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University of Phoenix > HRM 300 - LATEST TEST BANK FOR FINAL EXAM > (A) RATED File: ch01, CHAPTER 1: The Dynamic Environment of HRM TRUE/FALSE 1. Multinational corporations became commonplace i... n the 1920s. 2. According New York Times author, Thomas Friedman, there are three eras of globalization: transportation, communication, and technology. 3. When off the job, an employer cannot legally control an employee’s behavior by prohibiting such things as riding a motorcycle, skydiving, smoking, or drinking alcohol. 4. Most organizations take a ‘melting pot’ approach to diversity. 5. Many Gen Xers and Gen Yers, while passionate about their careers, will not sacrifice family and leisure for their career. 6. Your text foresees an end to the labor shortage within the next year or two due to population and technology shifts. 7. Part-time employees are those employees who work fewer than 40 hours a week. 8. Quality management is an organizational commitment to continuous process of improvement that expands the definition of customer to include everyone involved in the organization. 9. Continuous improvement programs aim at constantly improving the quality of products and services. 10. Work process engineering focuses on radical changes in an organization. 11. Employee involvement increases when managers make clear, forceful decisions for subordinates. 12. Recent corporate scandals have created a lack of trust for management. 13. Organizations do not like to use contract workers because their labor cost is unknown and their service is usually poor as compared to full-time employees. 14. An employee is defined by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) as an individual who performs work for you, and you have the right to control or direct only the result of the work and not the means and methods of accomplishing the result. 15. Mergers are a common way for businesses to enter new or global markets, acquire new technology, or gain a financial advantage by achieving economies of scale. MATCHING KEY TERMS AND DEFINITIONS 16. A process of interaction and integration among the people, companies, and governments of different nations, driven by international trade and investment, accelerated by information technology. 17. Corporations with significant operations in more than one country 18. The varied personal characteristics that make the workforce heterogeneous. 19. Those individuals born between 1946 and 1965. 20. An activity in an organization aimed at creating greater efficiency by eliminating certain jobs. 21. Linking employee needs to organizational strategy. 22. The part-time, temporary, and contract workers used by organizations to fill peak staffing needs. 23. Employees whose jobs are designed around acquisition and application of information. 24. Using outside firms for providing necessary products and services. 25. A formal document that states an organization’s primary values and the ethical rules it expects organizational members to follow. 26. The Japanese term for an organization’s commitment to continuous improvement. 27. Radical, quantum change in an organization. 28. An organization’s full-time employee population. 29. Organizational commitment to continuous process of improvement that expands the definition of customer to include everyone involved in the organization. 30. The transfer of ownership and control of one organization to another. FILL IN THE BLANKS 31. The fact that organizations are no longer constrained by national borders in producing goods and services illustrates the __ of businesses. ( 32. According to Thomas Friedman, _ _ was the second era of globalization. 33. Women and __ _ are the fastest growing segments of the U.S. workforce. 34. In times of labor _, good wages and benefits are not enough to hire and keep skilled workers. 35. Contacting a pool of qualified applicants is one of the most critical aspects of _ 36. _ _, a Wyoming statistician, is credited with introducing continuous improvement programs to Japan. 37. __ _ goes beyond incremental change and requires an organization to face the possibility that what the organization may really need is radical or quantum change. 38. A __ _ may tend to view their work as not critically important to an organization. 39. Work teams, delegation, and peer influence are all examples of _ _ practices. 40. A set of rules or principles that defines right and wrong is commonly referred to as _ MULTIPLE CHOICE 41. Multinational corporations became commonplace in the a) 1880s. b) 1920s c) 1960s. d) 1970s. e) 1990s 42. Elizabeth is the training manager of a Chicago-based company. She is working on a training program for a subsidiary in Venezuela. The training program focuses on work-related cultural differences in Venezuela and the United States. It is very important for Elizabeth to emphasize that: a) both Venezuela and the United States are individualistic countries. b) both Venezuela and the United States are collectivist countries. c) Venezuela is a collectivist society whereas the United States is an individualistic society. d) Spanish is the official language in Venezuela whereas English is the official language in the United States. e) future orientation is highly valued and rewarded both in Venezuela and the United States. 43. Don, a Canadian native, has just been cleared for assignment as a country manager. He went to school in the United States and speaks English, Spanish, and French. What assignment would work best for him if there is no time for additional training? a) Mexico. b) Brazil. c) Australia. d) Spain. e) India. 44. Different countries perceive status differently. For example, status in French society depends to a large extent on education and seniority. Such an emphasis on education and seniority is called: a) ascribed status b) prescribed status c) status differentiation d) achieved status e) earned status 45. A California-based software company has just started a joint venture with a Japanese company in Tokyo. Doug, a U.S. expatriate, is the new general manager of the joint-venture. He is very excited about his foreign assignment in Japan. However, Doug has quickly become frustrated with the lack of assertiveness of his Japanese managers and employees. He feels things are not accomplished fast enough. What should Doug do? a) Confront his Japanese managers and employees about their lack of assertiveness. b) Train his Japanese managers and employees on how to become more assertive. c) Reward his Japanese managers and employees for being assertive. d) Make an effort to better understand the Japanese culture. e) Make an effort to speak with his managers and employees in Japanese more often. 46. All of the following statements about knowledge workers are accurate except a) They currently comprise about 75% of the U. S. workforce. b) They are expected to be among the fastest growing job sectors in the next decade. c) Their jobs are designed around the acquisition and application of information. d) Their job skills need to be continually upgraded e) They are paid a premium for their skills. 47. One way technology has changed HRM practices is a) the HR function is simpler. b) recruiting using the web generates smaller, more focused applicant pools. c) employee training is often delivered on demand rather than through scheduled courses. d) electronic resumes take more time to evaluate than paper resumes. e) employees are happy to be under surveillance by their employers. 48. Diane is employed by a company that monitors employee emails and telephone conversations. While off the job, Diane’s employer can legally do all of the following except a) Prevent her from riding a motorcycle. b) Tell her who to marry. c) Prevent her from smoking. d) Not allow her to eat junk food. e) None of the above. 49. Your text mentioned that telephone calls are monitored in which of these organizations? a) Ford. b) American Express. c) IBM. d) IRS. e) GE. 50. One of the implications of technology in HRM is a) workers will need the ability to read and comprehend software and hardware manuals, technical journals, and detailed reports. b) employees will need more face time with their superiors. c) managers will have to revert to autocratic decision making. d) employees are motivated to work a constant 8-hour day. e) abuse of email and web surfing is eliminated. 