A: Glycolysis What must occur for muscle contraction? A: requires an electrical signal to activate the chemical processes involved in contraction Define: Primary motor cortex A: Responsible for the control and execution of voluntary movements Which muscle group must contract continually for your entire life? A: cardiac muscle You are in shopping mall and a terrorist is shooting at the customers. You jump the terrorist and begin to hit him. Which system do you use to hit him? A: skeletal muscles Which of the following is the definition for a sarcomere? A: the segment between two neighboring Z-lines How do thick and thin filaments slide past each other to cause muscle contraction? A: myosin hydrolyzes ATP to create a “power stroke” Which of the following is an example of a concentric isotonic contraction? A: Bicep curl incThe major function of skeletal muscle is which of the following? A: All the above (development of force, development of movements with acceleration, development of movements with velocity) For muscle contraction to occur, myosin pushes actin which way? A: Towards the center Which of the following muscles are under the control of the autonomic nervous system? A: smooth muscles, cardiac muscles Which of the following are the divisions of smooth muscle? A: single-unit; multi-unit smooth muscle Once the acetylcholine attaches to the acetylcholine receptor it causes a change in the membrane so that it causes _____ to rush in triggering an ______. A: Sodium ion, action potential Which of the following is an example of smooth muscle function? A: all of these are correct Which of the following is controlled by the somatic nervous system? A: Bicep Define: Primary visual cortex A: Responsible for processing information about static and moving objects and pattern recognition Actin and Myosin play a key role in the contraction of muscle. Both of these molecules are? A: Proteins Which of the following describes fibrillation? A:the cardiac cells are acting individually rather than as a whole team If you are an animal that does not move too fast and stays stationary for a long time which signal would indicate the type of muscles you have? A: 0 to 100ms (red, longer one) Which of the following are differences between skeletal and cardiac muscle?(mark all that apply) A: incModule 32: Cardiovascular Why is the major function of a cardiovascular system to maintain a pressure difference between the right and left sides of the heart A: Blood pressure difference determine blood flow Which valve is situated between the left ventricle and the pulmonary artery? A:There is no valve between the left ventricle and pulmonary artery since such a connection does not exist intestinal tract ___ represents ventricular depolarization which is usually .06 to .1 sec in duration suggesting that this depolarization occurs very fast A: QRS Complex “The anatomical and physiological union of cardiac cells” defines which of the following terms? A: Syncytium 416 The ___ is in charge of maintaining the heart’s rhythm by providing an electrical stimulus to set the rate at which cardiac muscle contracts. A: SA node Which of the following controls the diameter of the arteries? A: the autonomic nervous system Which of the following was the first species to use tools? A: Homo Habillis A point mutation may cause which of the following? A: sickle-cell anemia When do the arteries supply blood to the heart? incA: during relaxation of the heart The QRS complex represents? A: Ventricular depolarization The anatomical explanation as to why blood is redirected away from the intestinal tract (gut) and to the skeletal muscle during exercise is because? A: circulation system is in parallel Which of the following is the left AV valve which regulates blood flow between the left atrium and left ventricle? A: mitral valve Which part of the cardiovascular system has the lowest volume? A: aorta You start doing CPR on Dr. Pozos. You stop since you have to answer your cell phone. As a result of stopping CPR, what occurs? A: Stopping CPR causing major damage to the cardiac cells since these cells cannot survive without blood flow for any period of time The electrocardiogram represents? A: Cardiac muscle contraction and relaxation Which of the following can cause damage to cardiac muscle cells? A. Starting and stopping CPR When does blood from the coronary arteries flow through cardiac tissue? A: during diastole The coronary sinus is… A: a large venous channel in the heart wall that receives blood via the coronary veins and empties into the right atrium After the signal is generated from the sinoatrial node, it goes next to? A: Atrial ​ventricular​ node Once the purkinje fibers fire (depolarize) what occurs? A: Ventricular muscle contracts incWhich part of the circulatory system has the most blood? A: Venous What is the role of the right atrium? A: receive deoxygenated blood from the circulation Which of the following describes a metarteriole? A: Any of the small peripheral blood vessels that are structurally and anatomically intermediate between the arterioles and the true capillaries and that contain scattered groups of smooth muscle fibers in their walls Blood leaving the aorta goes to which organ first? A: heart The first action you do as you begin to do cpr is A: Call 911 The following definition defines which term? Any of the tendons extending from the papillary muscles to the atrioventricular valves and preventing the valves from moving into the atria during ventricular contraction A: Chordae Tendineae By which way do humans release cellular by-products to the environment? (choose 2) A: Via the lungs AND Via the Kidneys Which of the following controls the pacemaker cells? A: the autonomic nervous system ECG of a wounded soldier shows no QRS complex. The soldier complains about the pain in his leg. This data suggests that: A: ECG is not working properly Ventricular fibrillation has what kind of ECG? A: ​It does not have a normal ECG A Person was hit by a car. You are the first to find her and you take her ECG. She is complaining about pain and not having insurance. The ECG shows a straight line. This signal tells you that? A: there is something wrong with the recording system of the ECG incWhen should CPR be initiated? A: initiate CPR if the patient’s heart has stopped and is no longer beating What is the correct order of operations before the heart muscle contracts? A: 1. SA node is depolarized 2. SA signals AV node 3. AV node signals purkinje fiber 4. Purkinje fiber innervates ventricles number 5. Cardiac muscle contracts By which way do humans release cellular by-products to the environment? (choose 2) A: lungs and kidneys Which of the following VEINS contains oxygenated blood? A: pulmonary vein Blood leaves the lungs by way of which group of vessels? A: pulmonary veins When air leaves the lungs during expiration it has which of the following? A: more carbon dioxide than during inspiration Why is a major function of a cardiovascular system to maintain a pressure difference between the right and left sides of the heart? B: blood pressure difference determines blood flow Which chamber has the highest pressure? A: Left ventricle Which of the following events must occur for blood to leave the left ventricle? A: opening of the aortic valve Define: Amygdala A: A structure in your temporal lobe that helps translate signals from sensory inputs to responses in your autonomic nervous Which of the following is the left AV valve which regulates blood flow between the left atrium and left ventricle ? incMitral Valve Antidiuretic hormone which is called vasopressin is released from which structure? Brain Module 33: Blood Pressure Control Stronger muscle contraction that increases cardiac output: A: Inotropy If you have a tight tourniquet on your arm, what happens to the arterial pressure after the tourniquet? A: It will decrease At rest you notice that your heart rate is quite high. Which of the following could be occurring? A: Tachycardia Vasodilator drugs… A. a drug or chemical that relaxes the smooth muscle in blood vessels, which cause them to dilate. Dilation of arterial blood vessels (mainly arterioles) leads to a decrease in blood pressure Beta Blockers are: A: Used primarily to reduce the heart rate or force in the prevention, management, or treatment of angina, hypertension, or arrhythmias What percentage of the population suffers with high blood pressure? A: 25% Inotropism… A. The force that muscles generate at a given muscle length Your mom returns home from visiting the doctor. Her systolic pressure is 189 and her diastolic is 120. She feels fine. Your mother has? A: Hypertension Which of the following occurs after the ejection phase? incA: The aorta expands and then compresses As your heart rate increases, what happens to cardiac output? A: Goes Up According to the module, what percentage of the population suffers with high blood pressure? A: 25% Stroke Volume refers to which of the following? <br>A: Amount of blood ejected during systole from the aorta. Preload refers to which of the following? <BR>A: Amount of blood in the ventricles before contraction Afterload refers to which of the following? <br>A: Blood pressure against which the ventricles has to generate more pressure Contractility refers to which of the following? <BR>A: the force produced by the muscle for a given muscle length If you lose a lot of blood and become hypotensive, which is most affected? <br>A: preload f Which of the following is a cause of hypotension? A. all of these (loss of blod) (dehydration) (moving too quickly) ___________ decreases blood pressure by way of influencing both heart and blood vessels. <BR>A: PNS When a person loses a large amount of blood, transfusions of saline water are sometimes used. Which of the following would be directly affected? <br>A: preload Blood pressure is determined by which two factors? <BR>A: cardiac output and peripheral resistance Hypertension is a major medical problem because ? <br>A: it causes heart attacks by way of afterload incStage 2 Hypertension is defined as? <BR>A: 160/100 You are told you have high diastolic and/or systolic pressure. This is very dangerous and in most cases patients do not know the cause of their hypertension. This is called essential HT. Secondary HT is when? <br>A: The cause of hypertension is the result of a renal or endocrine disorder Low blood pressure is less dangerous than high blood pressure. <BR>A: true <p> If the blood pressure to the brain is increasing, what occurs? <br>A: Parasympathetic nervous system activation Receptors in the carotid sense blood pressure. The reason those receptors are located in the carotid arteries is because? <BR>A: Brain tissue must be constantly perfused with blood Pressure receptors in the carotid are sensitive to which of the following? <br>A: Rate of change in blood pressure A giraffe swings its head down low and up high very fast. It has a long, long neck. How does it get the blood to its brain? (only one answer makes sense.. think!!) <BR>A: It has valves in its carotid arteries to propel the blood into the brain Stronger muscle contraction that increases cardiac output: <br>A: Inotropy You notice that your blood pressure is unusually low. Which of the following should you do? Take a pressor drug Beta Blockers are: A: Used primarily to reduce the heart rate or force in the prevention, management, or treatment of angina, hypertension, or arrhythmias As your heart rate increases, what happens to cardiac output? <br>A: Goes Up According to the module, what percentage of the population suffers with high blood pressure? inc<BR>A: 25% Stroke Volume refers to which of the following? <br>A: Amount of blood ejected during systole from the aorta. Preload refers to which of the following? <BR>A: Amount of blood in the ventricles before contraction Afterload refers to which of the following? <br>A: Blood pressure against which the ventricles have to contract against > Contractility refers to which of the following? <BR>A: the force produced by the muscle for a giv​en​ muscle length <p> <B>5A:</b> If you lose a lot of blood and become hypotensive, which is most affected? <br>A: preload <p> <B>5B:</b> ___________ decreases blood pressure by way of influencing both heart and blood vessels. <BR>A: PNS <p> <B>6A:</b> When a person loses a large amount of blood, transfusions of saline water are sometimes used. These volumes of fluid will affect? <br>A: preload <p> <B>6B:</b> Blood pressure is determined by which two factors? <BR>A: cardiac output and peripheral resistance 80 preload <p> <B>7A:</b> Hypertension is a major medical problem because ? <br>A: it causes heart attacks by way of afterload <p> <B>7B:</b> Stage 2 Hypertension is defined as? A: ​160/100 incwhich of the following is a normal blood pressure reading? A: 120 systolic 80 diastolic The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for: A: NOT “fight or flight” <p> <B>8A:</b> You are told you have high diastolic and/or systolic pressure. This is very dangerous and in most cases patients do not know the cause of their hypertension. This is called essential HT. Secondary HT is when? <br>A: The cause of hypertension is the result of a real or endocrine disorder Essential Hypertension: A: Hypertension with an unknown cause. olites Which of the following is a way that hypertension can kill? A: if there is not a great difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure, there is no flow <p> <B>8B:</b> Low blood pressure is less dangerous than high blood pressure. <BR>A: true Baroreceptors… (choose two) A. are mediated by the medulla & sense changes in blood pressure If the baroreceptors are increasing their firing over normal levels, this would signify which of the following? A:Hypertension <p> <B>9A:</b> If the blood pressure to the brain is increasing, what occurs? <br>A: Parasympathetic nervous system activations A form of bacterial infection can lead to.. A. Vasodilation which leads to hypotension <p> <B>9B:</b> Receptors in the carotid sense blood pressure. The reason those receptors are located in the carotid arteries is because? <BR>A: Brain tissue must be constantly perfused with blood inc<p> <B>10A:</b> Pressure receptors in the carotid are sensitive to which of the following? <br>A: Rate of change in blood pressure <p> <B>10B:</b> A giraffe swings its head down low and up high very fast. It has a long, long neck. How A: G2 which phase does the chromosomes line up in the middle with each sister chromatid? A: metaphase Interphase is the part of the cell cycle when the cell: A. Grows by synthesizing proteins, cytoplasmic organelles, and DNA Which of the following structures separate the sister chromatids in cell division? A: Microtubules A defect exists in a cell that results in the failure of microtubules to bind kinetochores. Which of the following is the most likely result? A: ​The cell does not proceed A defect exists in a cell that results in cyclin dependent kinases that are constitutively (always) active. Which of the following is the most likely result? A: Cancerous Cells develop Homologous recombination A: Occurs during Prophase I During Prophase I of meiosis, sister chromatids pair together in a process called A: synapsis Meiosis involves __________ rounds) of DNA replication and _________ round(s) of cell division. A: one, two What are the 4 requirements for Cell Division? A: replication, segregation, cytokinesis, signal Meiotic nondisjunction can result in incA: trisomy does it get the blood to its brain? (only one answer makes sense.. think!!) <BR>A: It has valves in its carotid arteries to propel the blood into the brain <BR><BR> A football player is running to tackle the receiver. He is blind sighted by another player that hits his neck with his helmet. The injury causes damage to the brain stem - specifically the medulla oblongata. Which of the following will occur? A: The brain stem controls blood pressure. As a result of the injury, the injured player will not be able to control his blood pressure. Module 34: Capillaries Help: 1. A high oncotic pressure in the capillaries will cause which of the following? Right answer: increase in fluid in the capillaries and an decrease of fluids in the interstitial space The movement of fluid is determined by… A: Hydrostatic pressure differences In the capillaries, hydrostatic pressure is highest at which site? A: Arterial side of the capillaries The term "autoregulation" refers to which of the following? A: Blood flow to certain blood vessels remains constant independent of perfusion pressure if it (pressure)does not exceed a certain range Sinusoidal Capillaries are: A: Special forms of fenestrated capillaries that have larger openings in the epithelium allowing red blood cells and serum proteins to enter.cellular incWhich of the following describes when cellular material is carried into the cell via a vesicle? A: Transcytosis Venous pressure is… A: Always lower than the arteriole To help optimize metabolite exchange in the capillaries which of the following should be present? A: Pericytes If there is more sodium inside the cell than outside the cell, which of the forms of cellular transportation will allow sodium to enter the cell? A: Active transport An AV shunt allows blood to A: Bypass non-essential tissue to the skin In the capillaries, there are a number of pressures - where are they located? A: Hydrostatic pressures and Osmotic pressure on both sides of the capillaries: inside and outside Arteries have three layers: A: an outer layer of tissue, a muscular middle, and an inner layer of epithelial cells An AV shunt has which specific function? A: Connection between arteriole and venule that bypasses the capillary bed __________have tight junctions between endothelial cells and restrict movement of solutes through the capillaries. A: Continuous Capillaries Precapillary sphincters A: are composed of smooth muscle and are controlled by the sympathetic nervous system Precapillary sphincters control which of the following? A: Blood flow into certain parts of the capillary bed In the case of a decrease in environmental temperature, so the temperature is 0 F, which of the following occurs? incA: Precapillary sphincters to the skin constrict and direct the blood to the muscles. Which of the following may cause an increase in interstitial fluid? A:All of these There is an athlete running in a 110 F hot environment in the desert. What happens to his precapillary sphincters in his heart? A:They basically always stay open to maintain adequate oxygen to the cardiac tissue Oncotic pressure is another name for ? A: Osmotic pressure recorded in the capillary bed Which of the following has the highest mean pressure? A. arteries Which of the following are true regarding the capillaries? A. At any given time up to 20% of the capillary beds are closed Which of the following occurs when there is more oxygen in the capillary at the arteriole end vs. the amount in the interstitial space? A. Diffusion Which side of the capillary bed has the higher oncotic pressure? A: venule side Which side of the capillary bed has the highest hydrostatic pressure? A: Arterial Passive transport represents? A: Following Gradient Lymph is basically which of the following? A: Filtrate of the capillaries Lymph returns to the circulation by which route? A: Right Atrium If there is more oncotic pressure in the tissue surrounding the capillaries rather in the capillaries what will occur? incA: Fluid will flow into the tissue surrounding the capillaries _________ refers to the force exerted by the particles in solution A: Oncotic pressure The cell type in the capillaries that carries oxygen to the cells outside the capillary are? A: red blood cells Osmosis hydrates A: tissues Capillary beds are found in all of the biological entities listed below except for? A: All cells in the body must be in close proximity to capillaries Metabolites are delivered by A: Molecules The term "autoregulation" refers to which of the following? A: Blood flow to certain blood vessels remains constant independent of perfusion pressure if it (pressure)does not exceed a certain range Arteries have three layers: A: an outer layer of tissue, a muscular middle, and an inner layer of epithelial cells An AV shunt has which specific function? A: Connection between arteriole and venule that bypasses the capillary bed __________have tight junctions between endothelial cells and restrict movement of solutes through the capillaries. A: Continuous Capillaries Precapillary sphincters A: are composed of smooth muscle and are controlled by the sympathetic nervous system Precapillary sphincters control which of the following? A: Blood flow into certain parts of the capillary bed In the case of a decrease in environmental temperature, so the temperature is 0 F, which of the following occurs? incA: Precapillary sphincters to the skin constrict and direct the blood to the muscles. ;There is an athlete running in a 110 F hot environment in the desert. What happens to his precapillary sphincters in his heart? A:They basically always stay open to maintain adequate oxygen to the cardiac tissue Oncotic pressure is another name for ? A: Osmotic pressure recorded in the capillary bed Which side of the capillary bed has the higher oncotic pressure? A: venule side Which side of the capillary bed has the highest hydrostatic pressure? A: Arterial Passive transport? A: Following Gradient Lymph is basically which of the following? A: Filtrate of the capillaries Lymph returns to the circulation by which route? A: Right Atriumhigh If there is more oncotic pressure in the tissue surrounding the capillaries rather than in the capillaries what will occur? A: Fluid will flow into the tissue surrounding the capillaries _________ refers to the force exerted by the particles in solution A: Oncotic pressure The cell type in the capillaries that carries oxygen to the cells outside the capillary are? A: red blood cells Osmosis hydrates A: tissues Capillary beds are found in all of the biological entities listed below except for? A: All cells in the body must be in close proximity to capillaries incMetabolites are delivered by A: Molecules A high hydrostatic pressure on the arterial side of the capillary will cause which of the following? A: Increase of fluid in the capillary The diagram represents which of the the following facts? A: Blood flow in the capillary is controlled by what occurs on the arterial capillary and venous sites. ​Module 35: Respiration / Ventilation Q: Surrounding the alveolii are the branches of the pulmonary artery and vein. The pulmonary ​vein​ brings what kind of blood back to the heart? A: oxygenated blood ​WRONG Q: Surrounding the alveolii are the branches of the pulmonary artery and vein. The pulmonary ​artery​ brings what kind of blood back to the heart? A: The pulmonary artery does not carry blood to the heart. The pulmonary vein carries blood back to the heart from the lungs. wrong What does the diaphragm do during expiration? It generates a positive pressure The Phrenic nerve is… Both Under voluntary control and Under involuntary control Q:Why are lungs sometimes called the “second heart”? A: Cardiac output can be increased rapidly by drawing upon pulmonary blood volume without depending on an instantaneous increase in venous return incDuring inspiration, the pressure in the alveoli becomes ? A: more negative In your body, where does gas exchange occur? A: Both lungs and Capillaries You are running very fast and you notice that you are breathing faster and deeper. Which nerve controls the rate that you breathe? A: Phrenic nerve The muscle type that controls the diameter of the bronchus is? A. smooth muscle What is the correct order of route of carbon dioxide in the ventilatory system? A: 0. Pulmonary capillaries 1. Alveoli… As the diaphragm contracts, it goes _____ and creates a ____ pressure. A. lower into the abdominal cavity: negative what is the correct order of the route of ​air​ in the ventilatory system? A. 0. atmosphere, 1. nose and mouth, 2. pharynx, 3. larynx, 4. Trachea, 5. Bronchi, 6. Bronchioles, 7. Alveoli, 8. Pulmonary capillaries What is the correct order of the route of ​carbon dioxide​ in the ventilatory system? 0. Pulmonary capillaries 1. Alveoli 2. Bronchioles 3. Bronchi 4. Trachea 5. Larynx 6. Pharynx 7. Nose and mouth 8. Atmosphere What can the lung blood volume can be used for? A: reservoir of blood, and metabolic processor and filter During inspiration, which of the following happens? A: intrathoracic pressure decrease During expiration, what occurs to the diaphragm? A: The diaphragm moves into the thoracic cavity incwhat does the diaphragm do during expiration? A: it generates a positive pressure You are on the crew team and you are growing very fast. You are huffing and puffing. During this strenuous exercise, which muscles are involved in producing a positive pressure in the thoracic cavity during inspiration? A: During inspiration, the pressure in the thoracic cavity is negative- not positive. If a patient is suffering from tachypnea is the ventilation system working to its full potential? A: No, the rate of ventilation will increase and the volume of air inspired will decrease The muscle that controls the diameter of the bronchus is? A: smooth muscle If the smooth muscle contracts, what happens to the diameter of the bronchi? A: it gets smaller The lung blood volume can be used for ? A: reservoir of blood, metabolic processor and a filter. After an asthma attack, what happens to a person's airways? A: They fill with mucus A person ingests a large amount of sulfur gas that ruins his pulmonary capillary endothelial cells. The permeability of the capillary increases leading to A: permeability edema The amount of air that stays in the lungs during normal breathing is called: A: Functional Residual Volume Edema in the lungs refers to which of the following? (Think about what you've learned!) A: additional interstitial fluid When the left ventricle is having difficulty contracting, what happens in the pulmonary alveoli? A: Fluid in the capillary/alveolar space increases Ventilation is controlled by the set point which is located? A. Brain stem incThe control of ventilation is similar to the control of heart rate since? A: ventilation requires neural input and respiratory muscles cannot contract by themselves. Hence ventilation and control of heart rate are not the same. If the ventilation rate is too low it is called A: bradypnea The driving force to move blood into the pulmonary circulation from the left atrium is? A: no force is involved since this is not the correct circulation pathway. When the phrenic nerve that controls the diaphragm fires, what occurs? A: inspiration For air to enter the lungs it must go from pharynx immediately followed by? A: larynx The chemical on the inside of the alveoli that allows it to keep its round shape is? A: surfactant The phrenic nerve is? A: NOT Under involuntary control Not a trick The phrenic nerve originates from what structure in the brain which also controls ventilation rate? A: Medulla What is the normal tidal volume of an adult male? A: .5 L When the smooth muscle in the bronchi contract what happens to the amount of air reaching the alveoli? A: Decreases Pulmonary volumes refer to? A: The amount of air that can be measured to indicate the functionality of the lungs during inspiration and expiration. The term ventilation/perfusion refers to ? A: the junction of the pulmonary circulation and the alveoli incDuring inspiration, the pressure in the alveoli becomes ? A: more negative During expiration, what occurs to the diaphragm? A: The diaphragm moves into the thoracic cavity You are on the crew team and you are growing very fast. You are huffing and puffing. During this strenuous exercise, which muscles are involved in producing a positive pressure in the thoracic cavity during inspiration? A: During inspiration, the pressure in the thoracic cavity is negative- not positive. The muscle that controls the diameter of the bronchus is? A: smooth muscle If the smooth muscle contracts, what happens to the diameter of the bronchi? A: it gets smaller The lung blood volume can be used for A: reservoir of blood, metabolic processor and a filter. After an asthma attack, what happens to a person's airways? A: They fill with mucus A person ingests a large amount of sulfur gas that ruins his pulmonary capillary endothelial cells. The permeability of the capillary increases leading to A: permeability edema The amount of air that stays in the lungs during normal breathing is called: A: Functional Residual Volume Edema in the lungs refers to which of the following? (Think about what you've learned!) A: additional interstitial fluid When the left ventricle is having difficulty contracting, what happens in the pulmonary alveoli? A: Fluid in the capillary/alveolar space increases The control of ventilation is similar to the control of heart rate since? A: ventilation requires neural input and respiratory muscles cannot contract by themselves. Hence incventilation and control of heart rate are not the same. If the ventilation rate is too low it is called A: bradypnea The driving force to move blood into the pulmonary circulation from the left atrium is? A: no force is involved since this is not the correct