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 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI Adult Nursing (NUR 105) Med Surg test Latest Verified Questions and all Correct Answers with Explanations Chapter 69: Management of Patients with Neurologic Infections, Autoimmune Disorders, and Neuropathies Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A (All)

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 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI Adult Nursing (NUR 105) Med Surg test questions 06: Individual and Family Homeostasis, Stress, and Adaptation Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A Individual and Family Homeostasis, Stress, and Adaptation 1. A nurse is meeting with a young woman who has recently lost her job after moving with her husband to a new city. She describes herself as being anxious and pretty depressed. What principle of stress and adaptation should be integrated into the nurses plan of care for this patient? 2. You are the nurse caring for an adult patient who has just received a diagnosis of prostate cancer. The patient states that he will never be able to cope with this situation. How should you best understand the concept of coping when attempting to meet this patients needs? 3. The nurse is with a patient who has learned that he has glioblastoma multiforme, a brain tumor associated with an exceptionally poor prognosis. His heart rate increases, his eyes dilate, and his blood pressure increases. The nurse recognizes these changes as being attributable to what response? 4. You are the nurse caring for a 72-year-old woman who is recovering from a hemicolectomy on the postsurgical unit. The surgery was very stressful and prolonged, and you note on the chart that her blood sugars are elevated, yet diabetes does not appear in her previous medical history. To what do you attribute this elevation in blood sugars? 5. A patient tells the nurse that she does not like to go to the doctor and is feeling anxious about being in this place. When the nurse checks her blood pressure, it is elevated along with her heart rate. The nurse rechecks her blood pressure about 10 minutes later and it is normal. The patient asks the nurse if she should be concerned that she may have hypertension. What statement should guide the nurses response? 6. A patient presents to the health center and the nurse practitioners assessment reveals an enlarged thyroid. The nurse practitioner believes the thyroid cells may be undergoing hyperplasia. How would the nurse practitioner explain this condition to the patient? 7. A mother has brought her young son to the emergency department (ED). The mother tells the triage nurse that the boy was stung by a bee about an hour ago. The mother explains to the nurse, It hurts him so bad and it looks swollen, red, and infected. What can the triage nurse teach the mother? 8. You are caring for an older female patient who is being treated for acute anxiety. She has a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective Coping related to a feeling of helplessness. What would be the most appropriate nursing intervention? 9. A 35-year-old woman comes to the local health center with a large mass in her right breast. She has felt the lump for about a year, but was afraid to come to the clinic because she was sure it was cancer. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient? 10. The nurse at the student health center is seeing a group of students who are interested in reducing their stress level. The nurse identifies guided imagery as an appropriate intervention. What will be included in the nurses intervention? (All)

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 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI VERIFIED LATEST UNITED STATES MEDICAL LICENSING EXAMINATION SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A Question 1 1. A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of an acute episode of renal colic. Medical history is remarkable for episodes of painful urination and passing of what he calls "gravel in my urine." Urinalysis demonstrates microscopic hematuria with some crystalluria and no casts. Supine x-ray of the abdomen shows no abnormalities. A 4-mm renal calculus is detected in the distal right ureter on ultrasonography. There is no evidence of dilation of the collecting system. The patient's pain is responsive to narcotic medication. In addition to administering intravenous fluids, which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A. Acidification of urine by drinking cranberry juice B. Cystoscopic removal of the calculus C. Cystoscopic ureteral lavage D. Shock wave lithotripsy E. Straining of the urine Questions 2 to 3 A 52-year-old man returns to the office for reevaluation of an ulcer on his right great toe. The patient has a 15-year history of diabetes mellitus and takes glipizide and rosiglitazone. He first noticed the ulcer 2 months ago. One month ago, a 14-day course of oral amoxicillin-clavulanate therapy was prescribed. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 37 years. He is 178 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 102 kg (225 lb); BMI is 32 kg/m2. Today, vital signs are temperature 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse 96/min, respirations 12/min, and blood pressure 130/85 mm Hg. Physical examination of the right great toe discloses a 1.5-cm nontender ulcer with a depth of 0.5 cm, a moist base, yellow exudate, and surrounding erythema to the level of the malleoli. Vibration sense and sensation to monofilament examination are absent. Pulses are diminished in both feet. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds in the right great toe. Urinalysis discloses 3+ protein. 2. Which of the following historical factors or physical examination findings is most strongly associated with development of this patient's foot ulcer? A. Diminished pedal pulses B. Neurologic findings C. The patient's weight D. Proteinuria E. Tobacco use 3. Which of the following is the most appropriate action at this time? A. Begin aggressive debridement in the office B. Begin intravenous antibiotic therapy C. Refer the patient for transmetatarsal amputation D. Schedule the patient for a third-degree skin graft E. Switch the amoxicillin-clavulanate to oral ciprofloxacin (All)

 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI COMPRHENSIVE SURGERY REVISION 2021 Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A BREAST 1. After intraductal papilloma, unilateral bloody nipple discharge from one duct orifice is most commonly caused by which of the following pathologic conditions? 2. Which of the following conditions is associated with increased risk of breast cancer? ENDOCRINE 1 . When progressive enlargement of a multinodular goiter causes symptomatic tracheal compression, the preferred management in otherwise good-risk patients is: 2. The most precise diagnostic screening procedure for differentiating benign thyroid nodules from malignant ones is: ABDOMINAL WALL (HERNIA) & ACUTE ABDOMEN 1. The most common hernia in females is: 2. Which of the following statements regarding unusual hernias is incorrect? ESOPHAGUS, STOMACH & DUODENUM 1 . Which of the following statements about the anatomic course of the esophagus is correct? 2. Which of the following statements about esophageal anatomy is correct? SMALL INTESTINE 1 . The most common site of adenocarcinoma of the small intestine is the: 2. The most common benign tumor of the small intestine is: LARGE INTESTINE 1 . Which answers are true? In contrast to ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease of the colon: 2. Which answers are true? Options to consider when operating for Crohn's disease of the large intestine include: HEPATOBILIARY & PANCREASE 1 . Which of the following statements about the segmental anatomy of the liver are not true? 2. Which of the following anatomic features of the biliary system are important considerations in operative cholangiography? SPLEEN 1 . As the functional anatomy of the spleen is divided into red pulp, white pulp, and marginal zone, what function is incorporated into the anatomy of the cortical zone that relates to infection control? 2. During the evolution of the understanding of hematologic diseases, the indications for splenectomy have changed. The most common indications for splenectomy are, in descending order of frequency: ORTHOPEDICS 1 . Which of the following statements about open fractures is/are correct? 2. The goals of proper fracture reduction include which of the following? NEUROSURGERY 1 . Which of the following are true about the history of neurosurgery? 2. The neurosurgeon who has had the most profound influence on the development of neurosurgery is: THORACIC 1 . The bronchial circulation: 2. Clearance of mucus produced in the tracheobronchial tree in chronic bronchitis secondary to smoking may: TRANSPLANTATION 1 . The "father of experimental surgery" who performed pioneering research, including several transplantation procedures, was: 2. Transplantation terminology contains terms to describe the relationship of the graft donor to the graft recipient. Historical terms such as "homograft" and "heterograft" have been replaced by less ambiguous terms. The correct modern terminology for a graft between genetically nonidentical members of the same species is: TRAUMA & BURNS 1 . Nasotracheal intubation: 2. Cardiac contusions caused by blunt chest trauma: ONCOLOGY 1 . Cytotoxic T cells (CTLJ are capable of recognizing: 2. Adoptive immunotherapy with lymphokine activated killer cells (LAKJ and tumor infiltrate (TIL) cells are characterized by: PEDIATRIC SURGERY 1 . Polyhydramnios is frequently observed in all of the following conditions except: 2. Which of the following statements about Hirschsprung's disease is/are true? (All)