51. All of these changes are causing an increased diversity in the U.S. workforce except a) fewer younger workers enter the workforce. b) more baby boomers take early retirement. c) Federal legislation prohibits employee discrimination. d) passage of the Senior Citizens Freedom to Work Act. e) globalization lowers barriers to immigrants. 52. Which of the following is NOT true regarding workforce diversity in the United States? a) Differences are increasingly recognized and celebrated in organizations. b) Minority and female applicants have become the fastest-growing segments of the workforce over the last 30 years. c) Firms increasingly establish policies that consider various work styles. d) As globalization becomes more pronounced, so does the importance of managing workforce diversity for U.S. organizations. e) Accommodating the needs of minority and female employees is less and less a major responsibility for managers 53. According to the text, communication via a blog has all of the following advantages except: a) it’s a quick and efficient means of advertising a company’s products. b) companies can discuss ideas among organizational members. c) dissatisfied customers and disgruntled employees can write about anything they do not like. d) companies can provide more believable public relations information. e) employees can discuss the good things that are happening to them, which personalizes the faceless company to the readers. 54. A recent survey found that women in the _________ are world leaders with 50 percent holding senior management positions. a) United States b) Philippines c) Canada d) Brazil e) Hong Kong 55. Today, the percentage of women managers in the United States is approximately a) 50% b) 37% c) 12% d) 23% e) 8% 56. Which of the following is NOT true regarding work/life issues in the United States? a) Fewer families have only a single breadwinner. b) The line between work and non-work has become blurred. c) Many employees are asked to put in longer hours. d) It has become easier for married employees to find the time to fulfill non-work commitments. e) Communication technology allows employees to work at anytime from anywhere. 57. The Bureau of Labor Statistics predicts that by 2014 nearly 2.4 million jobs will go unfilled due to all of these factors except: a) a major exodus of baby boomers due to retirement. b) a declining birthrate. c) potential training redundancy is developing. d) immigrants do not have skills in the needed areas. e) the terror attacks of September 11, 2001 may reduce immigration. 58. Why are so many organizations exhibiting a trend toward downsizing? a) Quality emphasis programs are creating flatter structures and redesigning work to increase efficiency. b) Greater control reduces flexibility. c) Quality programs create steeper hierarchies with fewer workers at the lower levels. d) Organizations are no longer global. e) Big companies are vanishing. 59. Which statement is the best comparison of downsizing and rightsizing? a) Rightsizing maintains long term employee commitment. Downsizing leads to outsourcing. b) Rightsizing links long term organizational goals to staffing levels. Downsizing is one of the actions that may be performed. c) Rightsizing maintains competitive levels of employee surplus. Downsizing emphasizes quality management. d) Rightsizing is another term for offshoring. Downsizing is another term for outsourcing. e) Rightsizing is a euphemism for a racist workforce. Downsizing means cutting the number of employees. 60. A large manufacturing firm needs to increase production to meet a seasonal demand. The demand is not sufficient to justify building new production facilities. Of the following options, which one provides the greatest flexibility and responsiveness to the changing environment? a) downsizing. b) flextime. c) outsourcing. d) telecommuting. e) automating. 61. Technology increasingly impacts HRM practices in the following areas except a) recruiting b) employee selection c) training and development d) motivating factory workers e) motivating knowledge workers 62. Work process engineering is: a) another name for downsizing. b) another name for rightsizing. c) a continuous improvement method that radically increase an organization’s productivity. d) an organizational commitment to incrementally improving the quality of products and services. e) is a radical change in an organization. 63. According to the text, one of the biggest challenges facing HR leaders is a) understanding that workers will need to be recruited in a different way than just advertising a position and then selecting a candidate. b) creating an environment that balances core and contingency employees. c) training immigrant workers who do not have the skill set for the available jobs. d) ensuring management treats all of their employees with respect. e) rewriting HR policy manuals to satisfy the new generation of workers. 64. HRM typically provides which of these types of training to temporary employees? a) Orientation. b) Retirement planning. c) Benefits options. d) Career management. e) Technology certification. 65. An amusement park needs customer representatives during the summer season. The best staffing option for this amusement park is to use: a) part-time employees. b) core employees. c) contract workers. d) independent contractors. e) recent college graduates 66. Which of the following is not a component of continuous improvement? a) Intense focus on the customer. b) Improvement in the quality of everything the organization does. c) Intense focus on individual performance. d) Accurate measurement. e) Empowerment of employees. 67. Which of the following quality experts has been credited for helping Japanese firms improve their productivity following World War II? a) W. Edwards Deming. b) Robert Fleming. c) Albert Duran. d) Joseph Juran. e) Frederick Taylor. 68. Which of the following is a component of continuous improvement? a) Outsourcing of customer needs. b) Eliminating perfectionist tendencies to constantly be better than “very good.” c) Refocusing quality on only the production process. d) Replacing statistical techniques with benchmark roots for problem solving. e) Empowering employees. 69. According to W. Edward Deming, a well-managed organization is one in which: a) statistical control increases variability in production processes. b) statistical control reduces variability in production processes and also results in uniform quality and predictable level of production. c) most employees like their job. d) employees are paid at least the market wage rate. e) All of the above. 70. A Kaizen is the Japanese term for: a) a radical change in an organization. b) work process reengineering. c) a firm’s commitment to continuous improvement. d) empowering employees. e) intense focus on the customer. 71. Which of the following statements best compares continuous improvement and work process engineering? a) Continuous improvement asks, “How can we do it better?” Work process improvement asks, “Are we doing the right thing?” b) Continuous improvement has increased training requirements. Work process engineering has increased security requirements. c) Continuous improvement is effective in turbulent environments. Work process engineering is effective in stable organizational settings. d) Continuous improvement is used in the service sector. Work process engineering is used in the manufacturing sector. e) Continuous improvement decreases the number of employees in an organization. Work process engineering increases the number of employees in an organization. 72. Which type of organizational change may provide a false sense of security? a) Continuous improvement methods. b) Work process engineering. c) Horizontal alliances. d) Status quo. e) Lateral combinations. 