circulation pathway. When the phrenic nerve that controls the diaphragm fires, what occurs? A: inspiration For air to enter the lungs it must go from pharynx immediately followed by? A: larynx The chemical on the inside of the alveoli that allows it to keep its round shape is? A: surfactant Pulmonary volumes refer to? A: The amount of air that can be measured to indicate the functionality of the lungs during inspiration and expiration. The term ventilation/perfusion refers to ? A: the junction of the pulmonary circulation and the alveoli A person is not breathing because the diaphragm is not contracting, what nerve could be injured? A: Phrenic Nerve Module 36: Cellular Communication Releasing hormones are located at which site(s) a. Hypothalamus What types of signals are sent from one cell to another cell? A: Extracellular signalsicai​tion which of the following is the how your mood is determined? A:neurotransmitter signal transmission incThe endocrine system is controlled by which of the following? A. Both negative and positive feedback systems The hypothalamus regulates the secretion of the pituitary hormones. These hormonal regulators control: A: All of the above (Reproduction, Growth, Metabolic rate, and Water Retention) In this diagram, what is missing in describing the control of the release of hormones? A. all of the choices are correct An anorexic friend of yours cannot conceive. She is a world class runner but she is very thin. Why can she not conceive? A: She does not have enough fat so that DNA can direct the production of FSH and LH The explanation as to why certain drugs can mimic hormones is which of the following? A: Drugs have a similar effect on the receptors of ligands Which hormone directly increases cortisol, the stress hormone? A: NOT Thyroid stimulating Cellular communication entails: A. All of the above In the absence of a ligand, a cell surface receptor is in the off position meaning that: A: This receptor is not able to propagate a signal Another name for hormones is which of the following? A: Ligands that specifically bind to unique receptors You want to increase your muscle mass and take steroids. For your muscle mass to increase, which of the following must occur? A: Steroid hormone activates select areas of DNA in the target cell to increase enzyme production to increase muscle growth Define: Neurotransmitter A. Signaling hormones released by the nervous system Cancer cells are dangerous because they A: All of these answers are correct incDefine: contact-dependent signaling A: This is a type of localized signaling in which the two communicating cells must be in physical contact Where is insulin produced? A. pancreas _________ are bound to other cellular receptors. A: ligands ___________ transmit outside information to promote a response from the cell. A: intracellular signals Within the pituitary GnRH, which is secreted from the hypothalamus, acts on cells. In response to GnRH, what hormones are secreted A: FSH and LH The following correctly illustrates the sequence of events between the sending of a signal by one cell and the response to that signal by another cell:d A: Ligand is synthesized-> Ligand is released -> Ligand is transported to the target cell -> Ligand binds to the receptor->Signaling pathway is activated Cell receptors can be located: A: Inside the cell and on the surface of a cell One of the characteristics of Acromegaly is NOT: A: wide-set eyes In order for cells to communicate, ligands are used by binding to receptors which then turns “on”, and the signaling into the target cell begins. Other than receptors, what other device can the ligands bind to in order for cell communication to start? A: They can also bind to ion channels Which cellular response would take longer to implement? A: Changes in gene expression Which receptors are expressed on which cell type is determined by: A: None of these answers are correct incA signaling pathway may consist of multiple proteins relaying a message until the signal reaches the final target protein that modifies the cellular response. What happens if cells do not have this signaling pathway? A: A cell may activate a built-in suicide program Hormones are used by the ___________system and neurotransmitters are used by the _________system. A: Endocrine and Nervous Autocrine signaling often occurs at the same time as paracrine signaling if A: the signaling cell expresses a receptor for the signaling molecule that it releases. I Signaling is triggered by: A: Binding and conformational change In the lock and key example of signal molecules, which is the lock and which is the key? A: the receptor is the lock and the signal is the key Signaling specificity is achieved by: A: Expression of specific combinations of receptors by the target cell and using specific combinations of extracellular signal molecules to generate a particular response Which of the following are hormones? (Refer to google or Wikipedia for further assistance) A: oxytocin and testosterone In molecules, shorter distance traveling is referred to as A: paracrine signaling What types of signals are sent from one cell to another cell? A: Extracellular signals Cancer cells are dangerous because they A: All of these answers are correct Which of the following are hormones? (Refer to google or Wikipedia for further assistance) A: oxytocin and testosterone _________ are bound to other cellular receptors. A: ligands inc___________ transmit outside information to promote a response from the cell. A: intracellular signals Within the pituitary GnRH, which is secreted from the hypothalamus, acts on cells. In response to GnRH, what hormones are secreted A: FSH and LH The following correctly illustrates the sequence of events between the sending of a signal by one cell and the response to that signal by another cell: A: Ligand is synthesized-> Ligand is released -> Ligand is transported to the target cell -> Ligand binds to the receptor->Signaling pathway is activated Cell receptors can be located: A: Inside the cell and on the surface of a cell One of the characteristics of Acromegaly is NOT: A: wide-set eyes In order for cells to communicate, ligands are used by binding to receptors which then turns “on”, and the signaling into the target cell begins. Other than receptors, what other device can the ligands bind to in order for cell communication to start? A: The receptors can also be ion channel Which cellular response would take longer to implement? A: Changes in gene expression Which receptors are expressed on which cell type is determined by: A: None of these answers are correct A signaling pathway may consist of multiple proteins relaying a message until the signal reaches the final target protein that modifies the cellular response. What happens if cells do not have this signaling pathway? A: A cell may activate a built-in suicide program Hormones are used by the ___________system and neurotransmitters are used by the _________system. A: Endocrine and Nervous Autocrine signaling often occurs at the same time as paracrine signaling if A: the signaling cell expresses a receptor for the signaling molecule that it releases. incSignaling is triggered by: A: Binding and conformational change In the lock and key example of signal molecules, which is the lock and which is the key? A: the receptor is the lock and the signal is the key Signaling specificity is achieved by: A: Expression of specific combinations of receptors by the target cell and using specific combinations of extracellular signal molecules to generate a particular response Which of the following are hormones? (Refer to google or Wikipedia for further assistance) A: oxytocin and testosterone In a cancer cell, it can move from one area of the body to another and starts to uncontrollably divide. Why do the cells start to divide uncontrollably? A: Either the signaling pathway is not working and the cell did not receive the A, B, and C signals to stop dividing or the cell did not receive the signals but did not want to respond to them. In molecules, shorter distance traveling is referred to as A: paracrine signaling Module 39: Hormones & Menstruation The main target organ during menstruation is which of the following? A: Uterus Define: Oxytocin A: A short polypeptide hormone released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland, that stimulates the contraction of smooth muscle incThe explanation as to why certain drugs can mimic hormones is which of the following? A. Drugs have a similar effect on the receptors of the ligands Define: GnRH A: A hormone produced by the hypothalamus that signals the anterior pituitary gland to begin secreting luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) For successful ovulation to occur, which of the following is the effector? A: Both LH and FSH e of the ​uterus​ during labor and facilitates ejection of milk from the breast during nursing Progesterone is responsible for maintaining the thick lining of the uterus, which provides an area rich in: A: Blood vessels that deliver nutrients The Menstrual cycle consists of two phases/cycles: the ovarian cycle and the uterine cycle. THese cycles are controlled by a combination of two classes of hormones. What are these two classes? A. Gonadotrophic and ovarian The Menstrual cycle consists of two phases/cycles: the ovarian cycle and the uterine cycle. THese cycles are controlled by a combination of two classes of hormones. What are these two hormones? A. LH and FSH How many days is the average length of the menstrual cycle? A: 28 The first day of menses corresponds to the late stage of the ____ phase and the start of the ____ stage in the ovarian cycle. A. Luteal, follicular A friend of yours is trying to get pregnant. She is asking you on which day(s) during her menstrual cycle would she have the greatest chance of conceiving? (Conceiving means fertilization) A. Days 12-16 <p> <B>1B:</b> _________ is created by the hypothalamus and sends signals to begin the secretion of <p> <B>2A:</b> A hormone acting on a neighboring cell is an example of _______signaling. inc<br>A: Paracrine It is 3 am and Megan is having contractions. She is going into labor and her husband Darrell is rushing her to the Hospital. Since hormones are controlled by feedback loops, which positive feedback loop is Megan most likely going through right now? A: The baby’s head is stretching the uterus and cervix signaling oxytocin. This causes contractions and moves the baby down further causing more stretching and signaling more oxytocin secretion. A hormone acting on the same cell that secreted it is an example of __________signaling.the A: Autocrine The regulation of secretion of GnRH by progesterone, estrogen, or testosterone is an example of a _______feedback loop and the regulation of oxytocin secretion by stretching of the uterus is an example of a __________feedback loop. A: Negative, positive A steroid hormone: A: All of these answers are correct (can diffuse across the cell-membrane, is formed from cholesterol, binds to receptors, regulates transcription) Negative feedback loops A: Regulate hormone levels, insure that the end product is self-limiting and are more common than positive feedback loops Which hormone stimulates the growth and maturation of the egg: A: Follicle stimulating hormone loop Why do females go through the process of the menstrual cycle? A: To prepare the uterus for pregnancy Type I diabetes mellitus occurs when A: The body does not secrete enough insulin Which is the correct definition of Autocrine? A: None of these The birth control pill A: Contains progesterone and estrogen that inhibit GnRH secretion incAlice is a sexually active 21-year-old female. She takes oral contraceptives to prevent pregnancy. Alice is a very organized person that has time schedules for everything, including when she takes her pill. Recently she went on weekend trip with a guy and forgot to take her pills with her. What toll could this have had on her body? A: Her body could have produced LH and FSH which could possibly lead to ovulation and possible pregnancy. certa Anabolic steroids A: Act by in The follicular phase causes estrogen levels to _________. A: constantly increase GnRH and LH A: Regulate reproduction and Regulate estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone levels Let us suppose that Barry Bonds has been using anabolic steroids. What are some side effects that he could potentially experience? A: all of these answers are correct Which are the 3 phases in the ovarian cycle? (select ALL that apply) A: Follicular, Luteal, Ovulation The process of luteinization causes the formation of which structure(s): A: corpus luteum Insulin: A: Is secreted from the pancreas and when secreted, causes a decrease in blood glucose levels _________ is created by the hypothalamus and sends signals to begin the secretion of LH and FSH A: GnRH A hormone acting on a neighboring cell is an example of _______signaling. A: Paracrine It is 3 am and Megan is having contractions. She is going into labor and her husband Darrell is rushing her to the Hospital. Since hormones are controlled by feedback loops, which positive feedback loop is Megan most likely going through right now? incA: The baby’s head is stretching the uterus and cervix signaling oxytocin. This causes contractions and moves the baby down further causing more stretching and signaling more oxytocin secretion. A hormone acting on the same cell that secreted it is an example of __________signaling. A: Autocrine The regulation of secretion of GnRH by progesterone, estrogen, or testosterone is an example of a _______feedback loop and the regulation of oxytocin secretion by stretching of the uterus is an example of a __________feedback loop. A: Negative, positive A steroid hormone: A: All of these answers are correct Negative feedback loops A: Regulate hormone levels, insure that the end product is self-limiting and are more common than positive feedback loops Which hormone stimulates the growth and maturation of the egg: A: Follicle stimulating hormone Why do females go through the process of the menstrual cycle? A: To prepare the uterus for pregnancy a Type I diabetes mellitus occurs when A: The body does not secrete enough insulin Which is the correct definition of Autocrine? A: None of these Define: Autocrine A. Of, relating to, promoted by, or being a substance secreted by a cell and acting on surface receptors of the same cell The birth control pill A: Contains progesterone and estrogen that inhibit GnRH secretion Oral contraceptives alter the _____ of the ______ in such a way to prevent implantation of the egg if ovulation occurs. incA. Endometrium, Uterus Alice is a sexually active 21-year-old female. She takes oral contraceptives to prevent pregnancy. Alice is a very organized person that has time schedules for everything, including when she takes her pill. Recently she went on weekend trip with a guy and forgot to take her pills with her. What toll could this have had on her body? A: Her body could have produced LH and FSH which could possibly lead to ovulation and possible pregnancy. Anabolic steroids A: Act by increasing muscle mass The follicular phase causes estrogen levels to _________. A: constantly increase GnRH and LH A: Regulate reproduction and Regulate estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone levels Let us suppose that Barry Bonds has been using anabolic steroids. What are some side effects that he could potentially experience? A: all of these answers are correct Which are the 3 phases in the ovarian cycle? (select ALL that apply) A: Follicular, Luteal, Ovulation The process of luteinization causes the formation of which structure(s): A: corpus luteum When does ovulation begin? A: 24 hours after the LH surge The endometrium increases in size under the influence of which hormone? A: both progesterone and estrogen you have an anorexic friend,... Of the dominate ovarian/pituitary hormones, which is used for the middle to late luteal phase in the uterine cycle? A: Progesterone incanswer: she does not have enough fat to produce DNA.. 0 d Module 38: Depression Depression effects how you: A: All of these. Slowed thinking while having depression is a result of… A. The illness worsening The following are symptoms of depression: A: Both sleeping too much AND not being able to sleep If there is a large amount of serotonin outside of the presynaptic nerve terminal. Which drug was taken? A: Any of these the explanation of mood swing A: IS PARTIALLY DETERMINED BY... Which of the following describes a synapse? A: A synapse is a specialized region in the nervous system through which neurons send signals Depolarization is… A: A chemical process by which a neural cell changes its electrical potential, usually negative to positive through ion exchange with the help of channels of chloride and sodium. This process is part of the synaptic transmission. The duration of a depressive episode can last for… A: All of these If serotonin plays a role in the genesis of depression, where is the site of it production? A: Neurons in the pleasure center incWhich of the following is a symptom of depression? A: Loss of interest in activities The role of genes in behavior is called… A: Behavioral genetics In a movie, you see a patient undergoing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). The patient is convulsing after therapy. In three weeks, the patient is released from the hospital. The explanation of this fact is which of the following? A: ECT causes an increase in the release of neurotransmitters It has been a week since Hector’s girlfriend broke up with him. He would rather stay home in bed amope around instead of hanging out with his friends and go surfing. Should Hector be diagnosed with clinical depression? A: No, he most likely just has the blues and will get over it in a week but if it persists longer than that, clinical depression may develop. Depression is NOT related to which of the following disorders A: acromegaly When a person is born, they are born with a blank slate and are influenced by the environment. Depression can set in once their social environment is not longer supporting them and no longer influences their behavior. Which of the psychosocial theories believe this? A: Behavioral Depression is predisposed by​… A: genetics Psychoanalytic theories of depression were based on which principle? A: Depression is caused by unconscious conflicts between human instincts Stressful life events are a cause of depression is the basis of which of the following theories?the effect of A: Environmental theories Which type of cell is the target of antidepressant drugs? A: Neuron _______ a type of antidepressant drug that extend the effect of serotonin by inhibiting the reabsorption of incserotonin by neurons. A: SSRI The presynaptic neuron releases neurotransmitters into what area? A: The synapse What do behaviorists believe in terms of depression? A: It occurs when an individual's behavior is no longer being reinforced The influx of which cation ultimately triggers neurotransmitter release? A: Ca2+ at the synaptic region Andrea has suffered from depression since her pet passed away 4 months ago. She is currently taking MAOIs to treat her depression. Andrea has been battling the flu since yesterday morning. Last night Andrea took some medicine to help her stuffy nose and coughing. What does Andrea have to be careful about? A: All of these MAOIs are used to treat depression by what mechanism? A: Blocking the breakdown of neurotransmitters. Which are associated with the effects of MAOIs? A: Three of these What are potential side effects of MAOIs? A: Both Death AND Stroke Prozac is a: A: SSRI How is signaling terminated once a neurotransmitter is released? A: All of these If one parent has a major depressive disorder what is the risk of a child having depression? A: 25-30% Depression affects how you: A: All of these. incThe following are symptoms of depression: A: Both sleeping too much AND not being able to sleep It has been a week since Hector’s girlfriend broke up with him. He would rather stay home in bed and mope around instead of hanging out with his friends and go surfing. Should Hector be diagnosed with clinical depression? A: No, he most likely just has the blues and will get over it in a week but if it persists longer than that, clinical depression may develop. Depression is NOT related to which of the following disorders A: acromegaly When a person is born, they are born with a blank slate and are influenced by the environment. Depression can set in once their social environment is not longer supporting them and no longer influences their behavior. Which of the psychosocial theories believe this? A: Behavioral WHAT IS Depression is predisposed by... A: genetics Psychoanalytic theories of depression were based on which principle? A: Depression is caused by unconscious conflicts between human instincts Stressful life events are a cause of depression is the basis of which of the following theories? A: Environmental theories Which type of cell is the target of antidepressant drugs? A: Neuron _______ a type of antidepressant drug that extend the effect of serotonin by inhibiting the reabsorption of serotonin by neurons. A: SSRI The presynaptic neuron releases neurotransmitters into what area? A: The synapse What do behaviorists believe in terms of depression? A: It occurs when an individual's behavior is no longer being reinforced inc} A: Ca2+ Andrea has suffered from depression since her pet passed away 4 months ago. She is currently taking MAOIs to treat her depression. Andrea has been battling the flu since yesterday morning. Last night Andrea took some medicine to help her stuffy nose and coughing. What does Andrea have to be careful about? A: All of these (The flu medications in combination with MAOI’s can cause her to have a stroke, heart rate increase to a high level, cause her to die, make her blood pressure to go up). MAOIs are used to treat depression by what mechanism? A: Blocking the breakdown of neurotransmitters. Which are associated with the effects of MAOIs? A: Three of these What are potential side effects of MAOIs? A: Both Death AND Stroke Prozac is a: A: SSRI How is signaling terminated once a neurotransmitter is released? A: All of these If one parent has a major depressive disorder what is the risk of a child having depression? A: 25-30% The duration of a depressive episode can last for? answer: all of these ​ ​Module 40: Innate Immune System HELP: When an antigen breaks through a mucous membrane, which set of agents will directly devour the incantigen? A:Cellular ​Agent Q: Human cells come in different sizes and shapes. Cells of the immune system protect you from the outside world. What are cells originating from white blood cells that kill infected host cells by piercing holes in the host-cell membranes called? A: Natural Killer Cells Q: Cellular injury may cause puffiness which is actually edema. Which of the following systems is altered to cause the edema? A: capillaries Our immune system constantly guards our bodies from foreign entities. However, immune defenses are complex and therefore, divided into two branches. Name these two branches. A: Innate immunity/adaptive immunity Temperatures greater than ____ degrees fahrenheit are considered dangerous A: 103 Humans and many organisms have coevolved and mutually benefit from certain activities. We have organisms living on our bodies at all times. These organisms are referred to as normal flora. What is the major component of the normal flora of humans? A: Bacteria What are the two main functions of the skin A: to keep water in, and keep microbes out. The primary defense mechanisms in the innate immune system of all animals against antigens is which of the following? A: Physical barriers such as the skin All of the following are symptoms of inflammation EXCEPT A: Obesity Which of the following causes the direct production of antibodies. A: Lymphocytes Define: Microbe A: A microorganism, especially a bacterium that causes disease incIn our first line of defense, skin keeps microbes out on the surface by providing a nearly impenetrable physical barrier. In addition, it produces a powerful hydrolytic enzyme that keeps microbes away. What is the name of this enzyme? A: Lysozyme Viruses such as the flu virus can enter through the respiratoy tract so cells of the lining of the respiratory tract secrete sticky mucus that trap microbes before they can reach the lungs. What do we call the organelles found along these lining and responsible for guarding and removing these microbes? A: Cilia There are clear symptoms observed in infected individuals. For instance, those who contract H1N1 are said to suffer from elevated temperatures immediately. What is the first response to any infection? A: An inflammatory response The innate g system consists of which of the following? A: White blood cells B cells in the immune system originate directly from? A: Lymphocytes The inflammatory response is carefully controlled and mediated by many biological factors because if it malfunctions, it can damage healthy tissue. Name the most common manifestation of infection and inflammation. A: A fever Cells of the innate immune system are phagocytes and natural killer cells. What is the main difference between these types of cells? A: NK cells do not kill invading microbes, but infected host cells Our innate immune system has the ability to protect us from pathogenic organisms. One method of protection is the killing of microbes by ingesting them. What is this process called? A: Phagocytosis Dendritic cells are long lived phagocytic cells and reside in an immature state in most tissues, where they recognize and phagocytize pathogens and other antigens. What else is true about these cells? A: They are involved in both innate and adaptive immunity responses incDefine an antigen. A: A chemical substance capable of stimulating an immune response The immune system is composed of two branches. They are very successful at proving critical defenses against pathogenic microbes. What is a key characteristic of the innate immune branch​? A: Its defenses are considered non-specific The lysozyme removes most bacteria in our foods through the saliva in our mouth, how does it do this? A: It protects us against infection by breaking down the polysaccharide walls of different bacteria. Many different cells constitute the immune system. However, they all arise from a common early precursor cell that also produces red blood cells. What do we call these cells? A: Hematopoietic stem cell Most microorganisms are not pathogenic and coexist with humans. However, a small percentage of these microbes can be lethal. What is a classic example of a disease caused by a protozoan? A: Malari What is the purpose of secondary metabolites produced by normal flora in your body? A: To inhibit adhesion, and growth of the certain microbes What is the largest organ in the human body and what is its function? A: The skin and serves as a barrier The human body has developed mechanisms to deal with undesired microorganisms. These normal processes are utilized effectively to remove pathogens. Give an example of such mechanisms employed by our bodies. A: Vomiting Fever contributes to your body’s defenses by creating: A: A temperature that is less favorable for microbial growth The immune system is run by a very effective network of cells derived from lymphoid organs. What are the primary lymphoid organs? A: Thymus and bone marrow Our immune system is able to recognize a variety of antigens and quickly neutralizes them. However, the immune system can also break down causing a broad array of diseases such as autoimmune disorders. What is the fundamental cause for this problem? A: The immune system loses the ability to recognize itself incHuman cells come in different sizes and shapes. Cells of the immune system protect you from the outside world. What are cells originating from white blood cells that kill infected host cells by piercing holes in the host-cell membranes called? A: Natural Killer Cells Our immune system constantly guards our bodies from foreign entities. However, immune defenses are complex and therefore, divided into two branches. Name these two branches.functions A: Innate immunity/adaptive immunity Humans and many organisms have coevolved and mutually benefit from certain activities. We have organisms living on our bodies at all times. These organisms are referred to as normal flora. What is the major component of the normal flora of humans? first A: Bacteria In our first line of defense, skin keeps microbes out on the surface by providing a nearly impenetrable physical barrier. In addition, it produces a powerful hydrolytic enzyme that keeps microbes away. What is the name of this enzyme? A: Lysozyme Viruses such as the flu virus can enter through the respiratory tract so cells of the lining of the respiratory tract secrete sticky mucus that trap microbes before they can reach the lungs. What do we call the organelles found along these lining and responsible for guarding and removing these microbes? A: Cilia There are clear symptoms observed in infected individuals. For instance, those who contract H1N1 are said to suffer from elevated temperatures immediately. What is the first