 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI COMPRHENSIVE SURGERY (BREAST) REVISION 2021 Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A BREAST 1. After intraductal papilloma, unilateral bloody nipple discharge from one duct orifice is most commonly caused by which of the following pathologic conditions? 2. Which of the following conditions is associated with increased risk of breast cancer? 3. Which of the following breast lesions are noninvasive malignancies? 4. Which of the following are the most important and clinically useful risk factors for breast cancer? 5. Which of the following pathologic findings is the strongest contraindication to breast preservation (lumpectomy with breast radiation) as primary treatment for a newly diagnosed breast cancer? (All)

 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI COMPRHENSIVE SURGERY (ENDOCRINE) REVISION 2021 Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A ENDOCRINE 1. When progressive enlargement of a multinodular goiter causes symptomatic tracheal compression, the preferred management in otherwise good-risk patients is: 2. The most precise diagnostic screening procedure for differentiating benign thyroid nodules from malignant ones is: 3. The preferred operation for initial management of a thyroid nodule that is considered suspicious for malignancy by FNAB is: 4. Advantages of total thyroidectomy for management of papillary carcinomas of the thyroid larger than 1 .5 cm. include: 5. Which of the following statements about follicular carcinoma is/are true? 6. A familial form of medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) should be suspected whenever: 7. All of the following are components of the MEN type 2B syndrome except: 8. MEN 2A and MEN 2B syndromes are associated with germline mutations in: 9. Which of the following are true concerning islet cell neoplasms of the pancreas in patients with MEN type 1? 10. Which of the following statements about the differential diagnosis of hypercalcemia is/are correct. (All)

 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI COMPRHENSIVE SURGERY (ABDOMINAL WALL (HERNIA) & ACUTE, ABDOMEN) REVISION 2021 Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A ABDOMINAL WALL (HERNIA) & ACUTE ABDOMEN 1. The most common hernia in females is: 2. Which of the following statements regarding unusual hernias is incorrect? 3. Staples may safely be placed during laparoscopic hernia repair in each of the following structures except: 4. The following Nyhus classification of hernias is correct except for: 5. Which of the following statements about the causes of inguinal hernia is correct? 6. The following statements about the repair of inguinal hernias are true except: 7. Which of the following statements concerning the abdominal wall layers are correct? 8. Which of the following congenital abnormalities are correctly defined? 9. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning the indications for treatment of an inguinal hernia. 10. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the diagnosis and management of epigastric hernias? (All)

 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI PROCTORED PEDS Rasmussen College NUR 3463 ATI PROCTORED PEDS 70 Test Questions with Answers Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A 1. A nurse is speaking with the mother of a 6-year-old child. Which of the following statements bythe mother should concern the nurse? 2. A nurse is conducting a primary survey of a client who has sustained life-threatening injuries doto a motor-vehicle crash. Identify the sequence of actions the nurse should take. 3. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about food choices with the mother of an 8-month-old infant. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates a need for further teaching? 4. A nurse in an emergency room is caring for a client who sustained partial-thickness burns to both lower legs, chest, face, and both forearms. Which of the following is the priority action thenurse should take? 5. A charge nurse is making a room assignment for a client who has scabies. In which of the following rooms should the nurse place the client? 6. A nurse is reviewing the lab findings for a client who has ITP. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to be decreased? 7. A nurse is assessing a client who has SLE. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? 8. A client is admitted to the emergency room with a respiratory rate of 7/min. ABG reveal the following values. Which of the following is an appropriate analysis of the ABGs? 9. A nurse is caring for a group of clients in an infectious disease unit. The nurse should wear OSHA- approved N95 respirator mask when caring for a client with which of the following infectious diseases? 10. A nurse is teaching a client about taking diphenhydramine. The nurse should explain to the clientthat which of the following is an adverse effect of this medication? (All)