73. Suppose you are the HR manager of an organization that has just adopted the philosophy of continuous improvement. You can support improvement programs in all of these ways except a) Provide clear and extensive communication regarding the organizational change. b) Help employees overcome barriers to change. c) Explain new performance expectations. d) Design jobs very narrowly to ensure that employees can specialize on a few tasks. e) Train employees to adapt to the new work arrangement 74. Which of the following provides the best description of work process engineering? a) A slow process of incremental change. b) An alternative to rapid technology transfer. c) An alternative to retraining a workforce. d) A focus on the whole work process. e) A safeguard for traditional work attitudes. 75. A major drawback of focusing on continuous improvements is that it: a) may prevent employers from making needed radical changes. b) works well for Japanese companies but not for U.S. companies. c) makes it difficult to discharge low-performing employees. d) usually requires the layoff of employees. e) requires the use of complicated statistical techniques. 76. Ivan is the vice-president of human resources for a large manufacturing organization involved in work process engineering. What kinds of training needs should he anticipate? a) New work procedures. b) Technology enhancements. c) Decision making. d) Working in teams. e) All of the above. 77. All of the following types of employees are considered contingent employees except a) part-time employees b) contract workers c) full-time temporary workers d) full-time long-term employees e) freelancers 78. Maurice is suing an organization, claiming that because he is an employee and not an independent contractor, the organization should have withheld taxes for him. All of these factors could be used to support his claim except a) He is allowed great flexibility in scheduling his work time. b) He received training on company policies and procedures. c) He receives no insurance or pension benefits. d) He is paid market rate for his services. e) He is reimbursed for travel. 79. Ruxandra Lopez is the vice-president for human resources of a major manufacturing company. She is thinking of increasing the proportion of contingent workers in the different plants. As a consultant, you advise Ruxandra that a major disadvantage associated with contingent workers is that: a) contingent workers are entitled to retirement benefits. b) contingent employees complain more than core employees. c) contingent workers may be less loyal and committed than core employees. d) contingent workers do not require extensive skill training before they become fully productive to an organization. e) contingent employees are usually less reliable than core employees. 80. HRM is often involved in all of the following for their contingent workers except a) Motivation. b) Locating temporary workers. c) Scheduling options to meet workers’ needs. d) Conflict resolution between contingent and core employees. e) Negotiating health care benefits. 81. HRM provides support in all of these areas to increase employee involvement except a) Delegation. b) Retirement planning. c) Work teams. d) Goal setting. e) Participative management. 82. Many of today’s companies emphasize: a) clear lines of authority. b) teamwork. c) bureaucratic organizational structures. d) a hierarchical chain of command. e) a centralized decision-making process. 83. How does group decision making empower a workforce? a) Employees have less input to work processes. b) Isolated workers are prone to fewer work conflicts. c) Employees have greater access to needed information. d) There is less stress due to new job skill requirements. e) Employees have the benefit of tried-and-true past decisions. 84. Which of the following is the best illustration of a work team? a) A one-man band. b) A football team that has separate players who specialize in offense, defense, and kickoff. c) A symphony orchestra with special sections for wind, percussion, and strings d) A surgical team of 3 nurses and 3 surgeons. e) Airline employees who may handle baggage today, check in customers tomorrow, or serve on the information desk. 85. Useful employee involvement requires: a) demonstrated leadership and supportive management. b) increased compensation, rather than extensive training. c) extensive training and increased compensation. d) clear decision making responsibility by upper management. e) greater precision in job descriptions. 86. Which of the following is not true regarding the employee involvement for HRM? a) Employees are expected to work in teams. b) Employees are expected to delegate. c) Employees are expected to withhold strategic information from co-workers. d) Employees need to be trained in all aspects of the job. e) Employees need training in interpersonal skills. 87. Ethics refers to: a) a set of rules or principles that defines what is legal and what is illegal. b) a set of rules or principles that defines right and wrong conduct. c) a situation in which decisions are made based on religious rules or principles d) a situation in which individuals make decisions based primarily on their best interest. e) a situation in which individuals act make decisions based primarily on the best interest of the most economically disadvantaged individuals 88. People who lack a strong moral sense are much less likely to do wrong if: a) the company has a code of ethics. b) they feel constrained by rules and strong cultural norms that discourage unethical behaviors. c) they attend a business ethics seminar. d) the company monitors their emails. e) the employer performs an integrity test during the selection process 89. Which of the following is NOT true regarding ethics in organizations? a) In recent years, ethics has become a major issue in U.S. organizations owing to corporate scandals such as Enron or WorldCom. b) Corporate scandals such as Enron and WorldCom have created a lack of trust in management. c) Companies that were in corporate scandals did not have codes of ethics. d) Codes of ethics are increasingly popular in U.S. organizations. e) A mission statement details an organization’s primary values and the ethical rules it expects managers and employees to follow. . File: Ch05, Chapter 5, Human Resource Planning and Job Analysis TRUE/FALSE 1. Human resource planning is one of the most important elements in a successful human resource management program. 2. A SWOT analysis is a process for determining an organization’s core competency. 3. The mission statement is the foundation on which every decision in the organization should be made. 4. Job analysis involves the identification and analysis of the qualifications of the firm’s new employees. 5. The structured questionnaire method of job analysis captures job exceptions more effectively than other methods. 6. The best results with respect to job analysis are usually achieved with some combination of job analysis methods. 7. A job evaluation states minimum acceptable qualifications for the incumbent. 8. Most technology organizations have replaced the job analysis process with definitional structuring. 9. A job description is a statement indicating what a job entails. 10. A decrease in the supply of any unit’s human resources usually comes from new hires. 11. The Department of Labor’s O*Net Job Content Model replaced the Dictionary of Occupational Titles. 12. The observation method of job analysis requires job incumbents to record their daily activities. 13. A replacement chart is an HRM organizational chart that indicates positions that may become vacant in the near future and the individuals who may fill the vacancies. 14. The Analysis of a Position Questionnaire (APQ) is the job analysis technique that rates jobs on elements in six activity categories. 15. An employee who telecommutes shares one job with someone else by splitting the work week and the responsibilities of the position. MATCHING KEY TERMS AND DEFINITIONS 16. Allows employees to work longer days in exchange for longer weekends or other days off. 17. Process of determining an organization’s human resource needs. 