response to any infection A: An inflammatory response The inflammatory response is carefully controlled and mediated by many biological factors because if it malfunctions, it can damage healthy tissue. Name the most common manifestation of infection and inflammation. A: A fever The innate immune system consists of the following A. White blood cells Cells of the innate immune system are phagocytes and natural killer cells. What is the main difference between these types of cells? incA: NK cells do not kill invading microbes, but infected host cells Define: Innate immune system A: comprises the cells and mechanisms that defend the host from infection by other organisms Define: Antigen A. A chemical substance capable of stimulating an immune response Our innate immune system has the ability to protect us from pathogenic organisms. One method of protection is the killing of microbes by ingesting them. What is this process called? A: Phagocytosis Dendritic cells are long lived phagocytic cells and reside in an immature state in most tissues, where they recognize and phagocytize pathogens and other antigens. What else is true about these cells? A: They are involved in both innate and adaptive immunity responses Define an antigen. A: A chemical substance capable of stimulating an immune response The immune system is composed of two branches. They are very successful at proving critical defenses against pathogenic microbes. What is a key characteristic of the innate immune branch? A: Its defenses are considered non-specific The lysozyme removes most bacteria in our foods through the saliva in our mouth, how does it do this? A: It protects us against infection by breaking down the polysaccharide walls of different bacteria. Many different cells constitute the immune system. However, they all arise from a common early precursor cell that also produces red blood cells. What do we call these cell A: Hematopoietic stem cell Most microorganisms are not pathogenic and coexist with humans. However, a small percentage of these microbes can be lethal. What is a classic example of a disease caused by a protozoan? A: malaria What is the purpose of secondary metabolites produced bzymey normal flora in your body? A: To inhibit adhesion, and growth of the certain microbes What is the largest organ in the human and body and what is its function? A: The skin and serves as a barrier incWhen an infection is persistent, it will cause which of the following? A. All of the above The human body has developed mechanisms to deal with undesired microorganisms. These normal processes are utilized effectively to remove pathogens. Give an example of such mechanisms employed by our bodies. A: Vomiting The immune system is run by a very effective network of cells derived from lymphoid org many dans. What are the primary lymphoid organs? A: Thymus and bone marrow Our immune system is able to recognize a variety of antigens and quickly neutralizes them. However, the immune system can also break down causing a broad array of diseases such as autoimmune disorders. What is the fundamental cause for this problem? A: The immune system loses the ability to recognize itself Module 43: Adaptive Immune System Innate immunity and adaptive immunity have a close relationship in order to carefully defend you from pathogens. However, they play different roles in the process. What is a key feature of adaptive immunity? A: Its ability to recognize specific pathogens This is one direct weapon used by microbes against the adaptive immune system. A: Antigen Shifting If a patient is radiated and loses her antibodies, what happens to the antigens in her body?of the i A: Increase Who is known as the “father of immunology”? A. Edward Jenner incWhat is the function of cytotoxic T-Cells? A. Bind and kill infected host cells that are displaying the specific antigen by punching holes in their cell membranes Blood is a medium of transportation for cells of the immune system. What percentage of circulating lymphocytes can be found in the peripheral blood? A: 20-50% What is the relationship between the circulatory system and the immune system? A: Cells of the immune system use the circulatory system as a medium to patrol the body Blood is a medium of transportation for cells of the immune system. What percentage of circulating lymphocytes can be found in the peripheral blood? A: 20–50% An immature B-lymphocyte is stimulated to maturity when an antigen binds to its surface receptors initially releasing a ​AV​cytokine. What is this referring to? A: Humoral immunity In the ABO blood typing system, when an A antigen is present (in a person of blood type A), the body produces: A: An anti-B antibody the adaptive immune system differs from the innate immune system in that… A: it has cellular memory of various antigens Three elements that allow the adaptive immune system to be a successful protector are: A: Specificity, adaptiveness and memory Antibodies are also called immunoglobins and constitute part of the blood proteins. How do antibodies work? A: all of the above Cells of the immune system undergo maturation, division, and differentiation in different organs. Where does further division take place? A: Secondary lymphoid organs The spleen belongs to the secondary peripheral lymphoid organs and it is found in the upper left quadrant incof the human abdomen. It also weighs about 150 grams, a rather small organ. What is the function of the spleen? A: In addition to stimulating an immune response, it filters the blood to remove abnormal red cells and invading microorganisms The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) proteins act as signposts that display fragmented pieces of an antigen on the host cell's surface. These antigens may be self or nonself. What action is taken if these antigens are recognized as self? A: No action is taken in healthy individuals The adaptive immune system uses various strategies to kill attacking microbes. Two of these mechanisms are cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity. What is cell-mediated immunity? A: Refers to macrophages engulfing antigens, and displaying parts of them on their surface There are two types of white blood cells that comprise the adaptive immune system. These cells can remember the microbes they encounter by recognizing very specific cell surface markers on those microbes. What are these cells? A: T-cells and B-cells B cell receptors can be bound to the surface of the B-cell or secreted into the bloodstream. B-cell receptors are also known as antibodies. What are antibodies? A: A receptor or protein that will bind a specific antigen on the surface of a microbe A Y-shaped molecule composed of two identical light chains (short in the outer structure) and two identical heavy chains (long). They are extremely specific when binding to antigens. What is this molecule? A: B-cell receptor Australian immunologist Frank Macfarlane Burnet developed a theory about cells of the immune system. It describes how the adaptive immune system is able to develop memory. What is the main concept of this theory? A: It describes the cloning of two types of lymphocytes, one clone combats infection immediately, while the other is longer lasting The word antibody comes from the German word antikörper. Antibodies are highly specialized molecules able to recognize a broad range of antigens. Where do they come from? A: A specialized plasma cell How come we use vaccines against viruses and not antibiotics? incA: Vaccines can prevent a disease by virtue of adaptive immunity while antibiotics interfere with metabolic processes that exist in bacteria, but not in viruses A lymphocyte is a critical component of our immune system. What is a Lymphocyte? A: A type of white blood cell The immune system is made out of a team of cells distributed throughout the body, but these cells can be found in pockets of tissue where they mature and circulate in a vigilant mode. In addition, during infection this organ expands due to B-cell proliferation. Name this organ. A: Lymph node A typical term used by epidemiologists is herd immunity. What is herd immunity? A: It provides protection to unvaccinated individuals by virtue of most individuals been immune to a disease During the cell developing process T and B cell clones that would respond to self-antigens are eliminated or suppressed. What is this proper procedure known as? A: Natural immunological tolerance Name one direct weapon used by microbes against the adaptive immune system. A: Antigen shifting We have seen a large number of individuals develop allergies over the past 30 years in the US. What are allergies? A: An exaggerated immune response to a harmless antigen to environmental triggers Innate immunity and adaptive immunity have a close relationship in order to carefully defend you from pathogens. However, they play different roles in the process. What is a key feature of adaptive immunity? A: Its ability to recognize specific pathogens What is the relationship between the circulatory system and the immune system? A: Cells of the immune system use the circulatory system as a medium to patrol the body Blood is a medium of transportation for cells of the immune system. What percentage of circulating lymphocytes can be found in the peripheral blood? A: 20–50% Three elements that allow the adaptive immune system to be a successful protector are: A: Specificity, adaptiveness and memory incCells of the immune system undergo maturation, division, and differentiation in different organs. Where does further division take place? A: Secondary lymphoid organs The spleen belongs to the secondary peripheral lymphoid organs and it is found in the upper left quadrant of the human abdomen. It also weighs about 150 grams, a rather small organ. What is the function of the spleen? A: In addition to stimulating an immune response, it filters the blood to remove abnormal red cells and invading microorganismsb-cells The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) proteins act as signposts that display fragmented pieces of an antigen on the host cell's surface. These antigens may be self or nonself. What action is taken if these antigens are recognized as self? A: No action is taken in healthy individuals The adaptive immune system uses various strategies to kill attacking microbes. Two of these mechanisms are cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity. What is cell-mediated immunity? A: Refers to macrophages engulfing antigens, and displaying parts of them on their surface There are two types of white blood cells that comprise the adaptive immune system. These cells can remember the microbes they encounter by recognizing very specific cell surface markers on those microbes. What are these cells? A: T-cells and B-cells B cell receptors can be bound to the surface of the B-cell or secreted into the bloodstream. B-cell receptors are also known as antibodies. What are antibodies? A: A receptor or protein that will bind a specific antigen on the surface of a microbe A Y-shaped molecule composed of two identical light chains (short in the outer structure) and two identical heavy chains (long). They are extremely specific when binding to antigens. What is this molecule? A: B-cell receptor Australian immunologist Frank Macfarlane Burnet developed a theory about cells of the immune system. It describes how the adaptive immune system is able to develop memory. What is the main concept of this theory? A: It describes the cloning of two types of lymphocytes, one clone combats infection immediately, while the other is longer lasting incThe word antibody comes from the German word antikörper. Antibodies are highly specialized molecules able to recognize a broad range of antigens. Where do they come from? A: A specialized plasma cell How come we use vaccines against viruses and not antibiotics? A: Vaccines can prevent a disease by virtue of adaptive immunity while antibiotics interfere with metabolic processes that exist in bacteria, but not in viruses Why do we use vaccines against viruses and not antibiotics? A:Vaccines can prevent a disease by virtue of adaptive immunity while antibiotics interfere with metabolic processes that exist in bacteria, but not in viruses. A lymphocyte is a critical component of our immune system. What is a Lymphocyte? A: A type of white blood cell The immune system is made out of a team of cells distributed throughout the body, but these cells can be found in pockets of tissue where they mature and circulate in a vigilant mode. In addition, during infection this organ expands due to B-cell proliferation. Name this organ. A: Lymph node Why would the immune system not be able to function without cytokines? A: due to signaling and cell coordination Hello! This feedback loop is incorrect. Please fix it. It shows a positive feedback loop when it should show a negative one. A: Increase A typical term used by epidemiologists is herd immunity. What is herd immunity? A: It provides protection to unvaccinated individuals by virtue of most individuals been immune to a disease two of the greates During the cell developing process T and B cell clones that would respond to self-antigens are eliminated or suppressed. What is this proper procedure known as? A: Natural immunological tolerance Name one direct weapon used by microbes against the adaptive immune system. A: Antigen shifting incWe have seen a large number of individuals develop allergies over the past 30 years in the US. What are allergies? A: An exaggerated immune response to a harmless antigen to environmental triggers The adaptive immune system has mechanisms to kill antigens which are? A: Both B cell and T cell activation a re fundamental methods When does the immune system... A: when the immune system attacks its own body Define: Herd Immunity A: Occurs when vaccination of the majority of a population protects the unvaccinated individuals because there are so few individuals who can actually spread the disease. Module 44: Infectious Disease There are many STDs and they are common among teenagers globally. A common STD is pubic lice or crabs. Name the pathogen that causes this disease. A: A parasite (Phthirus pubis) What method of vaccination is specific to the antigen for which the immunization is given? A: Active artificial Which is the correct order for the transmission of infectious disease?in A. source-> means of transmission-> susceptible host Define: Endemic A: disease usually found in a particular people or country Respiratory diseases are commonly acquired by contact with: A: Aerosolized droplets ​If you cut yourself accidentally, what happens to the Staphylococcus on your skin? A: all of the above The main tool used to diagnose infectious diseases is microbiological culture. A sample is taken from incpotentially diseased tissue or fluid and tested for the presence of an infectious agent. Name the medium used to grow most pathogenic bacteria. A: A nutrient called A​g​ar Infectious disease gets its name since A: They are easily transmitted from one person to another The isolation of enzymes from infected tissue can provide: A: The basis of a biochemical diagnosis of an infectious disease. infectious diseases can be Some infectious diseases are transmitted directly from one individual to another. What do we call an agent that facilitates this transfer? A: A vector Opportunistic diseases are typically caused by microbes that are in contact with the host. For instance, they are responsible for killing AIDS patients. These microbes belong to an opportunistic agent group. What is the other important group called? A: Primary pathogens Infectious diseases can be described as a human illness caused by the presence of: A: all of the above Infectious diseases are spread throughout the world. Name the agents responsible for causing human illnesses. A: Pathogenic Microbial Agents Sexually transmitted diseases are very successful at spreading from one person to another. Name one important reason for this fact. A: Mucous membranes differ from skin in that they allow certain pathogens into the body How does the human body protect itself from viruses and other disease causing agents found in planet earth? A: Innate immunity and adaptive immunity If you cut yourself accidently, what happens to the staphylococcus on your skin? A: All of the above All infectious disease cause illness by the same mechanism which is which of the following? incA: Decreasing white blood cell count The most deadly STD is HIV, but many other viruses can be deadly. Name the most common sexually transmitted infection. A: Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Microbes have developed an array of weapons to be able to go from host to host. These virulent factors are divided into several groups, but one important group is the one produced by bacteria. Name the subgroups within this bacterial group. A: Endotoxins and Exotoxins Bacteria use a variety of mechanisms to take control over its host. One mechanism is the production of toxins. A specific toxin produced by certain type of bacteria is the lipopolysaccharide (LPS). What type of toxin is LPS? A: Endotoxin In order to avoid the spread of infectious diseases several measurements can be taken? Washing you​r hands prior to eating is a good way of preventing the spread of flu viruses. Name an important method for avoiding H. Pylori. A: Making sure your food and water come from clean sources Some molecules secreted by microbes allow them to attach to their host or to evade the host’s defense mechanism. What do we called these molecules? A: Virulence factors Over the past 100 years our society has made great advances in the discovery and implementation of medications such as antibiotics. However, we have had a rise in bacterial resistance. Name one of the most important reasons for this problem. A: Overuse of antibiotics Which is the correct order for means of transmission? Source-Means of transmission- susceptible host The construction of new villages and housing developments in rural areas forces animals to live in dense populations and creates opportunities for microbes to mutate generating what type of microbes? A: Superbugs following the antigenic shift theory In 2009, The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention announced the threat of a new virus. The WHO declared it a pandemic in the early summer of 2009? What pathogen was described? incA: H1N1 Swine flu was declared a pandemic sometime in June of 2009. This virus had extended the globe rapidly. Many countries were taking serious precautions such as checking body temperatures at airports and quarantined all those individuals with temperatures higher than 100 degrees F. Identified were the only two known antivirals effective for treatment: A: Zanamivir & Tamiflu Most people with HPV do not develop symptoms, but certain types of HPV can cause: A: all of the above Two of the greatest discoveries of the 20th Century was the discovery of the enzyme lysozyme in 1923 which we use to protect our bodies from bacteria, and the discovery of an antibiotic substance known as penicillin from the fungus Penicillium notatum in 1928. Who was responsible for these achievements? A: Alexander Fleming What specific term refers to the genetic strain that enables a flu strain to jump from one animal species to another, including humans? A: Antigenic shift A retrovirus known as Human Immunodeficiency Virus causes AIDS. What is HIV considered? A: A Pandemic Disease Sir Alexander Fleming was a Scottish biologist and pharmacologist. Fleming published many articles on bacteriology, immunology and chemotherapy. What is he known for? A: Discovery of penicillin There are many STDs and they are common among teenagers globally. A common STD is pubic lice or crabs. Name the pathogen that causes this disease. A: A parasite (Phthirus pubis) The main tool used to diagnose infectious diseases is microbiological culture. A sample is taken from potentially diseased tissue or fluid and tested for the presence of an infectious agent. Name the medium used to grow most pathogenic bacteria. A: A nutrient called Agar Some infectious diseases are transmitted directly from one individual to another. What do we call an agent that facilitates this transfer? A: A vector incOpportunistic diseases are typically caused by microbes that are in contact with the host. For instance, they are responsible for killing AIDS patients. These microbes belong to an opportunistic agent group. What is the other important group called? A: Primary pathogens Infectious diseases are spread throughout the world. Name the agents responsible for causing human illnesses. A: Pathogenic Microbial Agents Sexually transmitted diseases are very successful at spreading from one person to another. Name one important reason for this fact. A: Mucous membranes differ from skin in that they allow certain pathogens into the body How does the human body protect itself from viruses and other disease causing agents found in planet earth? A: Innate immunity and adaptive immunity The most deadly STD is HIV, but many other viruses can be deadly. Name the most common sexually transmitted infection. A: Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Microbes have developed an array of weapons to be able to go from host to host. These virulent factors are divided into several groups, but one important group is the one produced by bacteria. Name the subgroups within this bacterial group. A: Endotoxins and Exotoxins Bacteria use a variety of mechanisms to take control over its host. One mechanism is the production of toxins. A specific toxin produced by certain type of bacteria is the lipopolysaccharide (LPS). What type of toxin is LPS? A: Endotoxin In order to avoid the spread of infectious diseases several measurements can be taken? Washing your hands prior to eating is a good way of preventing the spread of flu viruses. Name an important method for avoiding H. Pylori. A: Making sure your food and water come from clean sources Some molecules secreted by microbes allow them to attach to their host or to evade the host’s defense mechanism. What do we called these molecules? incA: Virulence factors Over the past 100 years our society has made great advances in the discovery and implementation of medications such as antibiotics. However, we have had a rise in bacterial resistance. Name one of the most important reasons for this problem. A: Overuse of antibiotics The construction of new villages and housing developments in rural areas forces animals to live in dense populations and creates opportunities for microbes to mutate generating what type of microbes? A: Superbugs following the antigenic shift theory In 2009, The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention announced the threat of a new virus. The WHO declared it a pandemic in the early summer of 2009? What pathogen was described? A: H1N1 Swine flu was declared a pandemic sometime in June of 2009. This virus had extended the globe rapidly. Many countries were taking serious precautions such as checking body temperatures at airports and quarantined all those individuals with temperatures higher than 100 degrees F. Identified were the only two known antivirals effective for treatment: A: Zanamivir & Tamiflu Two of the greatest discoveries of the 20th Century was the discovery of the enzyme lysozyme in 1923 which we use to protect our bodies from bacteria, and the discovery of an antibiotic substance known as penicillin from the fungus Penicillium notatum in 1928. Who was responsible for these achievements? A: Alexander Fleming What specific term refers to the genetic strain that enables a flu strain to jump from one animal species to another, including humans? A: Antigenic shift A retrovirus known as Human Immunodeficiency Virus causes AIDS. What is HIV considered? A: A Pandemic Disease Sir Alexander Fleming was a Scottish biologist and pharmacologist. Fleming published many articles on bacteriology, immunology and chemotherapy. What is he known for? A: Discovery of penicillin Opportunistic pathogens are organisms that cause an infections disease to an immunocompromised host. Which would be an example of this type of host? (Mark all that apply) incA: A newborn, the elderly and a sick person Define: Virulence A: The relative capacity of a pathogen to overcome body defense. Module 43: HIV / AIDS A virus can reproduce outside a host cell if: A: a virus can never reproduce outside a host cell Which of the following individuals should be tested for HIV? A. Joe, who uses intravenous steroids Which of the following does the HIV virus have: A: Capsid What is the function of Reverse Transcriptase? A: To make a DNA copy of the viral RNA. Infectious diseases can be described as human illness caused by the presence of: A: all of the above _________ on the HIV virus attaches to ______on the host cell . A: gp120, CD4 In all experiments, including clinical trials, a control needs to be used to determine if the experimental conditions are effective. In the clinical trial you read about testing the effectiveness of Metformin in reducing the development of Type II diabetes, what was the control? (According to Dr. Stone's Science and You) A: The inactive placebo. Thinking back to your previous lectures, which of the following would allow the HIV virus to change in such a way that it would become resistant to an antiretroviral drug?(According to Dr. Stone's Science and You) A: Mutation incPatients with advanced HIV infection are vulnerable to opportunistic infections because of: A: A depletion of CD4+ T-cells A patient comes into the doctor’s office for a routine check-up. A blood test reveals that the patient is HIV positive. However, the patient is experiencing no major signs of illness. The patient is in what stage of HIV infection. A: Clinically asymptomatic stage Sally is an HIV patient. She goes to the doctor’s because she is having trouble breathing. Her CD4 test show that her CD4 cell count is 150 cells per microliter. Sally is in what stage of HIV infection? A: Clinical AIDS James is concerned about his health and goes to the doctor to get an HIV test done. The doctor informs James that the test takes two to three weeks to receive the results at it screens for HIV DNA. James is most likely having which test done? A: PCR test For HIV to reproduce, which of the following is most critical?HI​V A: Taking over the function of DNA in the cell Which of the following is the DNA form of a retrovirus incorporated into a host’s cell in the nucleus? A: Provirus Which of the following describes a combination therapy? A: A drug cocktail-or-combination of antiviral drugs given to HIV infected people since they can be more effective than when given individually hiv i Which of the following is a way to prevent against HIV transmission? A: All of these While working on a cure for HIV a machine explodes and the virus seeps into a cut on one of the researcher​’s​ hands. Which of the following tests will give the quickest results? A: PCR test, 2-3 weeks In this feedback loop, what is going to trigger an increase in HIV inside those affected? A: HIV HIV is a virus which has the following characteristic? A: It takes over the DNA of the host cell which subsequently by way of transcription and translation incmakes new virus Buddy wakes up one morning and discovers a rash on his body. His doctor is surprised he has this because it is not normally found in young individuals. A HIV test reveals that Buddy is HIV positive and his CD4 cell count is around 500. What stage of HIV infection is Buddy in? A: Symptomatic HIV infection Which of the following stages is an HIV patient in who has a short flu-like illness? A: Primary HIV infection Harry engaged in risky activity that may have lead to exposure to HIV. Two and a half weeks later, he had an HIV test done and it showed a positive result. Which test most likely was done? A: PCR test HIV patient Shirley is taking an anti-retroviral drug. After a few months, the drug stops working. Why is this? A: HIV mutated and became resistant to the drug How does an Integrase inhibitor work against the HIV virus? A: It prevents viral DNA domfrom being inserted into host DNA. A patient takes a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor for HIV treatment. How does this drug work? A: prevents viral DNA being made from the viral RNA How does a Protease inhibitor work to treat HIV infection? A: It prevents the release of new viral particles. A nurse in the hospital is checking on a HIV patient. While she was examining the patient, the patient coughs, and some spit lands on her hand. Was HIV transmitted to the nurse? A: No, HIV cannot be transmitted through spit and the skin HIV is transmitted through: A: sexual contact, blood, and pregnancy An HIV infected person is in the asymptomatic stage. Because tncing no symptoms and are on multiple antiretroviral treatments, they go on to have unprotected sex. Does this person still remain infectious? A: Yes which of the following stages is an hiv patient HIV is known as a retrovirus because A: RNA is synthesized to DNA incWhich of the following stages is a HIV patient in who has opportunistic diseases and cancers that the immune system normally prevent? A: Symptomatic HIV infection Which of the following stages is an HIV patient in who has a large number of severe opportunistic infections? Clinical AIDS Sally is HIV positive and Wally is not. Sally accidently cut Wally’s gum with her braces while they were french kissing. Is it possible for Wally to become infected with HIV? A: Yes any exposure to HIV infected blood spreads infection A virus can reproduce outside a host cell if: A: a virus can never reproduce outside a host cell Which of the following does the HIV virus have: A: Capsid What is the function of Reverse Transcriptase? A: To make a DNA copy of the viral RNA. _________ on the HIV virus attaches to ______on the host cell . A: gp120, CD4 In all experiments, including clinical trials, a control needs to be used to determine if the experimental conditions are effective. In the clinical trial you read about testing the effectiveness of Metformin in reducing the development of Type II diabetes, what was the control? (According to Dr. Stone's Science and You) A: The inactive placebo. Thinking back to your previous lectures, which of the following would allow the HIV virus to change in such a way that it would become resistant to an antiretroviral drug?