 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI PROCTORED PEDS (NURS 307) 70 Test Questions with Answers Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A 1. A nurse is speaking with the mother of a 6-year-old child. Which of the following statements bythe mother should concern the nurse? 2. A nurse is conducting a primary survey of a client who has sustained life-threatening injuries doto a motor-vehicle crash. Identify the sequence of actions the nurse should take. 3. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about food choices with the mother of an 8-month-old infant. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates a need for further teaching? 4. A nurse in an emergency room is caring for a client who sustained partial-thickness burns to both lower legs, chest, face, and both forearms. Which of the following is the priority action thenurse should take? 5. A charge nurse is making a room assignment for a client who has scabies. In which of the following rooms should the nurse place the client? 6. A nurse is reviewing the lab findings for a client who has ITP. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to be decreased? 7. A nurse is assessing a client who has SLE. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? 8. A client is admitted to the emergency room with a respiratory rate of 7/min. ABG reveal the following values. Which of the following is an appropriate analysis of the ABGs? 9. A nurse is caring for a group of clients in an infectious disease unit. The nurse should wear OSHA- approved N95 respirator mask when caring for a client with which of the following infectious diseases? 10. A nurse is teaching a client about taking diphenhydramine. The nurse should explain to the clientthat which of the following is an adverse effect of this medication? (All)

 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI PEDS FINAL Test Practice Guide for Pediatrics Questions Fully Answered Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A 1. The nurse is caring for a 6 month old with suspected meningitis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse prepare to assess if meningitis is confirmed? (Select all that apply) 2. A nurse is caring for an infant who has gastroesophageal reflux. The nurse should place the infant in which of the following positions? 3. A nurse creates a plan of care for a client who has a traumatic head injury to determine motor function response. Which of the following client responses to painful stimulus is within normal limits? 4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of an adolescent who has chronic glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? 5. A nurse is teaching a parent of a 2 year old child about safe food choices. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend? 6. A nurse is providing teaching to a parent of a child who has Hirsch sprung disease is scheduled for initial surgery. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching? 7. A nurse is caring for a child who has autism. Which of the following are expected behavioral findings. (Select all that apply 8. A nurse is planning care for a 10 month old infant who is 8 hr. postoperative following cleft palate repair. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the infant’s plan of care? 9. The nurse is doing a routine assessment on a 14 month old infant and notes that the anterior fontanel is closed. This should be interpreted as: 10. A nurse is providing teaching to a school age child who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the child indicates an understanding of the teaching? (All)

 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI COMPRHENSIVE SURGERY (ESOPHAGUS, STOMACH & DUODENUM) REVISION 2021 Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A ESOPHAGUS, STOMACH & DUODENUM 1. Which of the following statements about the anatomic course of the esophagus is correct? 2. Which of the following statements about esophageal anatomy is correct? 3. Which of the following statements about the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) mechanism, or high-pressure zone (HPZ), is true? 4. Which of the following statements about esophageal motility is/are true? 5. Which of the following statements about UES dysfunction are correct? 6. Which of the following statements about achalasia is/are correct? 7. Which of the following statements about diffuse esophageal spasm is/are true? 8. Which of the following statements about epiphrenic diverticula of the esophagus is/are correct? 9. Which of the following statements about Schatzki's ring is correct? 10. Choose the distance in centimeters from the upper incisor teeth at which the following radiographically identified esophageal lesions would be encountered endoscopically: (All)