18. Organizational strengths that represent unique skills or resources. 19. HRM organization charts indicating positions that may become vacant in the near future and the individuals who may fill the vacancy. 20. A specifically designed questionnaire on which employee’s rate items they perform in their job from a long list of possible task items. 21. Statements indicating the minimal acceptable qualifications incumbents must possess to successfully perform the essential elements of their jobs. 22. Meeting with a group of employees to collectively determine what their job entails. 23. A job analysis technique that involves extensive input from the employee’s supervisor. 24. A job analysis technique in which data are gathered by watching the work of employees. 25. A job analysis method requiring job incumbents to record their daily activities. 26. An organization’s best attributes and abilities. 27. A statement indicating what a job entails. 28. Readjusting skills to match job requirements. 29. A job analysis technique that rates jobs on elements in six activity categories. 30. Specifies the relative value of each job. FILL-IN THE BLANKS 31. must be linked to an organization’s overall strategy. 32. The expresses the reason an organization is in business. 33. A analysis determines an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. 34. To determine what skills are needed, HRM conducts a . 35. is the outcome of the strategic planning process when the demand of labor exceeds the internal supply of labor. 36. The job analysis technique that consists of meeting with an employee to determine what his or her job entails is called the 37. The DOL job analysis process categorizes elements into ____________________: data, people, and things. Response: See page 133 Ref: EXHIBIT 5-5 38. are part of the job description that describe the skills and abilities of a successful incumbent. 39. The state the minimum acceptable qualifications that the incumbent must possess to perform the job successfully. 40. Frederick Herzberg believed the best way to motivate employees with through his model of , which expands job content to create more opportunities for job satisfaction. MULTIPLE-CHOICE 41. Top executives at company ABC have agreed on a new mission statement. More specifically, they have agreed on what business the company should be in and who their consumers are. What should the next step be for these top executives? a) Begin the corporate assessment b) Set strategic goals c) Identify the core competency of the company d) Evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of the company e) Conduct a SWOT analysis 42. Effective employment planning includes all of the following except a) translating organizational goals into types of workers needed. b) translating organizational goals into the number of workers needed. c) understanding the strategic planning process. d) product modifications for new kinds of families. e) a direct link to the organization’s strategic direction. 43. Which of the following is not true regarding the SWOT analysis? a) The SWOT analysis is a process for determining an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. b) The SWOT analysis forces management to recognize that companies, regardless of their size, are constrained to some extent by the resources and skills they have available. c) The SWOT analysis is the foundation on which every decision in the company should be made. d) The SWOT analysis should lead to a clear assessment of the firm’s internal resources. e) The SWOT analysis serves as the link between the firm’s goals and ensuring that the company can achieve its objectives. 44. The SWOT analysis is a process for determining a firm’s a) mission statement, strengths, weaknesses, and opportunities b) mission statement, strengths, weaknesses, and threats c) strengths, weaknesses, threats, and core competency d) strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats e) strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and core competency 45. Diane is vice-president of human resources for a large manufacturing firm. What should her involvement be for the strategic planning for her organization? a) She needs to understand the process to play a vital role in it. b) She should never be involved in it. That function should be performed in financial management and marketing areas. c) She should never be involved in it. Globalization and technology have made strategic planning obsolete. d) She does all of it as a routine part of her job description. e) Her real contribution comes with offshoring decisions. 46. During a meeting Julandre, a top executive at XYZ, Inc. made a presentation about the organizational strengths that represent the firm’s unique skills and resources. Julandre insisted that these organizational strengths should give XYZ, Inc, a competitive edge in the future. What was Julandre referring to in this meeting? a) The mission statement of the company b) The strategic statement of the company c) The strategic planning process of the company d) The core strategy of the company e) The core competency of the company 47. Which of the following is not true regarding competitive intelligence? a) Competitive intelligence is another way to describe organizational espionage. b) Competitive intelligence is one of the fastest-growing areas of a SWOT analysis. c) Most of the information used for competitive intelligence is available and accessible to the public. d) Competitive intelligence provides basic information about a firm’s competitors. e) Competitive intelligence is more difficult to obtain in a global business environment. 48. The steps of the strategic planning process, in order, are a) mission, people, strategy, structure. b) goals, structure, mission, people. c) mission, strategy, structure, people. d) structure, people, vision, mission. e) needs, goals, strategy, vision. 49. Which of the following describes the “Strategy” phase of the strategic planning process? a) Determining what business the organization will be in. b) Setting goals and objectives. c) Determining how goals and objectives will be attained. d) Determining what jobs need to be done and by whom. e) Matching skills, knowledge, and abilities to required jobs. 50. Which of the following describes the “Structure” phase of the strategic planning process? a) Determining what business the organization will be in. b) Setting goals and objectives. c) Determining how goals and objectives will be attained. d) Determining what jobs need to be done and by whom. e) Matching skills, knowledge, and abilities to required jobs. 51. Which of the following describes the “People” phase of the strategic planning process? a) Determining what business the organization will be in. b) Setting goals and objectives. c) Determining how goals and objectives will be attained. d) Determining what jobs need to be done and by whom. e) Matching skills, knowledge, and abilities to required jobs. 52. Which of the following describes the “Mission” phase of the strategic planning process? a) Determining what business the organization will be in. b) Setting goals and objectives. c) Determining how goals and objectives will be attained. d) Determining what jobs need to be done and by whom. e) Matching skills, knowledge, and abilities to required jobs. 53. A replacement chart is used a) to spot skill shortages in the organization. b) to switch health care plans. c) to help recruiters identify the best geographical areas to find certain skills. d) to transfer technology to web based organization control systems. e) to align salary data with skill and experience levels. 54. a) dismissals. b) deaths. c) retirements. d) voluntary quits. e) prolonged illnesses. 55. Employee retention is a major HRM issue. According to the text, it is estimated that about _______ of the reasons employees quit their jobs and leave organizations are within the control of managers. a) 25 percent b) 35 percent c) 45 percent d) 55 percent e) 75 percent 56. Dee works in the human resources area of a large organization. As part of her duties, she routinely uses such methods as observation, individual and group interviews, technical conferences, and diary monitoring. What does she do? a) Job identification. b) Job clarification. c) Job analysis. d) Position description. e) Position strategy description. 