(According to Dr. Stone's Science and You) A: Mutation Patients with advanced HIV infection are vulnerable to opportunistic infections because of: A: A depletion of CD4+ T-cells incA patient comes into the doctor’s office for a routine check-up. A blood test reveals that the patient is HIV positive. However, the patient is experiencing no major signs of illness. The patient is in what stage of HIV infection. A: Clinically asymptomatic stage Sally is an HIV patient. She goes to the doctor’s because she is having trouble breathing. Her CD4 test show that her CD4 cell count is 150 cells per microliter. Sally is in what stage of HIV infection. A: Clinical AIDS Buddy wakes up one morning and discovers a rash on his body. His doctor is surprised he has this because it is not normally found in young individuals. A HIV test reveals that Buddy is HIV positive and his CD4 cell count is around 500. What stage of HIV infection is Buddy in? A: Symptomatic HIV infection Why does an HIV+ patients’ immune system become weakened? A: The HIV virus infects and kills ‘Helper’ T-cells HIV can be lethal since it does which of the following? A: Promotes the collapse of the adaptive immune system Harry engaged in risky activity that may have lead to exposure to HIV. Two and a half weeks later, he had an HIV test done and it showed a positive result. Which test most likely was done? A: PCR test Shirley is taking on anti-retroviral drug. After a few months, the drug stops working. Why is this? A: HIV mutated and became resistant to the drug How does an Integrase inhibitor work against the HIV virus? A: It prevents viral DNA from being inserted into host DNA. A patient takes a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor for HIV treatment. How does this drug work? A: prevents viral DNA from being made from the viral RNA How does a Protease inhibitor work to treat HIV infection? A: It prevents the release of new viral particles. A nurse in the hospital is checking on a HIV patient. While she was examining the patient, the patient coughs, and some spit lands on her hand. Was HIV transmitted to the nurse? A: No, HIV cannot be transmitted through spit and the skin incHIV is transmitted through: A: sexual contact, blood, and pregnancy An HIV infected person is in the asymptomatic stage. Because they are experiencing no symptoms and are on multiple antiretroviral treatments, they go on to have unprotected sex. Does this person still remain infectious? A: Yes HIV is known as a retrovirus because A: RNA is synthesized to DNA Sally is HIV positive and Wally is not. Sally accidently cut Wally’s gum with her braces while they were french kissing. Is it possible for Wally to become infected with HIV? A: Yes any exposure to HIV infected blood ​spreads​ infection any exposure to HIV infected blood spreads infection Module 44: Drug Addiction Which of the following areas are affected when someone has a drug addiction? A. All of these Often drug development is carried out by pharmaceutical companies, whose main interest is to make a huge profit. Who is responsible for making sure these drugs are safe before they are put on the market? A: Food and Drug Administration the mesolimbic system is responsible for… A. the feelings of reward Jake uses adderall medication to treat his ADHD. Scotts stole some of Jake’s medication to use for an exam. Which of the following describes Scott’s behavior? A: drug addiction- ​Wrong​! Correct answer: drug abuse Which of the following areas are impacted when someone has a drug addiction? incA: All of the​se Drugs have their effects on target cells by affecting which of the following? A: Receptors on cells in the pleasure centers of the brain Which of the following is NOT the correct way to use any type of medicine? A: To experience its psychoactive effects How are homo sapiens motivated to perform certain behaviors? A: the release of dopamine in the reward center of the brain Antonio uses Adderall medication to treat his ADHD. Scott stole some of Antonio’s medication so he could study for an exam. Which of the following best describes Scott’s behavior relative to his incident. A: Drug abuse Which of the following is a structure that alcohol effects after prolonged exposure? A: stomach The most commonly abused set of drugs in the USA are which of the following? A: prescription drugs While playing baseball Johnny is hit in the shoulder with a baseball bat. Which of the following drugs can be used to block the pain? A. Morphine Which of the following contributes to a good drug rehabilitation program? A. All of these Lil C had a wild night out. He felt like he was going a million miles an hour and had a euphoric feeling all night. Lil C mostly likely took what type of drug? A: Stimulants Depressants and narcotics are called downers because they share similarities in the way they affect the brain. What is their main difference? A: Narcotics can serve as painkillers ______ is the key player in the reward system of the brain. A: Dopamine incHallucinogens are well known for their ability to alter reality, but they also share similarities with stimulants. How are they similar? A: Speed up the CNS Drug abuse usually follows 4 steps of drug use. This is known as the spectrum of psychoactive drugs. What 4 steps are part of this spectrum? A: Beneficial, casual, problematic, chronic dependence While the different classes of drugs have different targets in the brain, all classes of drugs will A: increase dopamine release The main neurotransmitter in the reward system of the brain is A: Dopamine Dopamine neurons are activated in order to activate the reward pathway. Examples are eating something yummy such as cake and cookies. What explains this situation? A: Reward system is used to promote the learning of adaptive behavior that enables survival. Cocaine leads to positive reinforcement to the reward system in the brain because it: A: Blocks dopamine reuptake Billy ingests a couple of ecstasy pills. He will start to feel the effects in A: an hour or so The rate at which a drug is distributed in the body depends on: A: all of these Why is an intravenous injection of drugs the fastest way to overdose? A: Because the concentration of the drug builds up so quickly in the brain due to the presence of the drug in the capillaries which then affects neurons A period of medical treatment, usually including a 9-12 step program, during which a person is helped to overcome physical and psychological dependence on alcohol or drugs is known as part of the __________ process. A: ​Detoxification What syndrome is characterized by signs and symptoms that appear when a drug addict suddenly discontinues or decreases the drug dose? A: Withdrawal incf Which of the following is classified as a depressant? A. A beer Drug addiction is defined as A: pathological condition in which one compulsively uses a drug, despite its negative effects Drug abuse can have some drastic consequences that can lead to death. What are other consequences of drug abuse? A: All of these T/F Drug use during pregnancy not only leads to detrimental effects to the baby, but withdrawal symptoms as well. A: True In accordance to the spectrum of psychoactive drug use, which of the following scenarios would be considered problematic use? A: All of these Several factors influence how drug users experience the drug effects. However, the 4 more important factors are: A: Pharmacological, cultural, social, and contextual Often drug development is carried out by pharmaceutical companies, whose main interest is to make a huge profit. Who is responsible for making sure these drugs are safe before they are put on the market? A: Food and Drug Administration Lil C had a wild night out. He felt like he was going a million miles an hour and had a euphoric feeling all night. Lil C mostly likely took what type of drug? A: Stimulants Depressants and narcotics are called downers because they share similarities in the way they affect the brain. What is their main difference? A: Narcotics can serve as painkillers ______ is the key player in the reward system of the brain. A: Dopamine Hallucinogens are well known for their ability to alter reality, but they also share similarities with incstimulants. How are they similar? A: Speed up the CNS Drug abuse usually follows 4 steps of drug use. This is known as the spectrum of psychoactive drugs. What 4 steps are part of this spectrum? A: Beneficial, casual, problematic, chronic dependence While the different classes of drugs have different targets in the brain, all classes of drugs will A: increase dopamine release The main neurotransmitter in the reward system of the brain is A: Dopamine Dopamine neurons are activated in order to activate the reward pathway. Examples are eating something yummy such as cake and cookies. What explains this situation? A: Reward system is used to promote the learning of adaptive behavior that enables survival Cocaine leads to positive reinforcement to the reward system in the brain because it: A: Blocks dopamine reuptake Billy ingests a couple of ecstasy pills. He will start to feel the effects in A: an hour or so The rate at which a drug is distributed in the body depends on: A: all of these (pass across membranes, its molecular size, its solubility properties) Why is intravenous injection of drugs the fastest way to overdose? A: Because the concentration of the drug builds up so quickly A period of medical treatment, usually including a 9-12 step program, during which a person is helped to overcome physical and psychological dependence on alcohol or drugs is known as part of the __________ process. A: Detoxification What syndrome is characterized by signs and symptoms that appear when a drug addict suddenly discontinues or decreases the drug dose? A: Withdrawal Drug addiction is defined as incA: pathological condition in which one compulsively uses a drug, despite its negative effects Drug abuse can have some drastic consequences that can lead to death. What are other consequences of drug abuse? A: All of these T/F Drug use during pregnancy not only leads to detrimental effects to the baby, but withdrawal symptoms as well. A: True In accordance to the spectrum of psychoactive drug use, which of the following scenarios would be considered problematic use? A: All of these Several factors influence how drug users experience the drug effects.However, the 4 more important factors are: --Pharmacological, cultural, social, and contextual Module 47: Diabetes / Obesity Which of the following diseases is first treated with weight reduction? A: Type 2 Obesity can be explained by... A. Two major factors: genetics/epigenetics as well as imbalance of energy intake and expenditure Which of the following diseases is first treated with w Hypoglycemia is a condition that occurs when… incA. Blood glucose falls ​below normal levels: Sally was pregnant and developed diabetes. She most likely has __________ diabetes. A: Gestational Glucose is the primary source of energy for the cells. Your blood glucose level ________ after a meal. A: increases Frank has not eaten all day. In order to maintain enough energy for his body, his _________ begins to break down __________ in order to make more ________, a process known as _______________. A: liver, glycogen, glucose, gluconeogenesis Within the pancreas, which types of cells produce insulin and glucagon​? A: ​Insulin is produced by beta cells and glucagon is produced by alpha cells 2 diabetes medications? A: Increase the amount of glucose released from the liver 2 Which of the following is not a treatment for obesity? A: eat late at nightin the pancreas Which of the following cin the completely defines ‘Diabetes Mellitus’? A: a disease characterized by a chronic high blood glucose concentration and is caused by lack of insulin or insulin resistance Melissa goes to the doctor and has the following symptoms: increased thirst, blurred vision, weight loss, polyuria. Which of the following is she most likely to be diagnosed with? A: type 2 diabetes mellitus For insulin to have its effect, it must promote the entry of glucose into the cell. The glucose must enter which structure of the cell? A: plasma membrane Which of the following is the function of glucose-4 transporter? A: allows for glucose to enter the cell Diabetes is a disease which harms persons since… A: It causes damage to the capillaries of various organs incThe _________ secretes _____________ when blood glucose levels are high in order to lower blood glucose levels. A: pancreas, insulin In the pancreas, __________ cells produce insulin and _________ produce glucagon. A: beta, alphas Once glucose is released into the bloodstream, insulin is discharged from the pancreas and A: All of these A patient comes into the clinic and tests reveal that they have autoantibodies that attack the beta cells of the pancreas and therefore, this patient lacks tis best definehe production of ___________. This patient has ______ diabetes. A: insulin, Type I Over the past few years, Shirley had an increase in thirst, hunger, and fatigue. She is also starting to have blurred vision. When she goes to the doctor, the doctor tells her that she is insulin resistant. She has ____________ diabetes. A: Type II It is well known that Diabetes has a profound effect on the circulatory system. It can cause both macrovascular and microvascular disease. What are some of the complications associated with microvascular problems? A: diabetic neuropathy, diabetic nephropathy, diabetic retinopathy What are the components of adipose tissue? A: fat cells What are the main roles of adipose tissue? A: Store fat and insulate the body The body mass index is defined as A: an individual’s body weight divided the square of his or her height Name the most popular causes of obesity. A: excessive caloric intake, and lack of physical activity Obese patients suffer from many health complications such as diabetes and heart disease. However, one of their silent challenges is: incA: feelings of depression and rejection Treatments for both obesity and diabetes are: A: all of these The plate method is a diet that helps you lose weight and maintain a healthy weight. How is the food distributed? A: 50% fruits/vegetables, 25% protein, 25% carbohydrates Medications for Type II Diabetes are designed to: A: Increase the sensitivity (response) of cells to insulin A diabetic patient is complaining of tingling, decreased sensitivity to pain, and cold feet. The patient has: A: Diabetic neuropathy Sally was pregnant and developed diabetes. She most likely has __________ diabetes. A: Gestational Glucose is the primary source of energy for the cells. Your blood glucose level ________ after a meal. A: increases Frank has not eaten all day. In order to maintain enough energy for his body, his _________ begins to break down __________ in order to make more ________, a process known as _______________. A: liver, glycogen, glucose, gluconeogenesis he _________ secretes _____________ when blood glucose levels are high in order to lower blood glucose levels. A: pancreas, insulin In the pancreas, __________ cells produce insulin and _________ produce glucagon. A: beta, alpha There is an influx of glucose into the cells when ___________ binds to its receptor and causes ________ to translocate to the plasma membrane of the cells. A: insulin, Glut4 transporter Once glucose is released into the bloodstream, insulin is discharged from the pancreas and A: All of these incWhich of the following describes nephropathy? A: Kidney disease or damage to the kidney Over the past few years, Shirley had an increase in thirst, hunger, and fatigue. She is also starting to have blurred vision. When she goes to the doctor, the doctor tells her that she is insulin resistant. She has ____________ diabetes. A: Type II It is well known that Diabetes has a profound effect on the circulatory system. It can cause both macrovascular and microvascular disease. What are some of the complications associated with microvascular problems? A: diabetic neuropathy, diabetic nephropathy, diabetic retinopathy Which of the following tissue types store energy in the form of fat? A: Adipose Tissue What are the components of adipose tissue? A: fat cells What are the main roles of adipose tissue? A: Store fat and insulate the body The body mass index is defined as A: an individual’s body weight divided the square of his or her height Name the most popular causes of obesity. A: excessive caloric intake, and lack of physical activity Obese patients suffer from many health complications such as diabetes and heart disease. However, one of their silent challenges is: A: feelings of depression and rejection The plate method is a diet that helps you lose weight and maintain a healthy weight. How is the food distributed? A: 50% fruits/vegetables, 25% protein, 25% carbohydrates Medications for Type II Diabetes are designed to: A: Increase the sensitivity (response) of cells to insulin incA diabetic patient is complaining of tingling, decreased sensitivity to pain, and cold feet. The patient has: A: Diabetic neuropathy Michael has proteinuria, this is a hallmark symptom for: A: Diabetic nephropathy Module 49: You and the Environment: Don’t be so lazy How does climate change affect biological systems? A: Will increase or decrease metabolic activity which will affect organism’s activity Which of the following will not be affected by climate change? A: All living system will be affected by Climate Change A change in greenhouse gas concentration and the addition of other gases with similar characteristics may change which of the following? A: Terrestrial radiation transfer Which of the following must occur for the earth to maintain a steady climate? A: the radiant heat from the sun must equal the radiant heat emitted by the globe Which of the following is a primary form of radiation? A: Solar (short-wave) form Which of the following effects the climate system: A: All of these Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 components of the climate system? A: Earth’s oil content Which of the following effects the albedo of land surfaces and the surface sensible and latent heat inctransfers? A. All Which part of the environment are humans a part of? A: Biosphere Which form of energy accounts for nearly all energy transfer from the sun? A. Electromagnetic wave energy transfer _______ and _______ of water can transfer considerable amounts of energy both vertically and horizontally. A: Evaporation; condensation How much more carbon dioxide is dissolved in the upper layers of the ocean as opposed to the total amount in the atmosphere? A: 50% more carbon dioxide is in the ocean than in the atmosphere (1020 versus 750 gigatons of carbon content) Which of the following is a naturally occurring “greenhouse gas”? A: Carbon dioxide The cloud component of the hydrological cycle strongly affects which of the following? A. Transfers of both solar and terrestrial radiation How is the oceanic condition different from the atmosphere? A: the primary forcing of the ocean is at the upper boundary; the density of the ocean water is determined by salinity and temperature Which of the following is a limitation for land storing heat? A. Low specific heat how does the cryosphere effect the climate system? A: it ​a​ffects radiative and sensible heat transfers at the Earth’s surface alteration of The atmosphere, clouds, ocean, land surface, and living matter all do which of the following? A: absorb short-wave radiation The __ of sunlight from the Earth’s surface is ___ of the absorption of radiation by that surface biosphere trans A: albedo; indicative incThe primary connection between human activity and climate change is: A: alteration of the radiation transfer characteristics of the atmosphere Which of the following effects due vertical motions, which are smaller than horizontal motions, have on atmospheric pollutants? A: Accentuates buildup of atmospheric pollutants in the lower layers of the atmosphere Atmospheric winds above the ocean are a major factor causing which of the following? A: Ocean surface currents through surface friction processes Which of the following effects the aldebo of land surfaces and the surface sensible and latent heat transfers? A: all of these How does the cryosphere effect the climate system? A: it affects radiative and sensible heat transfers at the earth’s surface How much of the Earth’s surface does land surface cover? A: 29% Ice and snow exist primarily in the latitudes poleward of ____ degrees ____ and are thus unfamiliar to the majority of the world’s population. A. 30, latitude Which of the following best describes the biosphere? A: Vegetation on the land surface and both plant and animal life in the oceans Of the structures listed that influence global temperature, which is the one that has the greatest effect on directly affecting mankind. A: Biosphere Solar radiation upon the Earth system coming into the atmosphere from above leads to heating as it is absorbed by… A. All of these The cryosphere is composed of: A. Ice/snow incModule 50: Global Warming Which of the following is the largest source of natural CH_4 Emission? Natural wetlands What is the primary cause of global warming? A: Greenhouse effect The cause of global warming is the greenhouse effect which is: A: The heat absorption by certain ​unds o​ in the atlmosphere which effectively “trap” heat in the lower atmosphere and re-radiation downward of some of that heat Which of the following will accelerate transformation of the landscape? A: All of these Which greenhouse gas is the most potent? (due to a hydroxyl bond) A: water vapor Where is the natural production and absorption of carbon dioxide found A: Terrestrial biosphere and ocean How does incomplete combustion occur? A: incomplete combustion will only occur when there isn't enough oxygen to allow the fuel to react completely to produce carbon dioxide and water The average car emits how many pounds of carbon dioxide a year? A: 12,000 pounds Which of the following is a large natural resource of n2o? A: the ocean Carbon Dioxide... A: can influence acid levels in ocean is a gas that can influence the acid levels in oceans Which of the following faces the greatest risk from a changing climate? A: Adequate water supplies Which of the following is an example of a machine that utilizes rapid combustion? incA: A car Which of the following is the best sink for atmospheric methane? A: Hydroxyl radical in the troposphere Which of the following is the largest source of methane in the United States? A: Landfills Which of the following is a characteristic of methane? A: lifetime in the atmosphere is brief (10-12 years) motherfucker same i think it​ has more effect on global heat Chlorofluorocarbons have been banned due to… A: contribution to ozone depletion wh​ich (allows more radiation…) OR (increases..) Which of the following is not a category of greenhouse gases? A: lithiumoxididate due to Which of the following is projected to become increasingly scarce, calling for trade-offs among competing uses, and potentially leading to conflict at a global level A: Water supplies Faces an increased risk from a changing climate. A: cities and agriculture Define: carbon offset A “carbon offset” is best defined as which of the following? A: a reduction of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases made in order to compensate for or to offset a greenhouse gas emission made elsewhere HFCs, PFCs, and SF6 are all… A: Man Made Which of the following is the most potent molecule released into the atmosphere that effects greenhouse gas? A: sulfur hexafluoride Which system in plants takes carbon dioxide out of the atmosphere: A: Dark cycle incThe cause of global warming is greenhouse effect which is? A: The heat absorption by certain gases in the atmosphere which effectively “trap” heat in the lower atmosphere and re-radiation downward of some of that heat Define: Complete combustion A: When the reactant burns in oxygen, producing a limited number of products Which of the metabolic pathways increases carbon dioxide? A: Krebs Flying non-stop round trip from Boston to Wichita creates about 1,400 pounds of carbon dioxide emissions, but the total impact is actually twice that, due to: A: The contrails and the altitude at which the carbon dioxide and other gasses are emitted What is the cause of global warming? A: the greenhouse effect Water vapor is a by-product of which of the following? A: Respiration in plants and animals How does smoldering occur? A: Smoldering is the slow, low-temperature, flameless form of combustion, sustained by the heat evolved when oxygen directly attacks the surface of a condensed-phase fuel Which of the following is the largest source of natural CH4 emissions? A: Natural wetlands Define: methane “Methane” is best defined as which of the following? A: Brief atmospheric lifetime (10-12 years), extremely effective absorber of radiation Projected to become increasingly scarce, calling for trade-offs among competing uses, and potentially leading to conflict. A: water supplies Which is an example of rapid combustions? A: Thermobaric weapons incWhat produces the most carbon dioxide per year? A: Airplane What would the temperature of the earth be without a natural greenhouse effect? A: 0 degrees F What is the molecular explanation of why a decrease in oceanic pH will cause fish and coral death? A: Acidic pH denatures proteins Which of the following is not a major contributor to carbon dioxide? A: biodiversity California is presently experiencing a decrease in rainfall and as a consequence, the cities will be receiving less water. Which of the following would be the best way to minimize water loss in the cities over time? A: Decrease population Module 51: Drought If San Diego cannot get enough water from Northern California, from a biological perspective, its best approach from a short term (5 years) perspective to get more water is? A: Stop all non necessary watering lawns, pools, golf courses Chinese dynasties depend on ____ for their rice crops. A: monsoons The hydrogen ion from water is key for… ​ producing the ATP that the plant needs to develop its own protein, carbohydrates and lipids A. producing the ATP that the plant need to develop its own protein, carbohydrates and lipids. How much does a tree transpire water per year? A. 5,000-50,000 Gallons Water is the solvent in… A: All chemical reactions Which of the following is a reason as to why droughts are so important? A: As a consequence of a decrease in wheat, rice, cattle, etc, people will eat less and die of starvation. incCO2 and H2O have which of the following effects? A. Act upon the pH of the ocean Which of the following is the correct order of countries with the highest population? A. China, India, USA How much does a tree transpire water per year? A. 5,000-50,000 gallons How do human activities interfere with the water cycle? A: All of the above Which of the following describes guard cells? A. Cells that release water vapor from the plant into the atmosphere Which of the following helps to minimize hyperthermia? A. Both cold air and cold water The drought is part of… A: A cycle of drought and wetness that is characteristic of cycles induced by major forces besides mankind’s influence and we are unfortunate to be in the dry cycle The drought is due to… A. The dramatic increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere due to the rapacious appetite mankind has for land, food, and water that are playing a major role in global warming. What was the dust bowl of the 1930’s? A: Climatic conditions causing dramatic reduction in crops prompting a massive migration from the midwest to the west Climate change affects which of the following? A: Various cultures The drought in the American Southwest has affected: A: All of the above Forests play a vital role in maintaining a continuous supply of available water. What does this represent? A: maintaining biodiversity incIf a global drought affected the global production of wheat and rice, which of the following would directly impact on you? A: Increase in the cost of all foods Due to ____, the amount of CO2 released into the atmosphere