 *NURSING> QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > ATI NUTRITION TEST REVIEW A and B Graded A, Latest Questions and Answers with Explanations, All Correct Study Guide, Download to Score A 1. A nurse is performing a comprehensive nutritional assessment for a client. After reviewing the client's laboratory results, which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? a. WBC count 6,000/mm3 b. Sodium 139 mEq/L c. Prealbumin 8 mg/dL d. Thyroxine (T4) 9.2 mcg/dl 2. A client reports constipation during a routine checkup. The client was previously encouraged to increase their intake of mineral supplements. Which of the following minerals should the nurse identify as the possible cause of the constipation? a. Phosphorus b. Potassium c. Magnesium d. Calcium 3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has Parkinson's disease and a prescription for levodopa-carbidopa. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to consume with the medication? a. 6 oz Greek yogurt b. 1 oz cheddar cheese c. Six peanut butter crackers d. One slice wheat toast 4. A nurse is providing nutritional teaching to the guardians of a 2-year-old toddler. Which of the following snack foods should the nurse recommend including in the toddler's diet? a. 1 cup of fruit gel bites b. 1 cup of yogurt c. ½ of a hot dog d. ½ of a peanut butter and jelly sandwich 5. A nurse is initiating an enteral feeding for a client who has chronic bronchitis. Which of the following types of formula should the nurse anticipate administering to the client? a. Low protein b. High carbohydrate c. High calorie d. Low fat 6. A nurse is assessing a client who has end-stage kidney disease {ESKD). Which of the following dietary habits increases the client's risk for dysrhythmias? a. Consuming a diet low in fat b. Eating a diet rich in potassium c. Consuming a diet rich in protein d. Eating a diet deficient in iron 7. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider? a. Glucose 238 mg/dl b. Potassium 4.7 mEq/L c. Calcium 9.8 mg/dl d. Sodium 140 mEq/L 8. A nurse is providing information regarding breastfeeding to the parents of a newborn. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? a. "Breast milk is nutritionally complete for an infant up to 6 months of age." b. "Iron-fortified infant formulas are nutritionally inferior to breast milk." c. "Supplemental water is needed to provide an adequate fluid intake." ‘ d. "Use whole cow's milk if you discontinue breastfeeding in the first year." 9. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The current bag ofTPN is empty and a new bag is not available on the unit. Which of the following solutions should the nurse infuse until a new bag of TPN is available? a. Dextrose 10% in water b. 0.45% sodium chloride c. Dextrose 5% in lactated Ringer's d. 0.9% sodium chloride 10. A nurse is caring for a client who is being treated for cancer using chemotherapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest to aid in management of treatment-related changes in taste? a. Use plastic utensils. b. Limit fluids with meals. c. Serve meals while they are hot. d. Eat bland, unseasoned foods. 11. A nurse is caring for a client who has age-related macular degeneration (AMD) and asks the nurse if there are any nutritional changes to consider. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? a. "Use soy products as much as possible." b. "Add niacin-rich foods to your diet." c. "Increase dietary intake of lutein." d. "Consume foods with a high glycemic index." 12. A nurse is teaching a client who has a BMI of 22 about dietary recommendations during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I should avoid a vegetarian diet." b. "I should decrease my intake of protein." c. "I should increase my daily intake by 600 calories." d. "I should plan to gain a total of 25 to 35 pounds." 13. A nurse is admitting a client who has had a fever and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the client is dehydrated? a. Distended neck veins b. Orthostatic hypotension c. Weight gain d. Peripheral edema 14. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral feedings every 4 hr via an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk for aspiration? a. Check placement of the NG tube once per day. b. Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position. c. Flush the tubing with 20 ml of water prior to each feeding. d. Administer the formula chilled. 15. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of four clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following clients is experiencing fluid overload? a. A client who has an albumin level of 5.5 g/dL b. A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.035 c. A client who has a Hct of 55% d. A client who has a sodium level of 130 mEq/L 16. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has a pressure injury. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is at risk for impaired wound healing? a. Hgb 15 g/dl b. Albumin 3.0 g/dl c. Prothrombin time 11.5 seconds d. WBC 6,000/mm3 17. A nurse is updating a plan of care for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral feedings and is experiencing diarrhea. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? a. Discard the client's opened cans of formula within 48 hr. b. Administer the client's formula cold. c. Feed the client in small, frequent volumes. d. Consider a low-calorie formula for the client. 