57. During a job analysis, which of these tasks are performed? a) Promotion patterns and succession plans are identified. b) An estimation of the labor supply is verified. c) Skills, knowledge and abilities necessary to perform a job are determined. d) Duties and responsibilities of a job are matched with pay grades. e) EEO compliance is assessed. 58. Pierre is attempting to forecast the firm’s future supply of human resources. He is currently looking at retirements, transfers out of a unit, layoffs, sabbaticals, and dismissals. Which one is likely to be the most difficult to predict? a) Retirements b) Transfers out of a unit c) Layoffs d) Sabbaticals e) Dismissals 59. Where does job analysis occur in the strategic planning process? a) Before corporate goals and objectives are established. b) After corporate goals and objectives are established. c) After the labor supply and demand are compared. d) Before organizational mission is defined. e) Before the SWOT. 60. Fatima is working on the employment planning of her company. She expects that the demand for human resources will increase in the near future. Which of the following is not an appropriate option for Fatima? a) Hire more full-time employees b) Contract with additional staff c) Offer early retirements d) Change the company’s objectives e) Transfer employees within the company 61. Frank, a college intern in human resources management at a large service organization, recently completed a job analysis for the 600 jobs in the Phoenix operations center. When Lloyd, his boss, reviewed Frank’s work, he found that many known job activities were not included. Further, some odd, even bizarre, activities were reported. Frank cited the Hawthorne studies in his explanation of the results. What technique did Frank use? a) Observation. b) Diary. c) Structured questionnaire. d) Group interview. e) Technical Conference. 62. Michelle has gathered job analysis data with the observation technique for jobs in Plant #101. She wants to use an additional collection technique to make sure her analysis is accurate. Much of the work is done collectively, and she is skilled in dealing with issues related to group dynamics. Which job analysis method should she use? a) Hawthorne. b) Structured questionnaire. c) Group interview. d) Diary. e) Technical conference. 63. Leona has gathered job analysis data with a structured questionnaire for managerial jobs in remote locations of her firm. Exit interviews have produced comments like, "You should have told me what was really expected." She wants to use an additional collection technique to avoid misrepresentation in job descriptions. Leona’s boss told her, “Be thorough. Job analysis time and cost are nothing compared to the cost of replacing these managers.” Which method should she use? a) Observation. b) Individual interview. c) Technical conference. d) Diary. e) Gap analysis. 64. Monique, the director of job analysis, must write job descriptions for new supervisors in a new plant. The new robotics line will make this location comparable to existing sites. She has a limited budget and a limited amount of time. Many former plant managers (they would have supervised these supervisory positions) are in Monique’s building. Which job analysis method should she use? a) Observation. b) Individual interview. c) Benchmark. d) Diary. e) Technical conference. 65. Felicia, a new analyst, is considering asking managers at various facilities to use the diary method of job analysis. As an expert in HR matters, what advice would you give her, since you want to help her do the right thing. a) This technique is the quickest of all the job analysis methods. b) It is the most objective method. c) It is easy to use – no training required. d) Sometimes people report what they think you want to hear rather than what they do. e) The PAQ is an automated package that facilitates this process. 66. Which of the following is not considered a flexible work schedule? a) Flex time. b) Job sharing. c) Telecommuting. d) Job enrichment. e) Compressed work week schedule. 67. Rhona, a junior job analyst, needs to use several techniques for some new assembly line positions in a new production facility. Her supervisor warns her against using the PAQ for which of these reasons? a) It is not quantitative. b) It is not structured. c) It appears to be more applicable to higher-level professional jobs. d) It is too time-consuming. e) It duplicates the results of the technical conference, which has already been performed for this set of jobs. 68. Which of the following is not a category of the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PQA)? a) Information input b) Mental processes c) Job evaluation d) Work output e) Relationships with other people 69. The job analysis process should generate: a) only job descriptions b) job descriptions and job specifications c) job evaluations and job specifications d) job descriptions, job specifications, and job evaluations e) job descriptions and job evaluations 70. Which of the following is not true with respect to job specifications? a) Specify the relative value of each job in the company. b) State the minimum acceptable qualifications that the incumbent must have to perform the job successfully. c) Identify the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform the job successfully. d) Represent one of the tangible outcomes of the job analysis process. e) Help determine whether job applicants are essentially qualified to perform the firm’s jobs. 71. Job design does all except a) set the salary of a job. b) describe what tasks are included in a job. c) tells the order in which tasks are done in a job. d) set the conditions under which the tasks of a job are completed. e) how and when the tasks of a job are completed. 72. Which statement best compares job specifications and job descriptions? a) Job description focuses on managerial positions. Job specification is used for hourly workers. b) Job specification focuses on qualifications for incumbents. Job description focuses on what the incumbent does. c) Job description focuses on qualifications for incumbent. Job specification focuses on what the incumbent does. d) Job description is the computerized version of job specification. e) Job specification occurs after job analysis. Job description occurs before job analysis. 73. The job analysis process has a multifaceted nature. Indeed, many activities in an organization are affected by the job analysis. Which of the following is not directly affected by the job analysis process? a) Recruiting b) Benefits administration c) Labor relations d) Safety and health e) Selection 74. What use has the job description served under the ADA? a) There is no use. b) It provides reasonable accommodation. c) It assures comparable worth. d) It identifies essential job functions. e) It protects against adverse impact. 75. Stan, vice-president of human resources, is explaining why job descriptions are an important organizational resource to the rest of the executive board. He could use all of the following to support his discussion except a) The job description can be used as a reference by recruiters during job interviews with prospective job candidates. b) The job description can be used to create advertisements for job classifieds. c) The job description can be used to identify essential job functions for ADA compliance requirements. d) The job description can be used to identify target areas for retirement planning. e) The job description can be used to appraise whether an incumbent’s actual duties line up with her stated duties. 