has been rising extensively during the last 150 years A: Human activit If the population of the earth continues to grow there will not be enough ___ for the young populations in ___ countries A: work, developing Which of the following describes infiltration? A: Downward movement of liquid water through soil Which of the following describes transpiration? A: Movement of liquid water from plant roots, upward in vessels, and into the atmosphere from the leaves as water vapor The zone of saturation… A: Holds water undisturbed for longer periods than the water table Where is carbon dioxide mainly found? A: Air In the long run, it would be cheaper to finance ____ rather than inventing or enhancing technological changes to generate ____, capture and store ____. A: Family planning; solar energy; carbon dioxide Which of the following is a biological viewpoint of population? A: all of these are biological viewpoints of population Cholera is… A: the bacteria that invades the intestinal tract and can cause diarrhea by causing the intestinal solution to have a hypertonic solution relative to the cells became a major problem Which of the following is not part of the water cycle? A: Expansion inc​Module 43: Chemical Ecology <B>1A:</b> Which of the following is NOT one of the three main "rules" of ecology? <br>A: Responsible use of resources today protects the future world. <p> <B>1B:</b> Select the three basic rules of ecology. <BR>A: There is no such thing as a free lunch. <BR>Everything must go somewhere. <BR>Everything is connected to everything else. When do autoimmune disorders arise? A: when the immune system attacks its own body Antibodies are also called immunoglobulins and constitute part of the blood proteins. How do antibodies work? A: All of the above if a patient is radiated and loses her antibiotics, what happens to the antigens in her body? A: increases The adaptive immune system has which mechanisms to kills antigens which are? A: Both B cell and T cell activation are the fundamental methods in adaptive immunity <p> <B>2A:</b> ____________ are organisms of the same species that live in the same place at the same time. <br>A: Populations <p> <B>2B:</b> _____________ include all organisms living together in the same place. <BR>A: Communities p> <B>3A:</b> A flea attached to a dog's back and deriving its nutrients from the dog's blood engages in which kind of relationship with the dog? <br>A: Parasitism inc<p> <B>3B:</b> "Cleaner fish" are small fish that live in close association with bigger fish. "Cleaner fish" remove harmful microbes from the larger fishes skin, and the big fish provides the "cleaner fish" with a safe place to live. Which type of relationship is this? <BR>A: Mutualism <p> <B>4A:</b> In photosynthesis, there is sunlight, Co2, H20, minerals, and plant sugars.... what else is missing? <br>A: Oxygen <p> <B>4B:</b> What controls a the size of a community? <BR>A: The amount of productivity which then is determined by the amount of available sunlight. <p> <B>5A:</b> _______________ capture energy from the sun and convert this energy into organic matter. They provide all of earth's energy. <br>A: Primary producers <p> <B>5B:</b> ________________ are able to carry out photosynthesis and make all earth's energy. <BR>A: Primary producers <p> <B>6A:</b> Refer to figure 5, what does it say in the middle green box? <br>A: Mutualism Of the dominant ovarian/ pituitary hormones, which is used for the middle to late luteal phase in the uterine cycle? A: Progesterone <p> <B>6B:</b> What is an example of mutualism? <BR>A: The remora fish and sharks <p> <B>7A:</b> The organisms Figure 7 are engaged in commensalism, which is _______________. (Select ALL that apply) inc<br>A: a relationship in which one organism helps another, but there is no benefit or harm in return <BR>a type of symbiosis <p> <B>7B:</b> The organisms in figure 6 are engaged in mutualism, which is ________. (Select ALL that apply <BR>A: <B>wrong</b><s>a type of symbiosis</s> <p> <B>8A:</b> Herbivores are also known as __________. <br>A: primary consumers <p> <B>8B:</b> Carnivores are also known as ____________. <BR>A: secondary consumers <p> <B>9A:</b> In which of the following cycles is carbon dioxide consumed by plants and released by animals? <br>A: oxygen cycle <p> <B>9B:</b> In which of the following cycles is carbon dioxide released by animals during respiration? <BR>A: oxygen cycle <p> <B>10A:</b> Organisms producing either large numbers of small offspring or low numbers of large offspring is an example of ___________ in nature. <br>A: tradeoffs <p> <B>10B:</b> Many mammals have optimized their reproductive strategy by producing a few, relatively large young instead of a large number of small offspring. This is an example of ___________. <BR>A: tradeoffs <BR><BR> <p> <B>1A:</b> Which of the following is NOT one of the three main "rules" of ecology? inc<br>A: Responsible use of resources today protects the future world. <p> <B>1B:</b> Select the three basic rules of ecology. <BR>A: There is no such thing as a free lunch. <BR>Everything must go somewhere. <BR>Everything is connected to everything else. <p> <B>2A:</b> ____________ are organisms of the same species that live in the same place at the same time. <br>A: Populations <p> <B>2B:</b> _____________ include all organisms living together in the same place. <BR>A: Communities <p> <B>3A:</b> A flea attached to a dog's back and deriving its nutrients from the dog's blood engages in which kind of relationship with the dog? <br>A: Parasitism <p> <B>3B:</b> "Cleaner fish" are small fish that live in close association with bigger fish. "Cleaner fish" remove harmful microbes from the larger fishes skin, and the big fish provides the "cleaner fish" with a safe place to live. Which type of relationship is this? <BR>A: Mutualism <p> <B>4A:</b> In photosynthesis, there is sunlight, Co2, H20, minerals, and plant sugars.... what else is missing? <br>A: Oxygen <p> <B>4B:</b> What controls a the size of a community? <BR>A: The amount of productivity which then is determined by the amount of available sunlight. <p> <B>5A:</b> _______________ capture energy from the sun and convert this energy into organic matter. incThey provide all of earth's energy. <br>A: Primary producers <p> <B>5B:</b> ________________ are able to carry out photosynthesis and make all earth's energy. <BR>A: Primary producers <p> <B>6A:</b> Refer to figure 5, what does it say in the middle green box? <br>A: Mutualism <p> <B>6B:</b> What is an example of mutualism? <BR>A: The remora fish and sharks <p> <B>7A:</b> The organisms Figure 7 are engaged in commensalism, which is _______________. (Select ALL that apply) <br>A: a relationship in which one organism helps another, but there is no benefit or harm in return <BR>a type of symbiosis <p> <B>7B:</b> The organisms in figure 6 are engaged in mutualism, which is ________. (Select ALL that apply <BR>A: <B>wrong</b><s>a type of symbiosis</s> <p> <B>8A:</b> Herbivores are also known as __________. <br>A: primary consumers <p> <B>8B:</b> Carnivores are also known as ____________. <BR>A: secondary consumers <p> <B>9A:</b> In which of the following cycles is carbon dioxide consumed by plants and released by animals? <br>A: oxygen cycle inc<p> <B>9B:</b> In which of the following cycles is carbon dioxide released by animals during respiration? <BR>A: oxygen cycle <p> <B>10A:</b> Organisms producing either large numbers of small offspring or low numbers of large offspring is an example of ___________ in nature. <br>A: tradeoffs <p> <B>10B:</b> Many mammals have optimized their reproductive strategy by producing a few, relatively large young instead of a large number of small offspring. This is an example of ___________. <BR>A: tradeoffs <BR><BR> <p><br>Module 44: Chemical Ecology 2<p> <p><br>Module 44: Chemical Ecology 2<p> <p> <B>1A:</b> The skunk is best known for its production of ________. <br>A: chemical defenses <p> <B>1B:</b> White fungus produces molecules that prevent the darker fungus from overtaking it. The molecules produced by the white fungus are known as ______________. <BR>A: chemical defenses <p> <B>2A:</b> Steve and his group of hooligans were throwing rocks at a bee hive. The bees became angry incand all started to attack them. Which molecules triggered the organized aggressive bee behavior? <br>A: alarm pheromones <p> <B>2B:</b> Little Johnny was playing outside one day when he noticed a trail of ants. He decided to run his finger through the trail and the ants toward the end of the line started to senselessly run around in circles as if they were lost. What made some of these ants confused? <BR>A: Ants release alarm pheromones so when they saw Johnny they started to trigger a “fight or flight” response. <p> <B>3A:</b> _____________ is the study of how chemical signals influence interactions between organisms. <br>A: Chemical Ecology <p> <B>3B:</b> ____________ are molecules that influence interactions between organisms. <BR>A: Chemical signals <p> <B>4A:</b> Which of the following is NOT an example of chemical defense? <br>A: An egg that releases compounds detected by sperm <p> <B>4B:</b> Which of the following is NOT an example of a chemical attractant? <BR>A: A compound produced by a bacterium that inhibits nearby fungi. <p> <B>5A:</b> It is the mating season for the Monarch butterfly. A female has sent out her pheromones to attract males since she is ready to mate. Will her pheromones cause other males of similar butterfly species to be attracted to her? <br>A: No. Sex pheromones are very specific to insure reproductively compatible species will mate. <p> <B>5B:</b> When we use herbs such as basil, thyme, sage, and cilantro in our cooking we notice their distinct flavors. The real purpose of these flavors is to discourage predators from eating them. What kind of chemical communication is this? <BR>A: Chemorepellent inc<p> <B>6A:</b> Which ecological event is shown in figure 14? <br>AN: evolutionary arms race <p> <B>6B:</b> Which ecological event is shown in figure 13? <BR>A: natural selection and evolution of defenses <p> <B>7A:</b> Chemical defenses are especially high at locations with _________________. <br>A: high biodiversity <p> <B>7B:</b> Sites of ____________ are characterized by high rates of herbivory, competition, and predation. These conditions favor evolution of chemical defenses. <BR>A: high biodiversity <p> <B>8A:</b> Nucleic acids, amino acids, and carbohydrates are _________. <br>A: primary metabolites <p> <B>8B:</b> _____________ are directly involved in the growth and reproduction of organisms. <BR>A: Primary metabolites <p> <B>9A:</b> Pederin is found in beetles and thought to protect beetles against their enemies. Pederin is a __________. <br>A: secondary metabolite <p> <B>9B:</b> Callophycoic acid is a molecule made by a seaweed that protects it against attack by pathogens. Callophycoic acid is a ________________. <BR>A: secondary metabolite <p> <B>10A:</b> Moths and other insects choose mates based on the ____________ of pheromones (Select ALL that apply)* inc<br>A: chemical structure <BR>Ratio <p> <B>10B:</b> Scientist believe that chemical signaling has evolved over time through natural selection. They noticed that there was an abundance of species that have chemical signaling in places of high biodiversity. Why might you think that in rainforests and coral reefs there are many species with chemical signaling? <BR>A: There are high levels of herbivory, predation and competition within these areas. <p> <B>1A:</b> The skunk is best known for its production of ________. <br>A: chemical defenses <p> <B>1B:</b> White fungus produces molecules that prevent the darker fungus from overtaking it. The molecules produced by the white fungus are known as ______________. <BR>A: chemical defenses <p> <B>2A:</b> Steve and his group of hooligans were throwing rocks at a bee hive. The bees became angry and all started to attack them. Which molecules triggered the organized aggressive bee behavior? <br>A: alarm pheromones <p> <B>2B:</b> Little Johnny was playing outside one day when he noticed a trail of ants. He decided to run his finger through the trail and the ants toward the end of the line started to senselessly run around in circles as if they were lost. What made some of these ants confused? <BR>A: Ants release alarm pheromones so when they saw Johnny they started to trigger a “fight or flight” response. <p> <B>3A:</b> _____________ is the study of how chemical signals influence interactions between organisms. <br>A: Chemical Ecology <p> <B>3B:</b> ____________ are molecules that influence interactions between organisms. inc<BR>A: Chemical signals <p> <B>4A:</b> Which of the following is NOT an example of chemical defense? <br>A: An egg that releases compounds detected by sperm <p> <B>4B:</b> Which of the following is NOT an example of a chemical attractant? <BR>A: A compound produced by a bacterium that inhibits nearby fungi. <p> <B>5A:</b> It is the mating season for the Monarch butterfly. A female has sent out her pheromones to attract males since she is ready to mate. Will her pheromones cause other males of similar butterfly species to be attracted to her? <br>A: No. Sex pheromones are very specific to insure reproductively compatible species will mate. <p> <B>5B:</b> When we use herbs such as basil, thyme, sage, and cilantro in our cooking we notice their 13distinct flavors. The real purpose of these flavors is to discourage predators from eating them. What kind of chemical communication is this? <BR>A: Chemorepellent <p> <B>6A:</b> Which ecological event is shown in figure 14? <br>AN: evolutionary arms race <p> <B>6B:</b> Which ecological event is shown in figure 13? <BR>A: natural selection and evolution of defenses <p> <B>7A:</b> Chemical defenses are especially high at locations with _________________. <br>A: high biodiversity <p> <B>7B:</b> Sites of ____________ are characterized by high rates of herbivory, competition, and predation. These conditions favor evolution of chemical defenses. <BR>A: high biodiversity inc<p> <B>8A:</b> Nucleic acids, amino acids, and carbohydrates are _________. <br>A: primary metabolites <p> <B>8B:</b> _____________ are directly involved in the growth and reproduction of organisms. <BR>A: Primary metabolites <p> <B>9A:</b> Pederin is found in beetles and thought to protect beetles against their enemies. Pederin is a __________. <br>A: secondary metabolite <p> <B>9B:</b> Callophycoic acid is a molecule made by a seaweed that protects it against attack by pathogens. Callophycoic acid is a ________________. <BR>A: secondary metabolite <p> <B>10A:</b> Moths and other insects choose mates based on the ____________ of pheromones (Select ALL that apply)* <br>A: chemical structure <BR>Ratio <p> <B>10B:</b> Scientist believe that chemical signaling has evolved over time through natural selection. They noticed that there was an abundance of species that have chemical signaling in places of high biodiversity. Why might you think that in rainforests and coral reefs there are many species with chemical signaling? <BR>A: There are high levels of herbivory, predation and competition within these areas. <BR><BR> incModule 45: Chemical Ecology <p> <B>1A:</b> Androstadienone is ___________________. <br>A: none of the above. <p> <B>1B:</b> Androstadienone _______________. <BR>A: has not yet been proven to play a role in human mating. <p> <B>2A:</b> In the accessory olfactory system there is the accessory olfactory bulb, neurons, and the vomeronasal organ. What is missing? <br>A: Hypothalamus <p> <B>2B:</b>In the accessory olfactory system there is the accessory olfactory bulb, neurons, and the hypothalamus. What is missing? <BR>A: Vomeronasal organ <p> <B>3A:</b> molecule. <br>A: 75% <p> <B>3B:</b> How do insect traps successfully control insects that are harmful to crops? <BR>A: It contains sex pheromones that attract and capture insects. <p> <B>4A:</b> Select the proper order of detection and response to a pheromone in most mammals. <br>A: 1. vomeronasal organ, 2. neurons, 3. accessory olfactory bulb, 4. hypothalamus <p> inc<B>4B:</b> Which of the following lists the process of detection/response to pheromone molecules in the right order? <BR>A: 1. vomeronasal organ, 2. neurons, 3. accessory olfactory bulb, 4. hypothalamus <p> <B>5A:</b> Humans do not possess a functional ___________. <br>A: vomeronasal organ <p> <B>5B:</b> Most mammals possess a __________. <BR>A: Most mammals possess all of the above. <p> <B>6A:</b> _________ is a body of knowledge that lacks in reproducibility and does not adhere fully to the scientific method. <br>A: Pseudoscience <p> <B>6B:</b> A body of knowledge that is claimed to be scientific but lacks supporting evidence and reproducibility is known as _________________. <BR>A: Pseudoscience <p> <B>7A:</b> Dr. Martha McClintock did a study dealing with menstrual synchrony in women. She concluded that women give off pheromones during menstruation so when women spend a lot of time together they will begin to have the same menstrual cycle. What pheromones are said to be responsible for this? <br>A: Primers <p> <B>7B:</b> Every time Kristen feels like she is getting a cold she goes to the doctor and asks for antibiotics to help her feel better. Unfortunately, she uses them quite often and notices she has been getting sick a lot more. What could have made her more prone to getting sick even though she was taking antibiotics? <BR>A: Since she uses the antibiotics a lot and “superbugs” have evolved, the bacteria have become antibiotic resistant <p> <B>8A:</b> Which of the following are known to result from fish exposure to man-made estrogen incmolecules? <br>A: all of the above <p> <B>8B:</b> Fish exposure to man-made estrogen molecules is known to result in __________. <BR>A: none of the above <p> <B>9A:</b> You have already taken Bio 100 and are an expert in Chemical Ecology now. Dr. Pozos wants to do an experiment where he compared the brains of humans and animals. He notices that the vomeronasal organ that detects pheromones in animals is not used in the human brain but feels humans can detect pheromones. What will you tell Dr. Pozos? <br>A: You tell him that it is believed that humans detect pheromones through the main olfactory system used for smell <p> <B>9B:</b> In animals, the main olfactory system is responsible for detection of only a handful of pheromone signals. What handles the vast majority of the pheromone signals? <BR>A: Accessory olfactory system <p> <B>10A:</b> Solid scientific evidence exists for a role of pheromones in which of the following human behaviors? <br>A: menstrual cycle synchronization in women living in close proximity <p> <B>10B:</b> Your friend Cordelia tells you that she gets all the boys because she gives off a strong pheromone that attracts them. You do not believe her because… <BR>A: There is no solid scientific evidence that shows human female pheromones attract mates. <BR><BR> <p> <B>1A:</b> Androstadienone is ___________________. <br>A: none of the above. <p> <B>1B:</b> Androstadienone _______________. <BR>A: has not yet been proven to play a role in human mating. inc<p> <B>2A:</b> In the accessory olfactory system there is the accessory olfactory bulb, neurons, and the vomeronasal organ. What is missing? <br>A: Hypothalamus <p> <B>2B:</b>In the accessory olfactory system there is the accessory olfactory bulb, neurons, and the hypothalamus. What is missing? <BR>A: Vomeronasal organ <p> <B>3A:</b> Over _____ of all human drugs can be traced back to a natural chemical signaling molecule. <br>A: 75% <p> <B>3B:</b> How do insect traps successfully control insects that are harmful to crops? <BR>A: It contains sex pheromones that attract and capture insects. <p> <B>4A:</b> Select the proper order of detection and response to a pheromone in most mammals. <br>A: 1. vomeronasal organ, 2. neurons, 3. accessory olfactory bulb, 4. hypothalamus <p> <B>4B:</b> Which of the following lists the process of detection/response to pheromone molecules in the right order? <BR>A: 1. vomeronasal organ, 2. neurons, 3. accessory olfactory bulb, 4. hypothalamus <p> <B>5A:</b> Humans do not possess a functional ___________. <br>A: vomeronasal organ <p> <B>5B:</b> Most mammals possess a __________. <BR>A: Most mammals possess all of the above. <p> <B>6A:</b> _________ is a body of knowledge that lacks in reproducibility and does not adhere fully to the scientific method. inc<br>A: Pseudoscience <p> <B>6B:</b> A body of knowledge that is claimed to be scientific but lacks supporting evidence and reproducibility is known as _________________. <BR>A: Pseudoscience <p> <B>7A:</b> Dr. Martha McClintock did a study dealing with menstrual synchrony in women. She concluded that women give off pheromones during menstruation so when women spend a lot of time together they will begin to have the same menstrual cycle. What pheromones are said to be responsible for this? <br>A: Primers <p> <B>7B:</b> Every time Kristen feels like she is getting a cold she goes to the doctor and asks for antibiotics to help her feel better. Unfortunately, she uses them quite often and notices she has been getting sick a lot more. What could have made her more prone to getting sick even though she was taking antibiotics? <BR>A: Since she uses the antibiotics a lot and “superbugs” have evolved, the bacteria have become antibiotic resistant <p> <B>8A:</b> Which of the following are known to result from fish exposure to man-made estrogen molecules? <br>A: all of the above <p> <B>8B:</b> Fish exposure to man-made estrogen molecules is known to result in __________. <BR>A: none of the above <p> <B>9A:</b> You have already taken Bio 100 and are an expert in Chemical Ecology now. Dr. Pozos wants to do an experiment where he compared the brains of humans and animals. He notices that the vomerona ​When a person is suffering from malnutrition, the decrease in blood osmolarity occurs where? Answer is :B ​sal organ that detects pheromones in animals is not used in the human brain but feels humans can detect pheromones. What will you tell Dr. Pozos? <br>A: You tell him that it is believed that humans detect pheromones through the main olfactory system used for smell inc<p> <B>9B:</b> In animals, the main olfactory system is responsible for detection of only a handful of pheromone signals. What handles the vast majority of the pheromone signals? <BR>A: Accessory olfactory system <p> <B>10A:</b> Solid scientific evidence exists for a role of pheromones in which of the following human behaviors? <br>A: menstrual cycle synchronization in women living in close proximity <p> <B>10B:</b> Your friend Cordelia tells you that she gets all the boys because she gives off a strong pheromone that attracts them. You do not believe her because… <BR>A: There is no solid scientific evidence that shows human female pheromones attract mates. <BR><BR> TEST ONE Questions that were on the test that were not in this study guide. Q: As you eat your rice, enzymes molecularly break the carbohydrates into polysaccharides and monosaccharides? Which of the following directs the production of these enzymes? A: Mitochondria, DNA, Nervous System, or ATP? I think it’s Mitochondriaanimals Q: The energy in the food is transferred to the cytochrome system from the Kreb's cycle to the electron transfer system by which process? (choose the most correct answer) A: Oxidation of both NADH and FADH, Reduction of FAD, Reduction of NAD, Oxidation of FADH, or Oxidation of NADH? Q: The similarities between photosynthesis and oxidation metabolism is which of the following? A: Both use an electron transport system in which oxygen is the electron acceptor, both use hydrogen ions to power ATP synthase, Both use reverse osmosis to power the ATP synthase, or Both right? Q: The statement "suffocation from within" describes which of the following? A: The ultimate result is the accumulation of.... citrate in the blood but no oxygen production Q: There are a number of hormones that are produced in the intestines that control appetite. To control appetite, these hormones must interact with receptors in the brain by way of which of the following? A: Activating large intestinal cells, Activating stomach cell, Being transported throughout the body by way of blood circulation, or Activating directly neurons in the intestinal tract? incQ: Which enzyme is common to both plant and animals cells in production of ATP?( i have what ​“chemical” is that the same? A: ATP Synthase Q A: Carbon Dioxide, Oxygen, Carbon monoxide, or Nitrogen? 1. The peptide bond is important for proteins because it is the bond that links the amino acids together to form the polypeptide. Matt is dying to hear which covalently bonded atoms would be removed to make a peptide bond? A:-H, -OH 2. A new football coach tells his team that the reason they get fatigued is because they do not have enough oxygen in their blood. To get more oxygen so that they can play for longer periods of time, they need to... ? A:Their fatigue is not due to a lack of oxygen in the blood but possibly due to the production of carbon dioxide in skeletal muscles 3. Which of the following describes conformational change? A: A shape-change within a molecule. 4. Why are proteins broken down into amino acids before they can be absorbed in the body by digestion? A:So that they are small enough to cross into the cells of the gut 5. Which of the following is the correct order of the scientific method? A:Observe, question, hypothesize, test, explain 6. Which of the following removes nitrogen from the amino acids? A. Bacteria 7. Amylase is an enzyme found in Saliva. Which system is responsible for its development? A:Cell Nucleus and its DNA 8. In plant cells, what takes the place of oxygen as the hydrogen ion donor in the production of ATP? A. NADPH 9. The carbon-nitrogen bond that connects amino acids together in a protein is referred to as the... A: peptide bond 10. What chemical structure inside the mitochondria is responsible for directly producing ATP? A:ATP synthase In the electron transfer system, which of the following is reduced? A. Oxygen 12. Biology can be studied in a non-scientific method. This involves which of the following? A: Using many subjects but having no controls​ W​RONG :( inc13. Blood Intracellular space interstitial space interstitial tract 14. Which of the following blood types does an individual who has antibodies to the type 'B' oligosaccharide have? Type AB Type O Type B Type A 15. Which of the following organelles produces proteins? Rough endoplasmic reticulum 16. In which of the following does the fermentation by yeast occur? Aerobic environment 17. Which of the two major categories of the chemical reactions in photosynthesis produces oxygen? Light dependent phase (LDP) 18. Cyanide is a very toxic gas. Which of the following does cyanide act on to cause death? Electron transport chain 20. The liver in a young woman has been ruined due to the ingestion of various chemicals? Ammonium 21. A metabolic cycle which begins with the molecule, Acetyl CoA, produces most of the NADH and FADH for ATP production, is which of the following? Glycolysis Free Oxygen radicals Electron Transport System Chemiosmosis Cancer Cycle 22. The large intestinal cells are physically very close to blood vessels. If there is a hypertonic solution in the large intestine, what is the consequence? Water moves from the circulation to the large intestine causing constipation Water moves from the large intestine to the circulation Water will flow into the large intestine from the circulation and cause diarrhea Hypertonic solutions do not exist in the large intestine since they would kill intestinal cells. 23.Which of the following describes hydrogenation? The receptor located in the muscle The comparator located in the smooth muscle of the gut The setpoint located in the nerves leading to the muscle The setpoint located in the brain ATP located in the arm 24. incStays the same Increase in size and then decrease in size Decrease in size Increase in size 25. In the case of boxing, imagine that the skeletal muscle of the arm is the controlled system. What initially determines the amount of force that will be produced in the arm- from a feedback point of view? The receptor located in the muscle The comparator located in the smooth muscle of the gut The setpoint located in the nerves leading to the muscle The setpoint located in the brain ATP located in the arm - which of the following organelles is responsible for photosynthesis? chloroplast 26.​ ​The nicotine in a cigarette activates which cellular structure? Nicotine receptors composed of lipids on the mitochondria of brain cells is their blo Nicotine receptors composed of protein located in the cell membrane of neurons. Nicotine receptors composed of carbohydrates on the plasma membrane of brain cells Nicotine receptors composed of protein in the golgi bodies of heart cells 27. If the amount of ATP required for metabolic reactions is decreased, what happens to the cell? Although ATP is important for all metabolic activities, the cell can survive without it as long as proteins are available. It continues to function normally since it can survive without ATP It will become excitatory since lack of ATP will cause an inease in activity due to the fact that ATP in small amounts will increase the chemical reactions in the cell. . The activities of the cell will decrease. 