18. A nurse is caring for a client who has anemia and a new prescription for an iron supplement. The nurse should recommend the client consume the supplement with which of the following beverages to increase absorption? a. Protein shake b. Skim milk c. Tomato juice d. Green tea 19. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. The client reports a metallic taste in his mouth while eating. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide three large meals daily. b. Offer citrus fruits. c. Suggest pickles as a snack. d. Rinse silverware prior to eating. e. Gargle with mouthwash. 20. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and reports feeling dizzy, weak, and shaky. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse? a. Offer the client 180 ml (6 oz) of orange juice. b. Document the client's intake from the most recent meal. c. Teach the client manifestations of hypoglycemia. d. Check the client's blood glucose level. 21. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new ileostomy. Which of the following dietary guidelines should the nurse include in the teaching? a. Plan to reduce dietary salt intake. b. Consume limited amounts of pasta products. c. Prepare meals on a schedule. d. Reduce dietary B12. 22. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is currently experiencing an exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of dietary practices during acute episodes? a. "I will take a fiber supplement daily." b. "I will increase my fat intake." c. "I will follow a high-protein diet." d. "I will consume three large meals throughout the day." 23. A nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? a. Weigh the client once weekly at the same time of the day. b. Stay with the client for 30 min after meals. c. Allow the client to schedule mealtimes. d. Assign privileges based on direct weight gain. 24. A nurse is caring for a group of clients. A client who has which of the following conditions has an increased protein requirement? a. Pressure injury b. Early-stage renal disease c. Coronary artery disease d. Peptic ulcer 25. A nurse is assessing a client who experienced a 5% weight loss in the past 30 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of malnutrition? a. Moist skin b. Ankle edema c. Hyperreflexia d. Dilated pupils 26. A nurse is admitting a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Tremors b. Increased urination c. Heart palpitations d. Sweating 27. A nurse in an emergency department is reviewing the laboratory report for a client who is confused and reports nausea and abdominal cramping. The nurse should expect the client's laboratory results to indicate a dietary deficiency of which of the following minerals? a. Sodium b. Phosphorus c. Potassium d. Chloride 28. A nurse in an antepartum clinic is teaching a client about nutritional recommendations during pregnancy. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I should take a daily iron supplement during my pregnancy." b. "I should decrease protein intake during my pregnancy." c. "I should plan to gain at least 50 pounds during my pregnancy." d. "I should increase my fat intake during the first trimester of my pregnancy." 29. A nurse is providing teaching regarding diet modifications to a client who is at a high risk for cardiovascular disease. The client is accustomed to traditional Mexican foods and wants to continue to include them in her diet. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse give the client? a. Use canola oil instead of lard for frying. b. Use soy milk instead of cow's milk. c. Use vegetables in salads rather than in soups. d. Limit ground beef intake to 8 oz per day. 30. A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who is postoperative following placement of a colostomy. Which of the following statements should the nurse plan to include? a. "Resume a regular diet by 4 weeks after surgery." b. "Add high-fiber foods to your diet." c. "Increase your intake of foods containing pectin." d. "Drink 4 to 6 cups of water per day." 31. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed captopril. The nurse should recognize that which of the following foods could cause a potential medication interaction? a. Watermelon b. Cantaloupe c. Lettuce d. Carrots 32. A nurse in a clinic is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates the client's plan of care is effective? a. Serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dl b. BUN 25 mg/dl c. HbA1c 6.5% d. Pre-meal blood glucose 145 mg/dl 33. A nurse is planning dietary interventions for a client who is prescribed external radiation for laryngeal cancer. The client reports manifestations of stomatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include? a. Provide meals at room temperature. b. Offer the client additional seasonings for food. c. Instruct the client to eat citrus fruits at the beginning of the meal. d. Encourage the client to drink warm tomato juice in place of high-protein supplements 34. A nurse is teaching an older adult client about nutritional recommendations. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? a. "You should increase your daily calorie intake." b. "You should increase your daily protein intake." c. "You receive an adequate amount of calcium from your diet, so a supplement is not recommended." d. "You receive an adequate amount of vitamin D from sun exposure, so it is not necessary to take a supplement." 35. A nurse is providing dietary teaching about increased zinc intake for a client who has chronic skin ulcers of the lower extremities. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as containing the highest amount of zinc? a. 1 cup apple slices b. 4 oz low-fat cottage cheese c. 4 oz ground beef patty d. 1 cup raw spinach 36. A nurse is assessing the meal pattern of a client who has diverticular disease and a prescription for a high-fiber diet. Which of the following food choices by the client contains the most fiber? a. 1 medium banana b. ½ cup oatmeal c. 1 medium apple with skin d. ½ cup bran cereal 37. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who reports nausea during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I should drink liquids with meals." b. "I will eat dry cereal before I get out of bed." c. "I will increase the fat content in my diet." d. "I should drink a cup of hot tea between meals." 38. A nurse is providing teaching about cancer prevention to a group of clients. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I will eat five servings of fruits and vegetables each day." b. "I should limit my alcohol intake to a maximum of three drinks daily." c. "I should eat more refined wheat and oat products." d. "I will eat processed meats to achieve my required protein intake." 39. A nurse is providing dietary teaching about reducing the risk of infection to a client who has cancer and is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. “I will thaw my food at room temperature." b. "I will use leftovers within 24 hours." c. "I should use home-canned goods within 2 years of canning." d. "I should heat my food to at least 120 degrees Fahrenheit." 40. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has celiac disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I can return to my normal diet after I follow this diet for 1 month." b. "I can have tapioca pudding for dessert." c. "I will choose canned soups that do not contain meat products." d. "I will eat my sandwiches on whole wheat bread." 41. A nurse is teaching a client who is preparing for bowel surgery about a low- residue diet. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. Three slices of bacon and oatmeal toast b. Granola with raisins and strawberries c. Whole wheat French toast with blueberries and maple syrup d. Two poached eggs and a banana 42. A nurse is caring for a client who develops diarrhea while receiving a continuous enteral tube feeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Provide a low-protein formula. b. Elevate the head of the bed to 30° . c. Switch to intermittent feedings. d. Warm the formula to room temperature 43. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings via an NG tube. The nurse notices that the tube feeding has stopped infusing. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority? a. Change the formula. b. Change the tube. c. Notify the provider. d. Flush the tube with warm water 44. A nurse is conducting dietary teaching for a group for clients who are trying to become pregnant. Which of the following food items should the nurse include as containing the highest amount of folate? a. ½ cup chickpeas b. 3.5 oz chicken liver c. 1 medium orange d. 1 slice white bread 45. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and ascites. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide for this client? a. "Decrease your sodium intake to 1 to 2 grams per day." b. "Increase your daily fluid intake to 3 liters per day." c. "Consume 0.5 grams per kilogram of protein per day." d. "Eliminate foods that contain vitamin K." 46. A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for ferrous sulfate about food interactions. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the teaching? a. "I can take this medication with juice." b. "I can take this medication with my eggs at breakfast." c. "I will drink low-fat milk when taking this medication." d. "I will take this medication with my coffee." 47. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory findings indicates that the TPN therapy is effective? a. Calcium 8 mg/ml b. Hemoglobin 9 g/dl c. Prealbumin 30 mg/dL d. Cholesterol 140 mg/dl 48. A nurse is providing nutritional teaching to a client who reports wanting to lose weight. The nurse should identify that which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I will taste my foods while I am cooking." b. "I will exclude breads and pastries from my diet." c. "I will make a list before I go grocery shopping." d. "I will skip lunch if I am too busy to have something healthy." (All)

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