76. How important is job analysis to the contemporary organization? a) Job analysis is the starting point of sound human resource management. b) Job analysis has replaced other aspects of strategic human resource management. c) Job analysis is the starting point of the organizational visioning process. d) Job analysis, once so important to large organizations, has become obsolete. e) Job analysis is crucial to the hiring process, but that’s where it ends. 77. Which of the following is not an activity that organizations frequently cite as being affected by the job analysis process? a) Recruiting b) Selection c) Compensation d) Succession planning e) Performance appraisal 78. All of the following are disadvantages of flexible scheduling except a) potential reduction in productivity. b) reduced childcare costs. c) a lack of supervision of employees. d) increased work stress levels. e) increased employee turnover who aren’t productive. 79. Which of the following is not a job analysis method? a) Situational method b) Observation method c) Diary method d) Technical conference method e) Structured questionnaire method 80. Brad is comparing various job analysis methods. He is looking for the best job analysis method. As a consultant, you advise Brad that he should choose a) the observation method. b) the structured questionnaire method. c) some combination of job analysis methods. d) the individual interview method. e) the group interview method. File: Ch04, Chapter 4, Employee Rights and Discipline TRUE/FALSE 1. The Privacy Act of 1974 requires federal government agencies to make available information in an individual’s personnel file. 2. The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 requires federal contractors to actively pursue a drug-free environment. 3. Companies employing 50 or more employees are required to give employees 30 days notice when closing down a plant or laying off large numbers of workers. 4. Long-haul truck drivers, regulated by the Department of Transportation, are required to take drug tests. 5. Substance abusers are 20 times more likely to miss work than employees who are not substance abusers. 6. The Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1971 allows employers to secretly check the credit history of job applicants. 7. Employees who do not accept the responsibility of self-discipline require some degree of extrinsic disciplinary action. 8. Discipline should be punitive rather than corrective. 9. If theft in an organization is discovered, an employer has the right to give a polygraph test to every employee to determine the guilty party under the guidelines of the Polygraph Protection Act of 1988. 10. Other than a good cause, an employer cannot terminate an employee under the terms of the employment-at-will doctrine. 11. Employers are not permitted to electronically monitor employees, unless given permission by the employee to do so. 12. Having a workplace romance with your supervisor is acceptable in most organizations because it will enhance the productivity of a department. 13. All disciplinary warnings, including written verbal warnings are forwarded to HRM for inclusion in the employee’s personnel file. 14. The progressive discipline process starts with a written warning, followed by a suspension, then a written verbal warning, and ending with a dismissal. 15. Under the hot-stove rule, discipline should be delayed until the periodic performance review between the employee and manager. MATCHING KEY TERMS AND DEFINITIONS 16. A specialized question-and-answer test designed to assess one’s honesty. 17. This is the first formal stage of the disciplinary procedure that becomes part of an employee’s official personnel file. 18. This act was passed to help keep the problem of substance abuse from entering the workplace. 19. A concept rooted in nineteenth-century common law, which permitted employers to discipline of discharge employees at their discretion. 20. Requires the federal government agencies to make information available in an individual’s personnel file available to him or her. 21. Requires an employer to notify job candidates of its intent to check into their credit. 22. Any organizational guarantee or promise about job security. 23. A condition in the organization when employees conduct themselves in accordance with the organization’s rules and standards of acceptable behavior. 24. A situation in which an employee reports the organization to an outside agency for what the employee believes is an illegal or unethical practice. 25. Discipline should be immediate, provide ample warning, be consistent, and be impersonal. 26. Temporary record that a verbal reprimand has been given to an employee. 27. The process of testing applicants/employees to determine if they are using illicit substances. 28. Final step of the disciplinary process. 29. A period of time off from work as a result of a disciplinary process. 30. Prohibits the use of lie detectors in screening all job applicants. FILL-IN THE BLANKS 31. The federal employees the right to review letters of recommendation written on their behalf. 32. Under the government agencies, federal contractors, and those receiving federal funds ($25,000 or more) are required to actively pursue a drug-free environment. 33. Under the a company employing 100 or more individuals must notify workers 60 days in advance if it is going to close its facility or lay off 50 or more workers. 34. is a situation in which an employee notifies authorities of wrongdoing in an organization. 35. are also known as integrity tests. 36. Under a contractual employee relationship, discharge may occur only if it is based onjust cause. 37. _______________________, such as the seriousness and duration of the problem, should be considered when analyzing discipline problems. Response: See page 98 Ref: Factors to Consider When Disciplining 38. Typically, begins with a verbal warning and proceeds through a written warning, suspension, and only in the most serious cases, dismissal. 39. A is the second step in the progressive discipline process. 40. A disciplinary layoff is also known as MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 41. Which amendment of the U.S. Constitution prohibits illegal searches and seizures by the government or its agents? a) Third Amendment b) Fourth Amendment c) Fifth Amendment d) Sixth Amendment e) Seventh Amendment 42. Dana is rewriting the section of the policies and procedures manual for her organization regarding employees' access to their employment history files. All of the following statements are appropriateexcept a) Any information an employee has waived the right to review will be kept separated from the accessible file. b) Employees are encouraged to drop into the personnel office to review the contents of their employee information files any time they wish. c) Personnel files are not permitted to leave the HRM area. d) Employees may review the contents of their files in the presence of an HRM representative. e) An employee may take notes on the file contents, but nothing may be photocopied. 43. A bank would like to obtain information regarding the credit history of applicants as well as their lifestyle and spending habits. What should the bank do to obtain this information? a) The bank cannot obtain this information because it is illegal to check the credit of job applicants. b) The bank should just ask friends and relatives of the applicants. c) The bank should obtain the information through a third-party investigation d) The bank should contact a credit reporting agency without notifying the applicants that their credit is being checked. e) The bank should contact a credit reporting agency and notify the applicants that their credit is being checked. 44. Which of the following is not a law affecting employee rights? a) The Privacy Act b) The Drug-Free Workplace Act c) The Fair Credit Reporting Act d) The Fairness in Employment Act e) The Employee Polygraph Protection Act. 45. Ethel applied for a job as a credit card account manager with a major financial institution. Your organization obtained her credit report through a third party investigation. She was not hired because of her recent bankruptcy and poor credit history. As the vice-president of human resources, you are aware of this situation because Ethel is suing the company for your hiring practices. Which of these facts of the case shows that your procedures were faulty? a) Ethel received a copy of her credit report. b) Ethel was not given written notice the third party investigation was being conducted. 