28. The major output(s) of all human cells are controlled by which organelle? Endoplasmic reticulum ATP DNA Oxygen 29.​ ​Three men are adrift on a boat in the Pacific Ocean. They drink coconut water for 5 days from the coconuts they brought on board. Whatod tonicity after those 5 days? Hypotonic Isotonic None of the answers are correc Hypertonic 30. Many fish survive in fresh water which is hypotonic to their cells. How do they survive? Since the fresh water would cause the cells to become hypotonic, water is excreted from the fish by way of kidney action Since the fresh water would cause the blood to become hypertonic, water is excreted from the fish by way of the kidneys Water is stored in the fish so that the cells become hypotonic It is not possible for plants and their roots to survive in a salty environment. incBiology can be studied in a non-scientific method. This involves which of the following? A: Using many subjects but having no controls The matrix of a mitochondria contains which of the following? A. Enzymes for aerobic respiration In the electron transfer system, which of the following is reduced? A. Oxygen In plant cells, what takes the place of oxygen as the hydrogen ion donor in the production of ATP? A. NADPH The statement “suffocation from within” describes which of the following? A. The ultimate result is the accumulation of citrate in the blood but no production of ATP. Which of the following is an enzyme…. Carboxy-terminal (C-terminal) end of a peptide bond? Carboxypeptidase Which of the following is a chemical that is excreted in urea? A. Nitrogen Which of the following removes nitrogen from the amino acids? A. Bacteria This molecule controls the production of enzymes: It is DNA, which is a nucleotide that resides in the nucleus of the cell The nicotine in a cigarette activates which structure? A:Nicotine receptors on the plasma membrane of brain cells A hyperosmotic solution is: A:a solution separated from another by way of semipermeable membrane in which the hyperosmotic solution has more electrolytes and less water than the other solution In the event that ATP is not needed, (in other words, you have enough energy), what happens? <br>A: ATP will continue to be made A new coach tells his team that the reason they get fatigued is because they do not have enough oxygen in inctheir blood to go for 3 minutes without oxygen. To get more oxygen, they need to ? A:Their fatigue is more than likely not due to a lack of oxygen in the blood. Coach needs to study biology In most cases in which there is a decrease in oxygen to aerobic systems, what will continue to be produced? A: Lactic Acid What enzyme is common to both plant and animal cells in production of ATP? A:ATP synthase What has to exist for ATP synthase to directly produce ATP? A:A proton gradient Dr. Pozos was mistakenly given the <B>wrong:</b> medication for controlling his cholesterol levels. He was given peristaltinol, a drug that affects peristalsis. This drug causes the rings of circular muscles to contract in front of food material and to relax in back of it really fast. What would this do to him as he eats his dinner? A:He would be continually vomiting until the drug wore off. Why are proteins broken down into amino acids before they can be absorbed in the body by digestion? A:So that they are small enough to cross into the cells of the gut Matt's blood sugar levels are very low because he just finished swimming across the English Channel. His liver needs to mobilize its stored glucose to the rest of his body. What must be done to enable glucose to leave his liver cells? A:secrete pancreatic amylase All of the following are true about bile EXCEPT: A:It is synthesized in the gallbladder Amylase is an enzyme found in Saliva. Which system is responsible for its development? A:Cell Nucleus and its DNA Cyanide is a metabolic poison that works at which site? A: Electron transport complex The peptide bond is important for proteins because it is the bond that links the amino acids together to form the polypeptide. Matt is dying to hear which covalently bonded atoms would be removed to make a incpeptide bond? A:-H, -OH "The diffusion of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase which subsequently causes ATP synthase to combine phosphate ion with ADP" defines which of the following words? A:Chemiosmosis The term oxidative phosphorylation refers to which of the following? A process in which a phosphate is added to adenosine diphosphate powered Hydrogen ion activating the ATP synthase pump. The adjective, glycolytic, refers to which condition? A:Chemical reactions that do not require oxygen- called anaerobic What chemical structure inside the mitochondria is responsible for directly producing ATP? A:ATP synthase Secretin directly produces which of the following? A:Hydrochloric Acid The energy in the food is transferred to the cytochrome system from the Kreb's cycle in the mitochondria by a process of ? <BR>A: <b>Wrong</b> Oxidation of NADH A metabolic cycle fueled by Acetyl CoA that produces most of the NADH and FADH for ATP production is which of the following? A:Krebs Cycle For light to act during photosynthesis, it must activate which photosystem? A:Photosystem II and then Photosystem I Which of the two major categories of the chemical reactions in photosynthesis produce oxygen? A:Light dependent phase (LDP) What molecule(s) feed into the Calvin Cycle? ATP and NADH Three men are adrift in a boat in the Pacific Ocean. Their blood is which of the following? A: Isotonic inccovalent bonds are defined by: A: bonds that form between atoms as a result of sharing electrons What is the main characteristic of a covalent bond? A:it shares electrons The major output(s) of all livings systems are? A:Reproduction and ATP generation Your friend drinks a fruit smoothie and wonders where it begins to be broken down in the body, you tell them that.. A: The smoothie is broken down chemically in your mouth via salivary amylase (or food is broken down mechanically and chemically) Your friend drinks a fruit smoothie and wonders how the swallowing process occurs, you tell them that.. A: the swallowing reflex opens a sphincter at the top of the esophagus. Why are the lungs sometimes called the “second heart”? A: Cardiac output can be increased rapidly by drawing upon pulmonary blood volume without depending on an instantaneous of venous return In the case of boxing, imagine that the skeletal muscle of the arm is the controlled system. What initially determines the amount of force in the arm- from a feedback point of view? ● A:The controller located in the pain There are a number of hormones that are produced to control appetite. These hormones have their effect on which group of cells? <br>A:<B>wrong:</b>: Stomach cells Which gas is a metabolic product of photosynthesis A:Oxygen The drug, nicotine, that you smoke is a byproduct of which reaction? A:Dark Reaction "A protein that catalyzes a chemical reaction" defines which of the following terms? A:Enzyme Lactic acid in your muscles is the byproduct of which metabolic system? incA:Glycolysis In the case of temperature regulation, imagine that the skeletal muscles are the controlled system. If the comparator senses that the output temperature is too low, it will cause the muscles to? A:Contract to generate heat You have two solutions in contact with each other by way of a semipermeable membrane. Which one is hypertonic? A: the solution with more electrolytes (hypertonic) The intestinal solution is hypertonic relative to blood. What will happen to the patient? A:Fluid will leave the blood and enter the intestinal tract causing diarrhea You inject a hypotonic solution into a patient in her veins. What happens to her red blood cells? A: Nothing happens to red blood cells since they are protected from osmotic changes since they carry oxygen What are the four main types of biological macromolecules? A:nucleic acids, proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates Which of the biomolecules has the longest digestion time? In other words, how long does it take for thedogma biomolecule to be catabolized? <br>A:<B>wrong:</b> Protein A hypertonic cell is floating in hypotonic solution. What happens to the cell? Increase in size Dr. Pozos is giving an interview on the nightly news about biology. The interviewer seems amazed at the versatility of proteins and asks, "What does a protein NOT do?" Dr. Pozos feels you should handle this question. What would the answer be? A:<B>wrong:</b> Act as a source of nitrogen for other molecules in the body The carbon-nitrogen bond that connects amino acids together in a protein is referred to as the... A: peptide bond The carbon dioxide that we exhale(breathe out) is produced by way of which metabolic pathway? A: Krebs cycle also called Citric Acid cycle A person is very fatigued. You give her oxygen and tell her that oxygen will give her energy by way of glycolysis. That is an incorrect statement since: incA: By definition, glycolysis is an anaerobic set of chemical reacti​ons The set point for your body's temperature is in terms of degrees Centigrade. What will the units of the output be? A: Degrees Centigrade Biology can be studied in a non-scientific method. This involves which of the following? A: Using many subjects but having no control This molecule controls the production of enzymes: <br>A: <B><B>wrong:</b></b> It is a protein <BR><B><B>wrong:</b></b> It is RNA, the ancestor to DNA I The nicotine in a cigarette activates which structure? <br>A:Nicotine receptors on the plasma membrane of brain cells A hyperosmotic solution is: <br>A:a solution separated from another by way of semipermeable membrane in which the hyperosmotic solution has more electrolytes and less water than the other solution In the event that ATP is not needed, (in other words, you have enough energy), what happens? <br>A: ATP will continue to be made A new coach tells his team that the reason they get fatigued is because they do not have enough oxygen in their blood to go for 3 minutes without oxygen. To get more oxygen, they need to ? <br>A:Their fatigue is more than likely not due to a lack of oxygen in the blood. Coach needs to study biology In most cases in which there is a decrease in oxygen to aerobic systems, what will continue to be produced? <br>A:Lactic Acid What enzyme is common to both plant and animal cells in production of ATP? <br>A:ATP synthase What has to exist for ATP synthase to directly produce ATP? <br>A:A proton gradient incDr. Pozos was mistakenly given the wrong medication for controlling his cholesterol levels. He was given peristaltinol, a drug that affects peristalsis. This drug causes the rings of circular muscles to contract in front of food material and to relax in back of it really fast. What would this do to him as he eats his dinner? <br>A:He would be continually vomiting until the drug wore off. Why are proteins broken down into amino acids before they can be absorbed in the body by digestion? <br>A:So that they are small enough to cross into the cells of the gut Matt's blood sugar levels are very low because he just finished swimming across the English Channel. His liver needs to mobilize its stored glucose to the rest of his body. What must be done to enable glucose to leave his liver cells? <br>A:secrete pancreatic amylase All of the following are true about the liver except: A: It does not directly produce bile All of the following are true about bile EXCEPT: <br>A:It is synthesized in the gallbladder Amylase is an enzyme found in Saliva. Which system is responsible for its development? <br>A:Cell Nucleus and its DNA Cyanide is a metabolic poison that works at which site? <BR>A: Electron transport complex The peptide bond is important for proteins because it is the bond that links the amino acids together to form the polypeptide. Matt is dying to hear which covalently bonded atoms would be removed to make a peptide bond? <br>A:-H, -OH "The diffusion of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase which subsequently causes ATP synthase to combine phosphate ion with ADP" defines which of the following words? <br>A:Chemiosmosis The term oxidative phosphorylation refers to which of the following? <br>A:A process in which a phosphate is added to adenosine diphosphate powered Hydrogen ion activating the ATP synthase pump. incThe adjective, glycolytic, refers to which condition? <br>A:Chemical reactions that do not require oxygen- called anaerobic What chemical structure inside the mitochondria is responsible for directly producing ATP? <br>A:ATP synthase Secretin directly produces which of the following? <br>A:Hydrochloric Acid The energy in the food is transferred to the cytochrome system from the Kreb's cycle in the mitochondria by a process of ? <BR>A: Oxidation of NADH and FADH A metabolic cycle fueled by Acetyl CoA that produces most of the NADH and FADH for ATP production is which of the following? A:Krebs Cycle For light to act during photosynthesis, it must activate which photosystem? A:Photosystem II and then Photosystem I Which of the two major categories of the chemical reactions in photosynthesis produce oxygen? A:Light dependent phase (LDP) What molecule(s) feed into the Calvin Cycle? A:<B>wrong:</b> NADH Three men are adrift in a boat in the Pacific Ocean. Their blood is which of the following? A: Isotonic What is the main characteristic of a covalent bond? A: it shares electrons The major output(s) of all livings systems are? A:Reproduction and ATP generation In the case of boxing, imagine that the skeletal muscle of the arm is the controlled system. What initially determines the amount of force in the arm- from a feedback point of view? A:The controller located in the pain incThere are a number of hormones that are produced to control appetite. These hormones have their effect on which group of cells? A:<B>wrong:</b>: Stomach cells Which gas is a metabolic product of photosynthesis <br>A:Oxygen The drug, nicotine, that you smoke is a byproduct of which reaction? A:Dark Reaction <p><B>25a:</b> "A protein that catalyzes a chemical reaction" defines which of the following terms? A:Enzyme Lactic acid in your muscles is the byproduct of which metabolic system? A:Glycolysis In the case of temperature regulation, imagine that the skeletal muscles are the controlled system. If the comparator senses that the output temperature is too low, it will cause the muscles to? A:Contract to generate heat The intestinal solution is hypertonic relative to blood. What will happen to the the patient? A:Fluid will leave the blood and enter the intestinal tract causing diarrhea You inject a hypotonic solution into a patient in her veins. What happens to her red blood cells? A: Nothing happens to red blood cells since they are protected from osmotic changes since they carry oxygen What are the four main types of biological macromolecules? <br>A:nucleic acids, proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates Which of the biomolecules has the longest digestion time? In other words, how long does it take for the biomolecule to be catabolized? A:<B>wrong:</b> Protein A hypertonic cell is floating in hypotonic solution. What happens to the cell? A:<b>wrong:</b> Produces lipids Dr. Pozos is giving an interview on the nightly news about biology. The interviewer seems amazed at the incversatility of proteins and asks, "What does a protein NOT do?" Dr. Pozos feels you should handle this question. What would the answer be? A:<B>wrong:</b> Act as a source of nitrogen for other molecules in the body The carbon-nitrogen bond that connects amino acids together in a protein is referred to as the... A: peptide bond The carbon dioxide that we exhale(breathe out) is produced by way of which metabolic pathway? A: Krebs cycle also called Citric Acid cycle A person is very fatigued. You give her oxygen and tell her that oxygen will give her energy by way of glycolysis. That is an incorrect statement since: A: By definition, glycolysis is an anaerobic set of chemical reactions The setpoint for your body's temperature is in terms of degrees Centigrade. What will the units of the output be? A: Degrees Centigrade TEST TWO 1. In the evolution of hominids, there was a historical point in which the numbers were very small due to environmental pressures. Eventually, the numbers increased dramatically along with certain specific genetic changes. This result in genetic incchanges of the population at that historical point is called the... Founder effect Hunting effecthominids f​Bottleneck effect Genetic effect Not enough information to make an informed decisionl 2. Which of the following is an explanation of the development of the large brain in Homo sapiens? Bottleneck effect Larmakian epigenetics over 200 years Founder effect Microevolution- WRONG 3. You notice that in some families that all the children look alike. This observation can be used to bolster the view that independent assortment is? These observations have nothing to do with independent assortment 4increasing blood flow throughout the body There is no biological justification for sickle cell anemia in person living in San Diego The benefit of sickle cell anemia is short lived in that it is only expressed when malaria is present. The same in that it protects its carriers from malaria 7. How does Punnett square relate to the genotype? Punnett's square is just another way of showing all possible genotype combination Punnett's square determines phenotype and has nothing to do with genotype There is no relationship between Punnett's square and genotype. As was explained in class, Punnett's square only works in laboratory setting and has nothing to do with actual biology 8. Which of the following is a stem cell that has the potential to differentiate into a vast number of cell types and avoid some of the ethical issues associated with stem cell research? Embryonic stem cells (ES) Cord stem cells Fetal stem cells Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS) 9. As one studies the phylogenetic tree, there are branch points. These branch points represent which of the following? Mimicry Microevolution Speciation Coevolution 10. Which of the following is a major development that appeared in the evolution of hom Bigger bra​ins incVocal noises Smaller heads 11. During translation, amino acids are combined to form proteins. What is required for the process to occur? All three processes are required - t​his is not an answer??? Oxygen to power the formation of ATP ATP to power the union of the amino acids Specific enzymes to join the various amino acids 12. Fetal alcohol syndrome is an example of a birth defect that can be caused by ________. A teratogen passing from mother to embryo during fertilization Improper differentiation of stem cells Failure to abstain from alcohol during pregnancy Alcohol exposure preventing fertilization Disruption of implantat 13. Which of the following concepts IS included in Lamarck’s "Transformism"? As an organism develops, it acquires many individual biological characters because of how it uses its body. Species are transformed because of natural selection of traits in the population which favorable to the environment that are then inherited by their offspring. Species can become transformed if the individually acquired modifications were inherited by the individual's offspring. As an organism develops, it acquires many individual biological characters due to accidents. As an organism develops, it acquires many individual biological characters due to the organism's history of diseases. ​W​hich one is this 14. In the genetic code, there are sets of codons that encode for different amino acids. Why does the genetic code have three different sets of codons rather than just one set to encode for amino acids. Bind onto dna About how many different amino acids are commonly available for the synthes Codons are more then enough to code for all the 20 amino acids but the duplication is a form of a backup system to make sure that certain key amino acids are formed. The number of codons determines the number of amino acids that need to be produced. This is a safeguard measure so that there is always enough protein in the body We need only 20 amino acids to make protein, hence the codons are just enough to ensure that development 15. Which of the following is a law based on Mendel's experiments? Independent assortment is based on the mitotic drive of cells?? Independent assortment law is based on his observations of homologous recombination Natural selection is based on mitotic assortment is bassed on epigenetic modification Natural selection is based on homologous recombination 16. October is breast cancer awareness month. Assuming that breast cancer starts in the breast duct, which of the following is incthe phenotype that you should be aware of? Whether the patient is eating more than normal to support the cancer Whether the mother and aunt had the genes for breast cancer There are no phenotypes for breast cancer. It can only be determined by mamography. Whether there is a lump or not in the breast??? 17. You go to visit your friend in the hospital who has a cancerous growth in their breast. According to their physician, the cancer is continuing to spread throughout their body. Which of the following processes will the physician try to stop so that there is a decrease in the growth of the cancer? Apoptosis Meiosis Mitosis Epigenetics 18. Which of the following factors would be most important in determining the type of treatment for cancer? All of these Location of the tumor Size of the tumor Rate of Metastasis 19. Transfer RNA is produced by which hox genes provwof the following? Sugars in the ribosomes Proteins ​Nucleotides in the ribosome Nucleotides in the DNA DNA drug 20. Homosapiens orginally had dark skin due to the fact that? Homo sapiens evolved into two distinct groups in Africa: the dark and light pigmented groups. The light pigmented groups migrated to nothern latitudes. All primates have dark skinThe melanin in the dark skin protected homo sapiens from uv radiation The melanin in the dark skin attracted sunlight which made vitamin D 21. Hox genes provide evidence for evolution because _______ is similar in flies and humans. The DNA sequence of Hox genes 1,2,1 The order of Hox genes along the chromosome 1,2, 3 The Hox genes are the same number in fruit flies and humans 2,3 inccell cycle 22. A cell is about to undergo DNA replication. Helicase unzips the double helix by breaking bonds between which of the following? (Hint: this portion helps to form the double helix shape) Phosphate groups Nitrogenous bases Phosphate group and pentose sugar Amino acids Pentose sugaron 23. During Gastrulation, your body begins to have segmentation and all cells are organized into an anterior- posterior axis. What is thedirect explanation for this body plan? A set of genes controls the growth of cells. These Genes are called the Fox set of genes A set of genes controls the orientation of cells. These genes are called the Hox genes In the uterus, there is more blood supply to the front and back of the developing embryo promoting anterior to posterior growth. Cells are rapidly undergoing mitosis and by necessity are growing anterior to posterior 24. Transcription of a gene has just completed. What are the next steps (in the correct order) to complete expression of that gene? Gene expression is completed after transcription. mRNA is translated in the nucleus and the protein moves to the cytoplasm. Translation machinery moves into the nucleus and mRNA is translated into protein.order of developmentmRNA moves into the cytoplasm and is translated into protein by way of the mitochondria. 25. Genes that slow down or stop the cell cycle are called... Restriction gene Oncogenes Apoptotic genes Tumor suppressor genes None of these 26. Which of the following is NOT an approach utilized by gene therapy? Remove the mutated gene​ - THIS ONE Alter the regulation of the mutated gene Introduce a normal (unmutated) copy of the gene to another location in the genome Swap the abnormal gene with a normal copy of the gene 27. You ​have a dark skin complexion and your brother has a light skin complexion. Which of the following is the explanation of the differences?​. You Epigenetic factors influenced your phenotype None of the above incDuring meiosis in your parents' gametes, different gender alleles were involved in determining skin color During meiosis in your parents' gametes, different skin color alleles were expressed ANSWER?? 28. Which of the following is the correct order of development? Cleavage, organogenesis, gastrulation, fertilization, differentiation Organogenesis, gastrulation, fertilization, cleavage, differentiation Fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, differentiation, organo 29.Mutations cause disruptions in human function. A classic example is cystic fibrosis which is genetically caused by… Alteration of transport of chloride ion transport in all cells in the body Alteration of proteins throughout the body that causes abnormal water transport. Alteration of a protein that determines indirectly osmotic pressures in the lung cells Alteration of mucous production in the respiratory system due to sodium chloride transport abnormalities in the ​respiratory system​t. ??? 30.You have a friend who hurt his spinal cord. You have access to stem cells that can code for mesoderm, ectoderm or tendoderm. Which stem cells would you use to help your friend help grow his neural tissue? Those that code for all three. Those that code for mesoderm Those that code for ectoderm ← this one Those that code for endoderm If you wanted to make a copy of DNA in the lab, which protein would you need to complete the synthesis of a new strand of DNA? <BR>DNA polymerase Which of the following signals the end of the cleavage phase? A. Formation of a blastocyst Which of the following is how a damaged cell dies? A: necrosis This region (a) tells RNA polymerase where to bind to DNA while this region (b) tells RNA where to start transcription: <BR>(a) promoter, (b) start site How is it that a mutation in DNA stored inside the nucleus of a cell can cause a disease affecting multiple incorgans? <BR>The mutated DNA is expressed in multiple cells through the process of transcription and translation, and the altered protein causes the disease wherever the DNA was expressed. A defect exists in a cell that results in cyclin dependent kinases that are constitutively (always) active. Which of the following is the most likely result? <BR>Cancerous cells develop Methylation of a tumor suppressor gene may lead to loss of cell cycle regulation A genetic syndrome exists where male babies are born with an extra Y chromosome, resulting in an XYY genotype. Which of the following reproductive errors correctly explains this genetic anomaly? A: Meiotic chromosome non-disjunction The fetus ________. A: must produce surfactant before its lungs can function Which of the following is not a teratogen? A: None of these Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense? A: a tiger who has many cubs, twelve of which live to adulthood. Which of these following statements is TRUE? A: Natural selection has been demonstrated to occur in wild populations. Which of the below statements is NOT TRUE about human evolution? A: Humans evolved from biological processes that are different from the processes that govern the evolution of all life on Earth. What is the best definition of evolution? A: <BR><B>wrong: </b>change in genetic material in an individual. Which came first in the development of homo sapiens? A: bipedalism Which source of stem cells has nearly limitless potential for differentiation, and avoids most of the ethical incissues associated with stem cell research? A: Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS) Fetal alcohol syndrome is an example of a birth defect that can be caused by ________.transcripti A: failure to abstain from alcohol during pregnancy Which of the following observations provides evidence in support of evolution? A: All of these The genetic code is used to translate ____________________ into __________________________? A: Nucleotides, amino acids Transfer RNA does which of the following? <BR>wrong: Brings proteins to the ribosome How does tRNA bring the correct amino acid to the translation complex for protein synthesis? A: The two features of a tRNA molecule, the anti-codon and the specific binding of one amino acid, allows RNA to bring in the correct amino acid Transcription of a gene has just completed. What are the next steps (in the correct order) to complete expression of that gene? mRNA moves into the cytoplasm and is translated into protein. The monomers of DNA are ___________ and are made of ______________. nucleotides; a pentose sugar, a group,and a nitrogenous base Which of the following is the correct set of combinations used in DNA nucleotide base pairing?