3. Ethel was asked questions about how she made account decisions for credit applicants during the interview. d) Ethel’s resume was incomplete. e) Credit problems are not reasonable exclusions for this job. 46. Which of the following jobs is subjected to drug tests under the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988? a) Elementary school teacher in a private school b) Cashier at a retail store c) Taxi driver d) Technician in a company regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. e) Software designer at Microsoft 47. The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 requires all of the following except a) mandatory drug testing of certain employees. b) providing substance-free awareness programs for employees. c) a drug-fee work environment policy must be established. d) mandatory dismissal for employees found in violation of any part of the policy. e) the policy must spell out employee expectations in terms of being substance free and infraction penalties. 48. Which of the following is not true regarding the Polygraph Protection Act of 1988? a) It prohibits employers in the private sector from using polygraph tests in all employment decisions. b) Polygraph tests have been found to have very strong job-related value. c) Polygraph tests can be used when theft occurs in the organization. d) When theft occurs in the organization, a suspected employee has the right to refuse to take a polygraph test without fear of retaliation from the employer. e) If an employee failed a polygraph test, he or she has the right to challenge the results. 49. Carol was forced to take a lie detector test about a workplace violence incident. During the course of questioning, she became very upset and emotional. Carol asked the questioner to stop. He refused to discontinue the test. What action can be taken? a) The Department of Labor may assess civil penalties up to $10,000 against the organization. b) None. This sounds like standard procedure. c) The Department of Commerce may bring court actions to restrain violators. d) A collective bargaining unit can ratify an agreement that is more restrictive. e) Criminal charges may be filed against the questioner. 50. Last month a large consumer electronics wholesaler reported a 27% stock loss due to "breakage." The average loss is less than 1% a month. There are over 100 employees at the facility. The only recent hires, Tom, Dick, and Harry, were hired six weeks ago. Dan, the plant manager has come to you, the vice-president of human resources, for advice on how to stop the stealing in a fair and ethical way. What is your advice? a) Drug tests should be administered immediately to all employees. b) A polygraph test could be administered to Tom, Dick, and Harry if they were given a baseline polygraph at the time of employment. c) Encourage Dan to install additional surveillance cameras immediately. d) A polygraph test should be administered immediately, with no warning or explanation, to Tom, Dick, and Harry. e) Provide written notice to Tom, Dick, and Harry that they will be scheduled for a polygraph test. 51. Which of these statements are provisions of the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act? a) An organization with more than 100 employees must notify workers 30 days in advance if it is going to close a facility. b) An organization with more than 200 employees must notify workers 60 days in advance if it is going to lay off more than 50 workers. c) Organizations that fail to notify employees are subject to a penalty subject to one day's pay and benefits to each affected employee for each day's notice that should have been given. d) Organizations that file bankruptcy are exempt for hourly workers. e) Organizations may be forced to keep a plant open if such action would threaten the economic base of the community. 52. A company with 350 workers is laying off 75 employees. How much notice is this company required to provide to the laid-off employees? a) 30 days b) 40 days c) 50 days d) 60 days e) 70 days 53. Rajiv has worked for 22 years at a 40-employee branch of a large auto parts chain. Business has been very bad lately, and there are rumors of consolidation, reorganization, even bankruptcy. What protection is Rajiv given under the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act? a) With less than 25 years seniority, he can be laid off with less than six months notice. b) Rajiv will be given 60 days warning if his location closes. c) No protection. His industry is not covered by the act. d) No protection. His branch is too small for coverage. e) Rajiv will be given 30 days warning, but only if the whole organization closes. 54. Luis has worked for a 2500-employee chemical manufacturer, ABCHEM, for two years. He went to work Monday morning to find his key no longer fit the front door lock and a new sign "FUTURE HOME OFFICE OF ALLIED PLASTICS” on the front door. He called his office and found that the telephone had been disconnected. He then noticed the local paper with headlines, "ABCHEM sells plastics subsidiary: 2000 layoffs!!" Luis remembered the letter he received from the HRM department three months earlier which had warned of this probable plant closing, but he ignored it as a rumor. What protection is Luis given under W.A.R.N.? a) He is entitled to an amount equal to pay and benefits for up to 60 days. b) His job must be given back to him. c) No protection. He was notified in an appropriate manner. d) No protection. The employee layoff number is too small. e) No protection. He hasn’t worked there long enough. 55. Dwight, vice-president of human resources for a large textile firm, is in a strategic restructuring meeting. The discussion topics include which one of three production facilities to close. There are 40 employees at each of the facilities. When asked, "What should we tell the employees?" Dwight responds, a) "Tell them we are keeping the newest plant open for another 2 years. Transfer all employees with 20 years of seniority to that plant." b) "Notify all workers immediately of probable plant closings within the next 4 years." c) If we close, workers in affected areas get 30 days notice or 90 days pay and benefits upon closing." d) "Legally, we are not required to tell the employees anything unless we lay off 50 or more individuals." e) "Bankruptcy would let us charge workers for the past year’s medical benefits." 56. Over two-thirds of all U.S. organizations use some form of drug testing. Which of the following isnot true regarding substance abuse in the U.S. workplace? 1. Nearly half of all on-the-job injuries are related to substance abuse. 2. Nearly half of all work-related deaths are attributed to substance abuse. 3. It is estimated that employee substance abuse costs U.S. organizations about $100 million annually in increased health-care costs, lost productivity, and workplace accidents. 4. Substance abusers are 10 times more likely to miss work than non-users. 5. Substance abusers are about a third less productive than non-users. 57. What actions can organizations take to reduce criticism of their drug testing policies? Your text mentions all of the following except a) state consequences of failing a test. b) explain testing procedures clearly. c) conduct drug screening after a conditional employment offer has been made. d) build safeguards into the process to challenge false tests. e) rehabilitate prospective employees. 58. How much money does substance abuse cost U.S. companies annually, according to your text? a) $100 million b) $500 million c) $10 billion d) $100 billion e) $500 billion 59. Which of the following is not true regarding honesty tests? a) Honesty tests tend to focus on theft and drug use. b) Since honesty tests are very expensive, very few companies use them. c) Honesty tests mostly entice applicants to provide information about themselves that otherwise would be difficult to obtain. d) Individuals are frequently truthful about their dishonesty. e) Honesty tests are designed with multiple questions to assess consistency. 60. Research studies suggest that a) honesty tests are not reliable. b) honesty tests are very expensive to administer. c) a small number of companies in the United States are using honesty tests to screen applicants. d) honesty tests can be effective devices to screen applicants. e) honesty tests are not valid. 61. Integrity tests a) assess consistency patterns in responses. b) are more valid than fingerprints. c) are used as an alternative to honesty tests. d) provide information that is easily obtainable by other techniques. e) accept dishonesty as a valid behavior, as long as the respondent is truthful about that behavior. 62. According to a survey by V ___________ percent of professionals admitted to having been involved in an office romance and another 19 percent have considered it. a) 47 b) 57 c) 67 d) 77 e) 87 63. Lynne, an officer of a major corporation, noticed that David, her boss, reported personal expenses on his expense account when they traveled. He usually bought new clothes on a trip (suit, shoes, topcoat), brought along a family member or friend, and attended sight-seeing or cultural events with them. All of these items ended up on David’s expense report. When Lynne reported these practices to federal authorities, she was a) employee surveillance. b) whistle-blowing. c) integrity testing. d) reengineering work processes. e) utilizing graphology. 64. Elizabeth works for a large appliances store in the Midwest. She has heard a rumor that employees are filmed in the restroom. Can this rumor be true? a) No, because it would violate the Privacy Act of 1974. b) No, because it would violate the Decent Workplace Act of 1985. c) No. It is unethical to film employees in the restroom. d) Yes, if the employer included this type of employee monitoring in a written policy and explained the policy to the employees. e) Yes, because the employer owns the company. 65. Which of the following is not true regarding workplace security? a) Workplace security has become a critical issue for employers. b) Workplace security is defined as actions on behalf of an employer to ensure that the employer’s interests are protected. c) Workplace security issues have become less prevalent in U.S. organizations over the last five years. d) Telephone, system computers, and emails are the primary targets of employee monitoring. e) Most large companies monitor their employees’ email and Internet usage. 66. Nineteenth-century common law permitted employers to discipline or discharge employees at their discretion. This concept is the basis for a) the employment-at-will doctrine. b) the hot stove policy. c) property rights. d) employee surveillance. e) labor arbitration. 67. Joan was fired for booking her modeling jobs from her desk as secretary for a manufacturing firm. She had business cards printed for her part time modeling agency with her office phone, email, and mailing address. The other secretaries had complained that they took personal (modeling) calls for her when she was absent from the office. She claimed that during her job interview she had been told about the company flexibility and the low demands on workers. She said employees were encouraged to develop other interests and skills. What type of wrongful discharge suit could she file? a) Contractual relationship. b) Breach of good faith. c) Statutory considerations. d) Public policy violation. e) Implied contract. 68. Erica was fired for refusing to sign her name to a financial report that she knew was inaccurate. What type of wrongful discharge suit could she file? a) Public policy violation. b) Breach of good faith. c) Employment-at-will doctrine. d) Contractual relationship. e) Implied contract. 69. Which of the following is not an exception to the employment-at-will doctrine? a) Contractual relationship b) Public policy violations c) Implied employment contract d) Closed employment clause e) Statutory considerations. 70. Diane had been Frank's secretary for 35 years. Frank fired Diane last month because he could hire an entry-level secretary for about half the money he paid Diane. What type of wrongful discharge suit could Diane file? a) Contractual relationship. b) Breach of good faith. c) Statutory considerations. d) Public policy violation. e) Implied employment contract. 71. Carrying a concealed weapon, gross insubordination, and sexually harassing another employee are examples of which type of disciplinary problem? a) Attendance. . b) On-the-job behaviors. c) Dishonesty. d) Outside activities. e) Shirking 72. Chris and David both arrived one hour late for work today. Chris was fired. David was given a verbal warning. Such disparate treatment for the same offense could be considered fair and equitable for all of these reasons except a) Chris was a long term employee. David was a new hire. b) Chris comes in late three or four days a week. He has been warned repeatedly about consequences for such behavior. David has never been late before. c) Chris has proven to be an unreliable employee. He is inaccurate and late in written work. He often misses meetings that he says he attends. David is a reliable employee in other aspects of the job. d) Upper management demands that time rules be followed by all employees. e) Chris missed the annual board review. David had nothing scheduled until noon. 73. Debbie is ready to fire Sharon, a new employee who tends to do only the work that she wants to do. Debbie found customer receipts in the trash 3 days last week, not in the appropriate customer files. She knows that Sharon does not like to file. Debbie has scheduled Sharon for the clerical skills course offered next month. There is a half day in that course devoted to upholding the organization’s standards of acceptable behavior. What contingency factor is Debbie considering as she begins the disciplinary process? a) Nature and extent of the problem. b) Extenuating circumstances. c) Severity of the problem. d) Management backing. e) Degree of socialization 74. Sharon has been disruptive and unprepared for several important meetings in the past few weeks. Debbie, her boss, hesitates to fire her. Debbie’s boss frequently brags that no employee in his division has ever been fired. Why is Debbie hesitating? a) Nature and extent of the problem. b) Extenuating circumstances. c) Severity of the problem. d) Organization history. e) Degree of socialization. 75. Sharon has been disruptive and unprepared for several important meetings in the past few weeks. Debbie, her boss, hesitates to fire Sharon because she has been an excellent employee for over five years. Debbie decides to talk to Sharon about any issues or distractions that might be affecting her work. Why is Debbie hesitating? a) Nature and extent of the problem. b) Extenuating circumstances. c) Severity of the problem. d) Organization history. e) Management backing. 76. Sam is a night watchman for a small computer manufacturer. He is working his way through college and usually either sleeps or does his homework during his shift. His supervisor told him that homework was permissible, as long as he scanned the monitors every 10 minutes and walked the building every hour. Sleeping, however, is grounds for dismissal. Sam has been written up two times for sleeping during his work shift. After the last time, he was told there would be no more chances. Last week, $1 million worth of equipment vanished from inventory. When the thieves were caught, they mentioned the sleeping night watchman. Sam’s boss fired him immediately, yelling at him that he was just like his brother, a no good lazy bum. What was wrong with the boss’ actions? a) The boss should not have made personal comments. b) Sam should have been warned. c) The boss should have waited several weeks before firing Sam. d) Sam should be transferred to a less responsible job. e) The boss should have inquired about extenuating circumstances in the offense. 77. Cindy, a college secretary, discarded transcript updates instead of filing them. David, the dean, spoke to Cindy this [Show More]

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