(A= adenine, T=thymine, G=Guanine and Cytosine) A: A and T, G and C Which of the following is NOT a way nucleotide mutations lead to altered proteins? One nucleotide is replaced by another nucleotide, which can lengthen an amino acid sequence. As was discussed in class, skin color is an example of? A: Demonstrates how the central dogma is expressed due to environmental influences A cell is getting ready to divide and is starting DNA replication. During this process, helicase unzips the double helix by breaking the bonds between the ________________, t A: he part of the nucleotides that is responsible for the formation of the double helix. incphosphate group and pentose sugar You go to visit your friend in the hospital who has a cancerous growth in the brain. The cancer is continue to spread throughout his body according to his physician. Which of the following processes will the physician try to stop the growth of the cancer? A: Mitosis A close friend has recently been diagnosed with a genetic disease wants to better understand how gene therapy works. You tell him that gene therapy uses the following information to design a treatment for a given disease: A: Most diseases have a genetic origin in which one or more genes are mutated (Not an option) ^To correct for certain specific diseases yatta yatta one gene Which of the following concepts were NOT included in Lamarck's Transformism? A: Species are transformed because of natural selection of traits favorable to the environment that are then inherited to the offspring. Which is the correct sequence? <BR><B>wrong</b> Chromosome to DNA to Gene What is the primary function of S phase? DNA replication Punnet square is which of the following? Example of all possible combinations of alleles A family of molecules that helps regulate the cell cycle are known as Cyclin-dependent kinases The common theme in the development of all cancers is mutation Genes that cause rapid cell cycle progression are called carcinogens In the development of the fetus, which of the following is directly responsible for causing the development of the body plan? Gastrulation incA genotype is: The genetic basis of a trait Mendel’s law of independent assortment states that: Alleles of one gene separate independently from those of another DURING WHAT If only one copy of an allele is sufficient to cause a phenotype, than the allele is: Dominant Hitchhiker’s thumb is a recessive trait. If a homozygous recessive person and heterozygous person mate, what is the chance their child will have hitchhiker’s thumb? <BR>wrong: 25% Mutations cause disruptions in human function by which of the following? Producing protein that has an abnormal three dimensional structure which prevents normal function The combination of natural selection Mendelian genetics is called …. Neo-Darwinism The common theory for evolution is that: all living systems have a genetic code As discussed in class, the function of the placenta is to do which of the following? A: Bring oxygen to the fetus by way of diffusion. The blood of the mother does not enter the growing fetus A: supports the growing fetus by way of transmitting food to the growing fetus but not oxygen (e-final) Blood, muscle, and kidneys derive from which germ layer established during gastrulation? B Neanderthal hominoids had which of the following characteristics? <BR>wrong: Ability to speak Which of the following cell twpes is considered pluripotent? Embryonic stem cells Epigenetic modifications: incDNA MYTHLAIN What is the name given to the embryonic stage shown below? Zygote In most cases, dealing with human fertilization, only one sperm is able to fertilize the egg. This process is produced by a system that promotes Negative feedback If you wanted to make a copy of DNA in the lab, which protein would you need to complete the synthesis of a new strand of DNA? <BR>DNA polymerase This region (a) tells RNA polymerase where to bind to DNA while this region (b) tells RNA where to start transcription: <BR>(a) promoter, (b) start site How is it that a mutation in DNA stored inside the nucleus of a cell can cause a disease affecting multiple organs? <BR>The mutated DNA is expressed in multiple cells through the process of transcription and translation, and the altered protein causes the disease wherever the DNA was expressed. A defect exists in a cell that results in cyclin dependent kinases that are constitutively (always) active. Which of the following is the most likely result? <BR>Cancerous cells develop Methylation of a tumor suppressor gene may lead to <BR>loss of cell cycle regulation A genetic syndrome exists where male babies are born with an extra Y chromosome, resulting in an XYY genotype. Which of the following reproductive errors correctly explains this genetic anomaly? <BR>Meiotic chromosome non-disjunction The fetus ________. <BR>must produce surfactant before its lungs can function Which of the following is not a teratogen? <BR>None of these incWhich of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense? <BR>a tiger who has many cubs, twelve of which live to adulthood. Which of these following statements is TRUE? <BR>Natural selection has been demonstrated to occur in wild populations. Which of the below statements is NOT TRUE about human evolution? <BR>Humans evolved from biological processes that are different from the processes that govern the evolution of all life on Earth. What is the best definition of evolution? <BR><B>wrong: </b>change in genetic material in an individual. Which came first in the development of homo sapiens? <BR>bipedalism <Which source of stem cells has nearly limitless potential for differentiation, and avoids most of the ethical issues associated with stem cell research? <BR>Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS) Fetal alcohol syndrome is an example of a birth defect that can be caused by ________. <BR>failure to abstain from alcohol during pregnancy Which of the following observations provides evidence in support of evolution? <BR>All of these The genetic code is used to translate ____________________ into __________________________? <BR>Nucleotides, amino acids Transfer RNA does which of the following? <BR>wrong: Brings proteins to the ribosome How does tRNA bring the correct amino acid to the translation complex for protein synthesis? <BR>The two features of a tRNA molecule, the anti-codon and the ability to bind one amino acid, allows RNA to bring in the correct amino acid​ not an option Transcription of a gene has just completed. What are the next steps (in the correct order) to complete expression of that gene? incmRNA moves into the cytoplasm and is translated into protein. The monomers of DNA are ___________ and are made of ______________. nucleotides; a pentose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base Which of the following is the correct set of combinations used in DNA nucleotide base pairing?(A= adenine, T=thymine, G=Guanine and Cytosine) A and T, G and C Which of the following is NOT a way nucleotide mutations lead to altered proteins? One nucleotide is replaced by another nucleotide, which can lengthen an amino acid sequence. As was discussed in class, skin color is an example of? Demonstrates how the central dogma is expressed due to environmental influences A cell is getting ready to divide and is starting DNA replication. During this process, helicase unzips the double helix by breaking the bonds between the ________________, the part of the nucleotides that is responsible for the formation of the double helix. phosphate group and pentose sugar You go to visit your friend in the hospital who has a cancerous growth in the brain. The cancer is continue to spread throughout his body according to his physician. Which of the following processes will the physician try to stop the growth of the cancer? Mitosis A close friend has recently been diagnosed with a genetic disease wants to better understand how gene therapy works. You tell him that gene therapy uses the following information to design a treatment for a given disease: Most diseases have a genetic origin in which one or more genes are mutated NOT AN OPTION Which of the following concepts were NOT included in Lamarck's Transformism? Species are transformed because of natural selection of traits favorable to the environment that are then inherited to the offspring. Which is the correct sequence? <BR><B>wrong</b> Chromosome to DNA to Gene What is the primary function of S phase? incDNA replication Punnett's square is which of the following? Example of all possible combinations of alleles A family of molecules that helps regulate the cell cycle are known as Cyclin-dependent kinases The common theme in the development of all cancers is mutation Genes that cause rapid cell cycle progression are called carcinogens In the development of the fetus, which of the following is directly responsible for causing the development of the body plan? Gastrulation A genotype is: The genetic basis of a trait Mendel’s law of independent assortment states that: Alleles of one gene separate independently from those of another during meios​is If only one copy of an allele is sufficient to cause a phenotype, than the allele is: Dominant Hitchhiker’s thumb is a recessive trait. If a homozygous recessive person and heterozygous person mate, what is the chance their child will have hitchhiker’s thumb? <BR>wrong: 25% Mutations cause disruptions in human function by which of the following? Producing protein that has an abnormal three dimensional structure which prevents normal function The combination of natural selection and Mendelian genetics is called …. Neo-Darwinism The common theory for evolution is that: all living systems have a genetic code incAs discussed in class, the function of the placenta is to do which of the following? Bring oxygen to the fetus by way of diffusion. The blood of the mother does not enter the growing fetus Blood, muscle, and kidneys derive from which germ layer established during gastrulation? <BR>B Neanderthal hominoids had which of the following characteristics? <BR>wrong: Ability to speak Which of the following cell types is considered pluripotent? Embryonic stem cells Epigenetic modifications: <BR>wrong: Can be inherited from your parents What is the name given to the embryonic stage shown below? Zygote In most cases, dealing with human fertilization, only one sperm is able to fertilize the egg. This process is produced by a system that promotes Negative feedback TEST THREE <br><B>1a:</b> How does alcohol cause blackouts for social drinkers? <br>A: <B>wrong: </b> none of these are correct <p><B>2a:</b> Increasing the frequency of a sound wave does what to the sound? <br>A: increases the tone <br><B>3a:</b> What is the difference between smooth and skeletal muscle? (Select ALL that apply) <br>A: smooth muscles are under control of the autonomic nervous system while skeletal muscles are under the control of the somatic nervous system <BR>smooth muscles are not as organized as skeletal muscles are <p><B>4a:</b> Which part of the cardiovascular system has the lowest pressure? <br>A: Vena cava inc<BR> <br><B>5a:</b> Stroke Volume refers to which of the following? <br>A: amount of blood ejected during systole from the aorta <p><B>6a:</b> Which side of the capillary bed has the higher oncotic pressure? <br>A: venule side <BR> <br><B>7a:</b> During expiration, what occurs to the diaphragm? <br>A: The diaphragm moves into the thoracic cavity <p><B>8a:</b> The following correctly illustrates the sequence of events between the sending of a signal by one cell and the response to that signal by another cell: <br>A: Ligand is synthesized-> Ligand is released -> Ligand is transported to the target cell -> Ligand binds to the receptor->Signaling pathway is activated <BR> <br><B>9a:</b> Which hormone stimulates the growth and maturation of the egg: <br>A: Follicle stimulating hormone <p><B>10a:</b> Which type of cell is the target of antidepressant drugs? <br>A: A neuron <BR> <br><B>11a:</b> Fedor Emelianenko just delivered a knock-out punch to Brett Rogers during a fight. Brett Rogers cannot remember events that happened before the knock-out. What is this an example of? <br>A: retrograde amnesia <br><B>11b:</b> The definition of Anterograde Amnesia is: <br>A: the impairment in storing new memories. <P><B>12b:</b> Why does the process of short-term memory use neurotransmitters? <BR>A: <B>wrong</b>: neurotransmitters can travel more easily between cells than RNA or protein can <BR> inc<p><B>12c:</b> Which of the following bring oxygen directly to the neurons? <br>A:Capillaries <BR> <BR><B>13a:</b> What is/are the difference(s) between short-term and long-term memory? <BR>A: all of these are correct <BR> <br><B>13c:</b> Drinking large amounts of ethanol will alter short term memory. This observation suggests that? <br>A: Ethanol must influence the connections between neurons <p><B>14c:</b> You are listening to some of your favorite "tunes" and eating a great sandwich. The proteins in the sandwich must get directly to the cells by way of which system. <br>A: Capillaries <BR> <br><B>15b:</b> _______represents ventricular depolarization which is usually 0.06 to 0.1 sec in duration suggesting that this depolarization occurs very fast. <br>A: QRS Complex <BR>are involved Independent assortment works during mitosis Might not always be operational Always working 4. The foregut is responsible for which of the following? Lining of the trachea and lungs Development of the pancreas Development of the liver All of these Development of the stomach 5. In humans, fertilization occurs where? Oviduct Vagina Uterus Ovary 6. If sickle cell anemia benefited its carriers in prehistoric times, what is its value today in San Diego? Although Sickle Cell protected its carriers from malaria, today it would promote more cardiovascular well being by inc<BR><B>16a:</b> You are aiming for a perfect score on the “hard” level for a Rock Band song. What processes are involved in achieving a perfect score? <BR>A: <B>wrong</b> coordination of the auditory and frontal cortex <BR> <p><B>16c:</b> You are texting on your cell phone and you look up and immediately rear-end the car in front of you. Your heart rate increases. Which of the following increases it? <br>A: Autonomic sympathetic fibers <BR> <br><B>17b:</b> Which factors hinder our ability to make decisions? <br>A: competition and diversion of brain activity cell <p><B>18a:</b> Fainting is also referred to as: (choose the BEST answer) <br>A: syncope <BR> <BR><B>19a:</b> If there is a positive pressure in the thorax, what happens to the lung? <BR>A: It deflates <BR> The “p” wave represents which of the following? A. systole atrial or atrial systole The p wave of the electrocardiogram is associated with? A: Atrial contraction Angina refers to which condition? A: Low oxygen to cardiac muscle You start doing CPR on Dr. Pozos. You stop since you have to answer your cell phone. As a result of stopping CPR, what occurs? A: Stopping CPR causing major damage to the cardiac cells since these cells cannot survive without blood flow for any period of time. Once the acetylcholine attaches to the acetylcholine receptor it causes a change in the membrane cochlea so that it causes ___ to rush in triggering a ___. A: Sodium ion, action potential incHow long can a person survive after their cardiac cells stop contracting? A: 3-5 minutes Which of the following describes fibrillation: A: the cardiac cells are working individually rather than as a team For your blood vessels to constrict which muscle group is primarily responsible? A: Smooth muscle Defne: Amygdala A: a structure in your temporal lobe that helps translate signals from sensory inputs to response in your autonomic nervous. If heart rate stays the same, and stroke volume decreases, cardiac output will A: Decrease Which of the following events must occur for blood to leave the left ventricle? A: opening of the aortic valve When the left ventricle is having difficulty contracting, what happens in the pulmonary alveoli? A: Fluid in the capillary/alveolar space increases The right atrium receives blood from? A: both superior and inferior vena cava The coronary arteries supply oxygen to which tissue? A: both cardiac and pacemaker cells The coronary arteries are derived from which structure ? A: Aorta In the middle ages, young men were castrated so that they could have powerful voices but sing in the high frequency range. These men were called the "castrati" and were honored . The castration would have decreased which hormones? A: Hormones in the testes that would have supported male development incWhich of the following biological processes are controlled by signaling? <br>A: <B>wrong</b> Growth Which hormone stimulates the growth and maturation of the egg: A: Follicle stimulating hormone You are studying for your exam and your friend says that when a cell sends a signal back to itself that the chemical is considered to be an hormone. <BR>A: <b>wrong:</b> She is wrong because a hormone never affects the cell that produce it Depression affects how you: A: All of these Depression is not related to which of the following disorders: A: acromegaly Extracellular signals only ________ specific receptors and cells only _________ certain receptors A: bind to; express For a hormone to have its effect, it must leave the group of cells producing it and go through which part of the circulation system to have its effect on its target cells A: <B>wrong</b> Lymph Which organ in the brain secretes growth hormone: A: The anterior pituitary What is the definition of a signaling pathway? A: A group of gene products (proteins) that work together in a specific cellular process How does alcohol cause blackouts for social drinkers? A: <B>wrong: </b> none of these are correct Which is true about the autonomic nervous system? A: All of these are correct Increasing the frequency of a sound wave does what to the sound? A: increases the tone What is the difference between smooth and skeletal muscle? (Select ALL that apply) incA: smooth muscles are under control of the autonomic nervous system while skeletal muscles are under the control of the somatic nervous system smooth muscles are not as organized as skeletal muscles are Which part of the cardiovascular system has the lowest pressure? A: Vena cava Stroke Volume refers to which of the following? A: amount of blood ejected during systole from the aorta Which side of the capillary bed has the higher oncotic pressure? A: venule side During expiration, what occurs to the diaphragm? A: The diaphragm moves into the thoracic cavity The following correctly illustrates the sequence of events between the sending of a signal by one cell and the response to that signal by another cell: A: Ligand is synthesized-> Ligand is released -> Ligand is transported to the target cell -> Ligand binds to the receptor->Signaling pathway is activated Which hormone stimulates the growth and maturation of the egg: A: Follicle stimulating hormone Which type of cell is the target of antidepressant drugs? A: A neuront Fedor Emelianenko just delivered a knock-out punch to Brett Rogers during a fight. Brett Rogers cannot remember events that happened before the knock-out. What is this an example of? A: retrograde amnesia The definition of Anterograde Amnesia is: A: the impairment in storing new memories. Why does the process of short-term memory use neurotransmitters? A: <B>wrong</b>: neurotransmitters can travel more easily between cells than RNA or protein can Which of the following bring oxygen directly to the neurons? incA:Capillaries What is/are the difference(s) between short-term and long-term memory? A: all of these are correct Drinking large amounts of ethanol will alter short term memory. This observation suggests that? A: Ethanol must influence the connections between neurons You are listening to some of your favorite "tunes" and eating a great sandwich. The proteins in the sandwich must get directly to the cells by way of which system. A: Capillaries _______represents ventricular depolarization which is usually 0.06 to 0.1 sec in duration suggesting that this depolarization occurs very fast. A: QRS Complex You are aiming for a perfect score on the “hard” level for a Rock Band song. What processes are involved in achieving a perfect score? A: <B>wrong</b> coordination of the auditory and frontal cortex You are texting on your cell phone and you look up and immediately rear-end the car in front of you. Your heart rate increases. Which of the following increases it? A: Autonomic sympathetic fibers Which factors hinder our ability to make decisions? A: competition and diversion of brain activity Fainting is also referred to as: (choose the BEST answer) A: syncope If there is a positive pressure in the thorax, what happens to the lung? A: It deflates The p wave of the electrocardiogram is associated with? A: Atrial contraction Angina refers to which condition? A: Low oxygen to cardiac muscleCPR incYou start doing CPR on Dr. Pozos. You stop since you have to answer your cell phone. As a result of stopping CPR, what occurs? A: Stopping CPR causing major damage to the cardiac cells since these cells cannot survive without blood flow for any period of time. For muscle to contract, what is the first reaction that must occur? A: ACetylcholine activates the nicotinic receptor Which of the following are differences between skeletal and cardiac muscle? (Mark all that apply) A: Cardiac muscle cells are branched rather than linear and longitudinal & fewer t-tubules in comparison with skeletal muscle Define: Amygdala A: ​a structure in your temporal lobe that helps translate signals from sensory inputs to responses in your autonomic nervous If heart rate stays the same, and stroke volume decreases, cardiac output will A: Decrease When the left ventricle is having difficulty contracting, what happens in the pulmonary alveoli? A: Fluid in the capillary/alveolar space increases The right atrium receives blood from? A: both superior and inferior vena cava The coronary arteries supply oxygen to which tissue? A: both cardiac and pacemaker cells The coronary arteries are derived from which structure? A: Aorta In the middle ages, young men were castrated so that they could have powerful voices but sing in the high frequency range. These men were called the "castrati" and were honored . The castration would have decreased which hormones? A: Hormones in the testes that would have supported male development wrong Which of the following biological processes are controlled by signaling? A: <B>wrong</b> Growth incWhich hormone stimulates the growth and maturation of the egg: A: Follicle stimulating hormone You are studying for your exam and your friend says that when a cell sends a signal back to itself that the chemical is considered to be an hormone. A: <b>wrong:</b> She is wrong because a hormone never affects the cell that produce it Depression affects how you: A: All of these For a steroid hormone to have its effect, which of the following would be the first step? A: It must leave the capillary to enter the cell Depression is not related to which of the following disorders: A: acromegaly Extracellular signals only ________ specific receptors and cells only _________ certain receptors A: bind to; express For a hormone to have its effect, it must leave the group of cells producing it and go through which part of the circulation system to have its effect on its target cells A: <B>wrong</b> Lymph Which organ in the brain secretes growth hormone: A: The anterior pituitarythis What is the definition of a signaling pathway? A: A group of gene products (proteins) that work together in a specific cellular process Which of the following is a normal blood pressure reading? A: 120 systolic/ 80 diastolic Inotropism… A: The force that muscles generate at a given muscle length. What percentage of the population suffers with high blood pressure? A: 25% incA person is shot in a combat zone. The first intervention is to give him intravenous fluids. Why? A: Increase in fluids increase stroke volume High hydrostatic pressure on the arterial side of the capillary promotes…. A: Filtration into the tissue surrounding the capillary Where are 75% of parasympathetic fibers found? A: The vagus nerve (cranial nerve x) Which of the following is considered a vestigal structure? A: canine teeth in human beings if dr pozos is breathing after cpr you dont need to continue anymore correct? CPR is for when the heart stops beating, not when a person stops breathing. Ok so CPR should be continued then because it is dangerous to stop? CPR should be continued until their heart starts beating again, if there is an answer like that… Ok thank you very much An 80 year old woman is found in her small living room and is cold to the touch. She is lying face down on the floor. Her face is bruised as well as her fingers. The bruises are due to which of the following? A) Damage to the blood vessels in her face which allows blood to leave the capillaries Co-receptors for HIV are…. A: Molecules that are on the surface along with CD4 protein… How does an Integrase inhibitor work against the HIV virus? A: It prevents viral DNA from being inserted into host DNA. Which of the following is a structure alcohol effects after prolonged exposure? A: Stomach In the electron transfer system, which… reduced? -Oxygen Which of the following generates ATP? -Atp Synthase direct activation by way of hydrogen ion inc...the intestines that control app… these hormones must interact… by way of which of the following? -being transported throughout the body by… A new football coach tells his team that the reason they get fatigued is because they do not have enough oxygen in their blood. To get more oxygen so that they can play for longer periods of time, they need to…? -Their fatigue is not due to a lack of oxygen in the blood but possibly due to the production of carbon dioxide in skeletal muscles​phospholipid ...about biology. The interviewer seems amazed at… versatility of proteins and asks, “what does a protein do?” Dr. Pozos fee;s you should handle this question. What would the answer be? -act as a storage for genetic information The nicotine in a cigarette activates which cell structure? -nicotine receptors composed of protein located in… The most abundant protein on… following enzymes? -rubisco Which of the following is composed of a phospholipid bi-layer? - cell membrane What chemical structure inside… responsible for directly producing…? -ATP synthase The adjective, glycolytic, refers…? -chemical reactions that do not require oxygen-... -ATP is produced in which an inorganic phosphate is added to ADP without ATPsynthase In which of the following does the fermentation… occur? -Anaerobic environment What molecule(s) plays the role of ox… photosynthesis? -NADPH -production of carbohydrates only as a result of rubisco The carbon-nitrogen bond that connects together in a protein is referred to as the… inc-peptide bond -analyze the problem and pose a hypothesis; investigate the premises and condition necessary for the premises the process which is the opposite of molecular separation of glucose is… -gluconeogenesis When a person is suffering from malnutrition, the decrease in blood osmolarity occurs where? -blood When a person is classified as obese, the excess lipids are an expression of which of the following? -excess ATP Which of the following areas does glycolysis occur? -cytoplasm of the cell The drug, nicotine, that you smoke is a… which reaction? -dark reaction Three men are adrift on a boat in the pacific ocean… drink coconut water for 5 days from the… brought on board. what is their blood tonic… 5 days? -isotonic which of the following is an enzyme that… carboxy-terminal (C-terminal) end of a pep…? -carboxypeptidase Which of the following is a chemical that… urea sas a result of protein metabolism? -nitrogen which of the following is a reason that embryonic stem cell(ES) research maybe considered to be ethically controversial? -ES maybe harvested from an aborted fetus What powers the metabolism of the union of the diploid egg and the diploid sperm? inc-none of the above Which type of the cell is the target of antidepressant drugs? -neurons in the limbic system that control mood. One of the classic tools for treating depression which is not corrected by drugs is electroconvulsive shock. The patient has his/her brain electrically stimulated so as to induce convulsions. The treatment works in that it decreases the level of depression. How would the electroconvulsive treatment work? -cause an increase in presynaptic chemical release in those areas of the brain that control mood A person has a clinical case of depression. her family also has a history of depression. The depression is which of the following? -a phenotype hypertension is a major killer in the united states. which of the following is the best way to decrease hypertension? -vasodilating blood vessels Which of the following refers to preload? -amount of blood in the left ventricle before systole A victim of a vampire attack has passed out. the vampire tool too much blood. (Amateur!) You give the victim an intravenous dose of adrenaline. Which of the following would the adrenaline affect first? -sympathetic tone you have a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The 80 represents which of the following? -​The pressure associated with diastole, which is cardiac muscle relaxation there was a horrific traffic accident and you run to help the victims. You feel a carotid pulse on one of the victims, however the medic comes along and gets no blood pressure roading from the arm of the same victim!! The medic claims the victim is dead. You think which of the following? -medic is incorrect since you can feel a carotid pulse. This means the person is still alive. An 80 year old woman is found in her small living room to be cold to the touch. she is lying face down on the floor. her face is bruised as well as her fingers. the bruises are due to which of the following? -damage to the capillaries in her face which allows blood to leave capillaries. Troy was desperate. He had to lose 20 lbs to qualify for the team. He had not watched his diet over the summer and now the coach gave him a month to “shape up or ship out!” Troy found a new drug called incDNP on the web that would raise his temperature but would make him lose weight. He was into his his second week and he noticed that his heart rate was much higher than he remembered and he felt like he had a fever. But, Troy had lost 9 lbs. He had not told anyone about DNP. What is going on with Troy’s biology. A: DNP stops the establishment proton gradient across the cytochromes. As a consequence, the energy of the proton gradient is lost as heat. Cells produce low amounts of ATP and consequently, they have to use carbohydrates and lipid reserves to generate more ATP. Extracellular signal molecules can be? please be complete with your answer. -all of these A chemical is released from a group of cells in your stomach. these chemicals affect target cells in close proximity to those cells and cause them to produce a bizzare set of enzymes that begin to destroy their own cells!! the chemicals that are released are classified as which of the following? -paracrine The following correctly illustrates the sequence of events between the sending of a hormone by one cell menstruatand the response to that hormone by another cell: -ligand is synchronized-> ligand is released-> ligand is transported to the target cell-> ligand binds to the receptor-> signaling pathway is act Which of the following structures found in skeletal muscles, to which of the following is myosin attached? -thin filament During skeletal muscle contraction where does ATP function? -attaches to myosin A sprinter, as opposed to a long distance runner, has large thigh and buttock muscles. Which of the following chemical reactions will be used by the muscles during a sprint? -Glycolysis which hormone stimulates the growth and maturation of the egg? - … stimulating hormone you are studying for your exam with your friend and she says that when a cell sends a chemical signal back to itself to increase metabolic processes, that the chemical is considered to be a ____ hormone and causes___. -an autocrine hormone, positive feedback incIn the middle ages, young men were castrated so that the could have powerful voices but sing in the high frequency range. these men were called ” and were honored. (Castration involves the surgical removal of the testicles). the castration would have decreased which hormones? -testosterone in the testes that would have caused changes in the voice box so that their voices would sound lower ...left atrium is damaged and is generating a great… to blood coming out from pulmonary vein. what… to this pressure? -...of blood into the pulmonary vein subsequently causing blood to leave the arteries in the lung when the left ventricle is having difficulty contracting, there is more blood that stays in the ventricle what causes which of the following to occur in the alveolii? -increased pressure in the left ventricle causes an increase in fluid in the left atrium leading to increase in fluid in the pulmonary capillary which spills over into the alveoli If a patient is suffering from an increase in ventilation which is also called hyperventilation which os the following best describes the situation? -as the rate of ventilation increases, the volume of air inspired will decrease An eighteen year old male is intoxicated with a blood alcohol level of .35. (legal level is .08.) He is driving at high speed and smashes into another car… -...motor neurons that control the left side of his body have been damaged by the incident A motor neuron is severely damaged by a polovirus. which of the following… of this infection? -patient will not be able to move depending on which motor neuron… you are at a sdsu baseball game. sdsu… pitch for a homerun. you jump, you scream… the batter. it is a great time. which of the following… structures are involved in your jumping behavior? -somatic nervous system your sister lupe, has a very funny laugh in which at the end of her laughter she is increasing the amplitude of a sound wave. this increase in amplitude does what to the quality of her laugh? -increases the volume e.g. decibels you have your earbuds in and listening to you favorite… hairy legs. However, your cochlea has been… due to a viral infection. Based on the … which of the following is correct? -hammer,... Stirrups will be activated since they transfer the hairy legs songs from outside of ear to the cochlea. however, there will be no activation of the auditory cortex incyou hear your favorite song. Cocaine, and immediately your heart rate increases. this increase in heart rate is due to which of the following? -music activates the sympathetic nervous system first which also causes you to also have tingles up and down your spine during expiration, the diaphragm moves in a certain way and causes changes in pressures in the thorax and abdomen. Which of the following describes what the diaphragm does during inspiration? -the diaphragm moves into abdominal cavity and decreases pressure in the thorax the blood vessel that brings unoxygenated blood to the lungs from the heart is called___ and the blood is colored? -pulmonary artery, carbon dioxide Which component of the nervous system directly controls skeletal muscle fibers? -So​matic nervous system You have a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The 120 represents which of the following? -The pressure associated with heart contraction The organization of the circulation system is thought to be in parrallel. This results in which of the following? -Blood flow can be directed from one area to another without stopping blood to all parts of the body Which side of the capillary bed has the higher oncotic pressure! -venule side During expiration, what occurs to the diaphragm? -the diaphragm relaxes moving up into the thoracic cavity The following correctly illustrates the sequence of events between the sending of a signal by one cell and the response to that signal by another cell: -ligand is synthesized The biosphere is composed of: A: All of these incWhich of the following is a naturally occurring “greenhouse gas”? A: Carbon Dioxide The Cryosphere is composed of: A: Ice/snow Most Carbon Dioxide is produced by which of the following systems? A: Oxidative Phosphogaywhatever If many hominids developed, why did only one, us, survive? - Scientists have not decided on this question yet What type of environmental change is associated with transition to bipedality? - The climate becoming significantly cooler and drier. Which of the following facts is true? - humans did not directly evolve from chimpanzees Which of the following statements about sickle-cell anemia is false? - The sickle-cell disease will be immediately wiped out if a vaccine for malaria is found. From an evolutionary point of view, the development of a large brain in primates suggests which of the following? - All of the above Genetics marking of parrots bred in captivity using legal means can help in conservation of wild populations because… - owners who cannot get insurance without the DNA certificate will be less likely to buy the illegally traded wild parrots. DNA can be found in which of the following? - Bones Evidence for the evolution of humans comes from all of the following except… - creationism Neanderthal behavior did not include… - Settlement in permanent villages. incWhich of the following mutations will be favored and selected if the earth’s atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations significantly increased above the present day 385 parts per million, decreasing the percentage of oxygen in air? - Hemoglobin F mutation that increases transport efficiency of oxygen in low oxygen environments. It’s normal role is to provide the fetus with ​oxygen​, but the mutation, which is rare, increases the production of Hemoglobin F in adults without causing disease. F Neanderthal fossils have been found in... - Europe Which of the following is TRUE: A: all of these (antibiotic resistance could b e slowed by more tight regulation…, antibiotic resistance could be slowed by more tight regulation of antibiotics, antibiotic resistance could be slowed by enforcing people to take the full course of drugs, antibiotic resistance could be slowed by using antibiotics less frequently) How do pathogens build up an immunity to antibiotic drugs? - Antibiotic resistance genes are transferred between species of bacteria From an evolutionary point of view, bipedalism is the result of which of the following?which of the following contri - Both mutations and environmental factors Which of the below statements is NOT TRUE about human evolution? - Humans evolved from biological processes that are different from the processes that govern the evolution of all life on Earth. Which of the following is an example of how evolutionary principles help make sound conservation decisions? - Using phylogenetic information to determine which regions contain the greatest variety of biologically unique species. Which of the following contributed to the formation of the trait sickle cell anemia? - Plasmodium parasites From an evolutionary point of view, the development of a large brain in primates suggests which of the following? - All of the above incWhich of the following is not true about neanderthal and cro-magnon man? A: only cromagnon made necklaces and jewelry The creation of better crops is the result of which of the following? -​Plant breedin’ Genetic marking of parrots bred in captivity using legal means can help in conservation of wild populations because …. owners who can not get insurance without the DNA certificate will be less likely to buy the illegally traded wild parrots. Which of the following is the closest ancient common ancestor to modern humans? - Australopithecus afarensis The ability to perform a safe C-section has liberated human childbirth from natural selection directed against too small a maternal pelvis and too large a fetal head. Fetal head size is correlated with fetal birth weight and IQ. If the practice of having more and more human babies born with the assistance of C-section operations continues, what kind of changes would the populations with C-section assisted birth will NOT have? A lower iq Which if the following statements about sickle-cell anemia is fal​IQ In this diagram, the main purpose of it is to show… A: a signaling molecule will activate only the target cells that has a receptor that will accept its three dimensional configuration Depression effects which of the following? All of the above Imbalances of which of the following neurotransmitters in the brain alter mood? Serotonin in the brain that control emotions Depression is not related to which of the following? Increased pituitary growth Your friend didn’t do very well on E-test 3. He is sad and is crying. He sleeps for 18 hours when he is incnot crying. Subsequently, he goes to see his professor to try and figure out what he can do to get a better score on the Final exam. The day that he was in bed for all day illustrates which of the following? He is in a state of non-clinical depression What is the difference between smooth and skeletal muscle? Smooth muscles are under control of the autonomic nervous system while skeletal muscles are under control of the somatic nervous system Activation of the autonomic nervous system results which of the following? Activation or inactivation of all systems that have smooth muscle such as your intestinal tract You are trying to answer a tough test question. Frantically, you check Wikipedia, your notes and a textbook. Which of the following systems is directly involved in you moving the mouse as you check various websites? Somatic nervous system You discover a group of people who have a disorder, called Afluxcalcium, in which the calcium influx at the synapse between the alpha-receptors and skeletal muscle is inhibited? Which inhibited or altered due to this decrease level of calcium? WRONG The vesicle located at the end of the alpha motor neuron that releases acetylcholine You are at a sporting event and the person next to you pushes you out of his way. You respond immediately by pushing back and you notice tenthat your heart rate increased but also your significant other says your face is chalk white. What causes the color of your skin to turn white during a threatening situation? Sympathetic nervous system activation causing your blood vessels to constrict Which part of the brain controls the autonomic nervous system? The brain stem Cell receptors can be located at ________ and its production is directed by ________? Inside the cell on the nuclear membrane and on the surface of a cell: DNA Which of the following “biological conditions” are controlled or modified by cell signaling? Be complete in your answer. All of these In the lock and key example of signaling (hormonal) molecules, which is the lock and which is the key? The receptor is the lock and the ligand is the key incHypertension is a major killer in the United States. How does it do its damage? Blood vessels expand leading to vessel rupture. Which of the following refers to afterload? Pressure of the left ventricle must overcome to eject blood Your patient has hardening of the arteries. As a result the heart has to generate more force to propel the blood into the body. This increase in pressure that the heart faces is? Afterload The cerebral cortex is characterized by which of the following? Having specific areas that correspond to specific areas of the body ​for both sensory and motor skills. The autonomic nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system. What is the difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions? Parasympathetic division has the vagus nerve as one of its major components The spinal cord has segments that innervate specific areas of the body. These are which of the following? Please pick the one in correct order. Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral Which condition will result in an increase in venous pressure in the abdomen so that it significantly decreases venous flow from the legs? Pressure in the abdomen associated with straining during weight lifting or child birth If there is edema (e.g. increase in interstitial fluid), what does it do to the volume of blood that enters the capillary bed? Imagine the edema surrounds the capillary bed and compresses the capillaries. Decreases it by way of decreasing capillary hydrostatic pressure. Which of the following is most responsible for bringing oxygen directly to the neurons? Oxygen pressure difference between the capillaries and the cells. Which hormone stimulates the growth and maturation of the egg? Follicle stimulating hormoneange What physical property of steroid hormones allows them to cross the outer cell membrane? The lipophilic properties which means that it is able to pass through areas of the cell membrane incthat have lipids. You are studying for your exam with your friend and she says that when a cell sends a chemical signal back to itself to increase metabolic processes, that the chemical is considered to be a ________ hormone and causes ________ . An autocrine hormone: either positive or negative feedback. In the middle ages, young men were castrated so that they could have powerful voices but sing in the high frequency range. These men were called the “castri” and were honored. (Castration involves the surgical removal of the testicles). The castration would have decreased which hormones? Testosterone levels in the blood so that “male” changes in the voice box would not occur Extracellular signals only ________ specific receptors and cells only ________ certain receptors. Bind to: make When a ligand attaches to a receptor, which of the following occurs first? (Consider a ligand to be a hormone or cell messenger) There is a change in shape of the receptor, which triggers the beginning of the signaling cascade Which of the following is the BEST definition of a signaling pathway? Chemical reactions that occur inside the cell to produce a specific product which are directed by hormones Your sister, Lupe, has a very funny laugh in which at the end of her laughter she is increasing the frequency of a sound wave. This higher frequency is picked up by what part of the cochlea? Beginning You have your earbuds in and listening to your favorite rock group: Hairy Legs. However, your cochlea has been destroyed due to a viral infection. Based on the information, which of the following is correct? Hammer, Anvil, Stirrups will be activated since they transfer the Hairy Legs song from the outside of the ear to the cochlea. However, there will be no activation of the auditory cortex You hear your favorite song, Cocaine, and immediately your heart rate increases. This increase in heart rate is due to which of the following? Music activate the auditory cortex which sends electrical signals to the heart by way of the sympathetic nervous system If your blood pressure is low, which of the following will decrease your blood pressure? Be complete in your answer. incGoing into a very cold room, which will cause your peripheral blood vessels to vasoconstrict. (Peripheral = skin) You have a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The 80 represent which of the following? The pressure associated with diastole, which is cardiac muscle relaxation There was a horrific traffic accident and you run to help the victims. You feel a carotid pulse on one of the victims, which signifies that there is pressure. What monitors the blood pressure leaving the heart? (Be complete in you answer) Pressure receptors in both the aortic arch and carotid bodies You need to get the most blood from your victim since you are a vampire. The most blood in your victim’s body is found in? Veins Which part of the circulatory system contains the largest volume of blood? Veins The coronary arteries which come off of the ________ vessels supply oxygen to which tissue? Aorta: Cardiac cells m The skin arteries in your face will vasodilate when they are activated by which system? Sympathetic nervous system which causes skeletal muscle in the blood vessel to relax If there is a negative pressure in the thorax relative to the atmosphere, which way will air flow? From the atmosphere to the lungs For the thorax to have a positive pressure relative to the atmosphere, which of the following happens? Diaphragm relaxes and goes into the thoracic region In the circulation system is all oxygen used for each complete circulation. No, the ventilatory system has a reserve of air based on the amount of oxygen attached to hemoglobin so that we are not completely dependent on the air that enters and leaves with each ventilator cycle. Hair cells in the cochlea are activated when you listen to your parents tell you that you need to get a job for the summer. Which of the following molecules must be released from the cochlea hair cells to activate the auditory system? incNeurotransmitters which connect the cochlea receptors to neurons in the auditory cortex The hair cells of the cochlea respond to the frequency and amplitude of sound. You are at a concert listening to a great group of drummers called “The Aztec Watch”. Which of the following is correct about the frequency receptors? High frequency receptors are found at the beginning of the cochlea The professor is lecturing in class. To tune him out you turn up the volume in your phone. Increasing the volume affect which quality of sound? Increases the decibel level of the incoming sound waves from your phone Which side of the capillary bed has the higher oncotic pressure? Venule side – inside the capillary Stroke volume is determined by three major factors, which one is determined by the stroke contraction? Ventricle systole Precapillary sphincters control which of the following? Blood flow into the capillary beds The left atrium is damaged and is generating a great resistance to blood coming from the pulmonary vein. What happens due to this pressure? Back up flood into the pulmonary vein causing blood to leave the capillaries in the lung When the left ventricle is having difficulty contracting, there is more blood that stays in the ventricle what causes which of the following to occur in the alveoli? Increased pressure in the left ventricle causes an increase in fluid in the left atrium leading to increased fluid in the lung capillary that causes an increase of fluid in the alveoli. If a patient is suffering from an increase in ventilation, which is also called hyperventilation, which of the following best describes the situation? As the rate of ventilation increases, the volume of air inspired will decrease Your sister and brother in law are having difficulty conceiving a child. Since you are a well-trained biologist, which of the following would you give her to ensure the release of egg to maximize their chances of having a baby? Luteinizing hormone Which hormone is released from the adrenal gland during sympathetic stimulation of fight or flight? incAdrenaline During the menstrual cycle, which hormones is responsible for maintaining the uterine lining during the luteal phase? Progesterone For growth hormone to have its effect on other cells, it must do which of the following first? Must interact with the target cells to cause an increase in metabolism and mitosis The leaders of two rival gangs are fighting in an alley. Maria takes a pipe and knocks her rival, Estralita, out. When Estralita wakes up in the hospital., she does not remember anything about the fight or the events leading to the fight. As a young FBI agent would you believe her and why? Yes because she is suffering from retrograde amnesia Mrs. Jackson is a sweet old lady who has helped around the church for years. She fixes the flowers and keeps the church neat. For her to see the flowers etc. her brain must produce action potentials, which are? Electrical signals that are produced in the nerve cell bodies and then move over the axons and dendrites The action potential generated by neurons have which of the following characteristics? Voltage that goes from negative to positive which neurochemicals are released at that site. Which of the following contracts spontaneously and requires the largest amount of blood per gram of tissue? Cardiac muscle ___ collects blood from all parts below the diagram A:Inferior Vena Cava Which of the following is ​not​ a function of smooth muscle? Causes capillaries to constrict and dilate Drinking large amounts of oxygenated water is considered a good way to increase performance in skeletal muscle. It works by which of the following mechanisms? Your pulmonary capillaries are not able to extract oxygen from oxygenated water. It is a scam. What type of cell is the target of antidepressant drugs? Neurons that release hormones that control mod and have a slow reuptake mechanism of the neurotransmitter incOne of the classic tools for treating depression, which is not corrected by drugs is electroconvulsive shock. The patient has his/her brain electrically stimulated so as to induce convulsions. How would the electroconvulsive treatment work? Cause an increase in presynaptic chemical release in those areas of the brain that control moodoral c A person has a clinical case of depression. Her family also has a history of depression. The depression is which of the following? A phenotype that is an expression of their genotype Insulin is: Secreted by cells in the pancreas due to high blood glucose Oral contraceptives for women prevent the release of ________ thereby preventing the ________ responsible for ovulation. LH and FSH: LH surge For a hormone to have its effect, it must leave the group of cells producing it and go through which part of the circulation system to have direct effect on its target cells? Capillaries that will allow the hormones to pass into the interstitial space to reach the cells Which organ in the brain secretes growth hormone? The anterior pituitary Which of the following describes what the diaphragm does during inspiration? The diaphragm moves into the thoracic cavity and increases pressure in the abdomen The blood vessel that brings un-oxygenated blood to the lungs from the heart is called ________ and it carries primarily ________ gas, which enters the alveoli Pulmonary artery: Carbon Dioxide During inspiration, the inspired… What causes the alveoli to maintain its circular shape so that the inspired oxygen can enter the red blood cells? Surfactant When a person faints, which system would attempt to increase blood flow to the head? Baroreceptor reflex, which will increase blood flow to the brain incIf heart rate stays the same, and stroke volume decreases, cardiac output will do which of the following? Decrease The pulmonary vein? Sends oxygenated blood back to the le vein ft atrium During situations of flight, fright and frolic, certain organs require more blood. This increase in blood best reflected as an increase in Arterial hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries An increase in interstitial fluid is called edema. As edema increases, it compresses the surrounding capillaries resulting in which of the following? Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure A person is shot in the abdomen and flood is flowing from his ruptured intestinal arteries. To maximize additional blood loss, which system will cause vasoconstriction? Sympathetic and Endocrine (Adrenaline) Extracellular signal molecule can be? Please be complete with your answer. Chemicals that bind to protein structures called receptors on the surface of the cell membrane or inside the cell A chemical is released from the group of cells in your stomach. These chemicals affect target cells in close proximity and causes them to produce an enzyme that begins apoptosis. The chemicals that are released are classified as which of the following? Paracrine The following correctly illustrate the sequence of events between the sending of a hormone by one cell and the response to that hormone by another cell (Consider a ligand to be a hormone or cell messenger). Ligand is synthesized - > Ligand is released - > Ligand is transported to the target cell - > Ligand binds to the receptor - > signaling pathway is activated The ________ represents ventricle depolarization after which ________ happens. QRS complex: ventricles contract The ultimate function of the cardiovascular system is to do which of the following? Generate a pressure difference so that oxygenated blood will flow from high pressure to low pressure. The P wave of the electrocardiogram is associated with which of the following? incArterial contraction Angina refers to pain on the left side of the chest and arm that is due to… Low oxygen to cardiac muscle ​w​hich causes the muscles not to contract You start doing CPR on Dr. Pozos who passed out while giving a lecture. You stop since you have to answer your cell phone and you notice that he is not breathing? Should you continue CPR? Yes since stopping CPR will cause major damage to the cardiac cells due to a decrease in blood flow As the female volleyball player is running to spike the ball, the blood flow increases in her arms. Where would blood flow be decreased so there is more blood in the legs? Intestines The inferior vena cava send blood to? (Be complete in your answer) Right atrium The electrical signal that is recorded before there is an action potential is Always a voltage which is positive A major neuron system is severely damaged by the infection of a polio virus. Which of the following will be an expression of this infection? Patient will not be able to move The contraction or shrinking of cells in a hypertonic solution due to loss of water by osmosis. The neuron generates action potential. The number of action potentials? Depends on the stimulus to the neuron. The greater the stimulus the greater the number the number of action potentials Of the following structures found in skeletal muscles, to which of the following is myosin attached? Thin filaments During skeletal muscle contraction where does ATP function? When it attaches to myosin There was a body builder that needed to increase his muscle mass ….. incAnabolism As far as we know, all living systems must have their chemical reactions occurring in water?why? A: water is a solvent for all chemical reactions An aztec football player is sweating profusely during a game on hot, dry day. He drinks copious amounts of water. What part of the cell controls the movement of water into his cells? A: cell membrane Some other questions 1. Biology can be studied in a non inc [Show More]

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